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  • Question 1 - Which foramen contains the vertebral artery? ...

    Correct

    • Which foramen contains the vertebral artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa. It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata. Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges, spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Vesical plexus

      Correct Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6...

    Correct

    • A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6 months and a recent-onset of milk discharge from her breasts. She was not pregnant or on any medication. On enquiry, she admitted to having frequent headaches the last 4 months. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in her condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Excessively high levels of prolactin in the blood is called hyperprolactinaemia. Normally, prolactin levels are less than 580 mIU/l in females and less than 450 mIU/l in men. The biologically inactive macroprolactin can lead to a false high reading. However, the patient remains asymptomatic. Dopamine down-regulates prolactin whereas oestrogen upregulates it. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused due to lack of inhibition (compression of pituitary stalk or low dopamine levels), or increased production due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Either of these causes can lead to a prolactin level of 1000-5000 mIU/l. However, levels more than 5000mIU/l are usually associated due to an adenoma and >100,000 mIU/l are seen in macroadenomas (tumours < 1cm in diameter). Increased prolactin causes increased dopamine release from the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus. This increased dopamine in turn, inhibits the GnRH (Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone) thus blocking gonadal steroidogenesis resulting in the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. In women, it includes hypoestrogenism, anovulatory infertility, decreased or irregular menstruation or complete amenorrhoea. It can even cause production of breast milk, loss of libido, vaginal dryness and osteoporosis. In men, the symptoms include impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction and infertility. In men, treatment can be delayed due to late diagnosis as they have no reliable indicator such as menstruation that might indicate a problem. Most of the male patients seek help only when headaches and visual defects start to surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion for 1 week. On examination, she was found to have multiple petechiae all over her skin and mucosal surfaces. Blood investigations revealed low platelet count and raised urea and creatinine. A platelet transfusion was carried out, following which she succumbed to death. Autopsy revealed pink hyaline thrombi in myocardial arteries. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Hyaline thrombi are typically associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is caused by non-immunological destruction of platelets. Platelet transfusion is contraindicated in TTP. Platelets and red blood cells also get damaged by loose strands of fibrin deposited in small vessels. Multiple organs start developing platelet-fibrin thrombi (bland thrombi with no vasculitis) typically at arteriocapillary junctions. This is known as ‘thrombotic microangiopathy’. Treatment consists of plasma exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following malignancies is associated with the development of Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome is a rare disorder of the neuromuscular junction. It can occur as a solitary diagnosis but it can also occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, particularly small-cell histology. It can also be associated with other cancers such as lymphoma, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, T-cell leukaemia, non-small-cell lung cancer, prostate cancer and thymoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During strenuous exercise, what else occurs besides tachycardia? ...

    Incorrect

    • During strenuous exercise, what else occurs besides tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Rise in mixed venous blood O2 saturation

      Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume

      Explanation:

      During strenuous exercise there is an increase in:

      – Heart rate, stroke volume and therefore cardiac output. (CO = HR x SV)

      – Respiratory rate (hyperventilation) which will lead to a reduction in Paco2.

      – Oxygen demand of skeletal muscle, therefore leading to a reduction in mixed venous blood oxygen concentration.

      Renal blood flow is autoregulated, so renal blood flow is preserved and will tend to remain the same. Mean arterial blood pressure is a function of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance and will increase with exercise, mainly as a result of the increase in cardiac output that occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: Inferior mediastinum

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.

      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.

      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.

      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.

      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction,...

    Incorrect

    • Streptokinase is used to break down clots in some cases of myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, and arterial thromboembolism; however, it is not recommended to use it again after 4 days from the first administration. Which complication could arise from repeated use?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Correct Answer: Allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase belongs to a group of medications known as ‘fibrinolytics’ and is an extracellular metallo-enzyme produced by beta-haemolytic streptococci, used as an effective clot-dissolving medication in patients with myocardial infarction and pulmonary embolism. As Streptokinase is a bacterial product, the body has the ability to build up an immunity to it. Therefore, it is recommended that this medication should not be used again after four days from the first administration, as it may not be as effective and may also cause an allergic reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with pain and swelling in a limb which increases after activity. X-rays reveal an expansible, eccentric, lytic lesion in the metaphysis distally in the affected bone surrounded by new bone. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondrosarcoma

      Correct Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Explanation:

      Aneurysmal bone cysts tend to develop in patients younger than 20 years old. They usually occur in the metaphyseal region of long bones, and are cystic lesions composed of numerous blood filled channels that grow slowly. In X-rays, they show up as circumscribed lesions, sometimes surrounded by new bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The proximal tubule is the portion of the ductal system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop...

    Correct

    • The proximal tubule is the portion of the ductal system of the nephron of the kidney which leads from Bowman's capsule to the loop of Henle. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a sample of fluid leaving the proximal tubule?

      Your Answer: It will have no amino acids

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is the portion of the duct system of the nephron leading from Bowman’s capsule to the loop of Henlé. The most distinctive characteristic of the proximal tubule is its brush border (or ‘striated border’). The luminal surface of the epithelial cells of this segment of the nephron is covered with densely packed microvilli forming a border which greatly increases the luminal surface area of the cells, presumably facilitating their reabsorptive function. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate, and some other solutes are100% reabsorbed via secondary active transport through co-transporters driven by the sodium gradient out of the nephron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases?...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.

      Your Answer: Medullary carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 260 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l

      What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 100 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 × 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the extracellular fluid that is available for buffering changes in the calcium ion balance?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Correct Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Around 1% of calcium in the body is available for buffering changes in calcium ion balance. These are mainly derived from the bone that are freely exchangeable with extracellular fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Medial rectus muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a...

    Incorrect

    • A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer: Decreased PR interval

      Correct Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presented with a persistent cough and weight loss. Chest x-ray demonstrated widespread nodular opacities. After a bronchoalveolar lavage, atypical cells were detected. Which is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Correct Answer: Bronchioalveolar carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC) is a term used to define a particular subtype of adenocarcinoma which develops in cells near the alveoli, in the outer regions of the lungs. On a chest X-ray it can appear as a single peripheral spot or as scattered spots throughout the lungs. Symptoms include cough, haemoptysis, chest pain, dyspnoea and loss of weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Correct

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint:...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to...

    Incorrect

    • During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Right pulmonary artery

      Correct Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the...

    Correct

    • What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is responsible for the tensing of the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid muscle

      Explanation:

      The cricothyroid muscle is the only tensor muscle of the larynx aiding with phonation. It attaches to the anterolateral aspect of the cricoid and the inferior cornu and lower lamina of the thyroid cartilage. Its action tilts the thyroid forward to help tense the vocal cords.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Bloody discharge from the nipple of a 40-year old woman with no obvious...

    Correct

    • Bloody discharge from the nipple of a 40-year old woman with no obvious lump or abnormality on mammography is suggestive of:

      Your Answer: Intraductal papilloma

      Explanation:

      A small benign tumour, namely intraductal papilloma is most common in women between 35-55 years of age. It is also the commonest cause of spontaneous discharge from a single duct. A lump below the nipple may be sometimes palpable. Ultrasound and ductography are useful investigations., along with cytology of discharge to assess the presence of malignant cells. Confirmation is by breast biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is not seen as a complication of wound healing?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not seen as a complication of wound healing?

      Your Answer: Proud flesh

      Correct Answer: Malignancy

      Explanation:

      Complications in wound healing can originate due to abnormalities in the repair process. These abnormalities are :

      1) Deficient scar formation: insufficient granulation tissue can lead to wound dehiscence and ulceration. Dehiscence or wound rupture is seen most commonly in abdominal surgery due to increased intraabdominal pressure. Ulcerations are common in extremity wounds due to inadequate vascularization.

      2) Excessive formation of repair components: collagen being laid down may begin normally however later lead to a raised scar also called a hypertrophic scar, which can extend beyond its boundaries to form a keloid and

      3) Formation of contractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother...

    Incorrect

    • The likely cause of a tender and swollen breast in a lactating mother is:

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Correct Answer: Acute mastitis

      Explanation:

      Acute mastitis results due to bacterial infection of the breast and results in signs of inflammation. It commonly occurs 2-3 weeks postpartum and common causative microorganisms are Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, and Escherichia coli. Complications like an abscess can be avoided by prompt treatment, which includes antibiotics and rest along with continued lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Incorrect

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely...

    Correct

    • Which nuclei of the posterior grey column of the spinal cord are likely affected in a patient who has lost the sensation of pain and temperature?

      Your Answer: Substantia gelatinosa

      Explanation:

      Substantia gelatinosa is one of the nuclei in the posterior grey column along side other posterior grey column nuclei like the nucleus dorsalis, nucleus proprius, and posteromarginal nucleus. These nuclei are a collection of cells in the posterior grey area found in throughout the spinal cord. The substantia gelatinosa receives direct input from the dorsal nerve roots (sensory), especially from thermoreceptors and nociceptors (receptors for temperature and pain).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?

      Your Answer: Subclavian vein

      Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
      The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      26.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/13) 38%
Head & Neck (2/4) 50%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Pathology (4/12) 33%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Physiology (2/5) 40%
Thorax (0/4) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Women's Health (1/2) 50%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Passmed