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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual presents with symptoms consistent with social anxiety disorder. To further assess their condition, you inquire about their seating preference when dining out.

      Which of the following responses would best support your suspicion?

      Your Answer: Close to the bar

      Correct Answer: In a quiet corner

      Explanation:

      Individuals with social phobia experience anxiety and apprehension regarding the possibility of receiving unfavorable attention from others, leading them to avoid eating in public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the definition of genomic imprinting? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of genomic imprinting?

      Your Answer: The mechanism by which consanguineous mating results in genetic abnormalities

      Correct Answer: The observation that portions of DNA behave differently depending on whether they are inherited from the mother of father

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A couple in their 30s, where one partner has an autosomal recessive condition...

    Correct

    • A couple in their 30s, where one partner has an autosomal recessive condition and the other is a carrier for the same condition, are planning to have a child. What is the likelihood of their child inheriting the condition?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Mendelian Inheritance (Pedigrees)

      Mendelian inheritance refers to the transmission patterns of genetic conditions caused by a mutation in a single gene. There are four types of Mendelian inheritance patterns: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked recessive, and X-linked dominant. Each pattern follows a predictable inheritance pattern within families.

      Autosomal dominant conditions are expressed in individuals who have just one copy of the mutant allele. Affected males and females have an equal probability of passing on the trait to offspring. In contrast, autosomal recessive conditions are clinically manifest only when an individual has two copies of the mutant allele. X-linked recessive traits are fully evident in males because they only have one copy of the X chromosome, while women are rarely affected by X-linked recessive diseases. X-linked dominant disorders are clinically manifest when only one copy of the mutant allele is present.

      Common examples of conditions with specific inheritance patterns include neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, Noonan’s syndrome for autosomal dominant; phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, cystic fibrosis for autosomal recessive; vitamin D resistant rickets, Rett syndrome for X-linked dominant; and cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan for X-linked recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a typical symptom observed in a patient with serotonin syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a typical symptom observed in a patient with serotonin syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clonus

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old individual presents with a fluent dysphasia and inability to understand instructions....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old individual presents with a fluent dysphasia and inability to understand instructions. What is the probable location of arterial blockage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior division of middle cerebral artery (dominant hemisphere)

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a blockage in the inferior division of the middle cerebral artery, which provides blood to the temporal cortex (specifically, the posterior superior temporal gyrus of ‘Wernicke’s area’). This type of aphasia is characterized by fluent speech, but with significant comprehension difficulties. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is considered a non-fluent expressive aphasia, resulting from damage to Brodmann’s area in the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 6 - What factor played a significant role in the shift of psychiatric influence from...

    Incorrect

    • What factor played a significant role in the shift of psychiatric influence from Europe to the United States during the 20th century?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second World War

      Explanation:

      The ascent of the National Socialist Party during the 1930s had a negative effect on psychiatry in Germany, which was previously a leading force in European psychiatry. As a result of the Second World War, numerous skilled scientists and psychiatrists fled Germany and sought refuge in the United States. Their contributions were instrumental in establishing the US as the dominant force in both academic and clinical psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - What statement accurately describes the process of searching a database? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the process of searching a database?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New references are added to PubMed more quickly than they are to MEDLINE

      Explanation:

      PubMed receives new references faster than MEDLINE because they do not need to undergo indexing, such as adding MeSH headings and checking tags. While an increasing number of MEDLINE citations have a link to the complete article, not all of them do. Since 2010, Embased has included all MEDLINE citations in its database, but it does not have all citations from before that year.

      Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.

      When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.

      There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 8 - Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      Of the nerve fibers that make up the brachial plexus, C7 mainly forms the radial nerve to innervate the triceps muscle, thus innervating the shoulders, elbow, wrist and hand. C7 is responsible for the triceps reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      0
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following associations is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following associations is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve – foramen lacerum

      Explanation:

      – The olfactory nerves pass through the cribriform plate
      – The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen rotundum
      – The facial nerve passes through the stylomastoid foramen
      – The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass through the foramen ovale
      – The glossopharyngeal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 10 - A woman in her 40s with schizophrenia who takes haloperidol develops neuroleptic malignant...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her 40s with schizophrenia who takes haloperidol develops neuroleptic malignant syndrome following a sudden change in her dose. The haloperidol is stopped for a 2 week period but this results in a deterioration of her mental state. The team agree that she requires an antipsychotic. Which of the following would you recommend?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 11 - What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 12 - You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment for bipolar disorder.
      Which of the following mood stabilizers should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen metabolism to its active metabolite may be inhibited by the use of fluoxetine and paroxetine, therefore, these medications should be avoided in patients receiving tamoxifen. Venlafaxine is considered the safest choice of antidepressant as it has little to no effect on tamoxifen metabolism. Mirtazapine has been found to have minimal effect on CYP2D6, while the other commonly prescribed antidepressants have mild to moderate degrees of CYP2D6 inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 13 - Which of the following symptoms is classified as a first rank symptom? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is classified as a first rank symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusional perception

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 14 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following emphasizes the outcomes resulting from a choice rather than the behaviors leading up to it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 16 - What medication does not impact the QTc interval? ...

    Incorrect

    • What medication does not impact the QTc interval?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole does not affect the QTc interval and has minimal risk of extrapyramidal side effects, sedation, of weight gain. Amisulpride, citalopram, and quetiapine have a moderate effect on the QTc interval, which requires ECG monitoring due to a prolongation of >10 msec. Haloperidol has a high effect on the QTc interval, which mandates ECG monitoring due to a prolongation of >20 msec.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of panic attacks presents to your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of panic attacks presents to your clinic with symptoms of agoraphobia. She has been hesitant to seek psychological therapy. Additionally, she has a medical history of hypertension. What are some common features associated with agoraphobia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal class distribution

      Explanation:

      The incidence of agoraphobia follows a typical distribution pattern. Westphal’s description of agoraphobia links it to mitral valve prolapse, and it is more prevalent among women with a persistent nature. The preferred method of treatment for agoraphobia is psychological therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 18 - Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which adverse drug reaction has the quickest onset?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I

      Explanation:

      Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions

      Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.

      Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.

      Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.

      Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.

      Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 19 - What type of adverse drug reaction is typically associated with blood abnormalities like...

    Incorrect

    • What type of adverse drug reaction is typically associated with blood abnormalities like neutropenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II

      Explanation:

      Immunologic Adverse Drug Reactions

      Immunologic adverse drug reactions account for a small percentage of all adverse drug reactions, ranging from 5 to 10%. These reactions are classified using the Gell and Coombs system, which categorizes them into four groups: Type I, Type II, Type III, and Type IV reactions.

      Type I reactions occur when a drug-IgE complex binds to mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. These reactions typically cause anaphylaxis, urticaria, and bronchospasm and occur within minutes to hours after exposure.

      Type II reactions occur when an IgG of IgM antibody binds to a cell that has been altered by a drug-hapten. These reactions often manifest as blood abnormalities, such as thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, and their timing is variable.

      Type III reactions occur when drug-antibody complexes activate the complement system, leading to fever, rash, urticaria, and vasculitis. These reactions occur 1 to 3 weeks after exposure.

      Type IV reactions arise when the MHC system presents drug molecules to T cells, resulting in allergic contact dermatitis and rashes. These reactions occur 2 to 7 days after cutaneous exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium for his bipolar disorder for more than two decades without any notable adverse effects.
      His eGFR is 34 mL/min, and his serum creatinine level is slightly above the normal range.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can cause polyuria and dilutional hyponatremia, but it does not typically lead to renal impairment. It is important to differentiate this condition from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can develop in a significant percentage of patients on long-term lithium therapy and may present with nocturia as an early sign. While elevated calcium levels may occur in some patients on lithium, hyperparathyroidism is not a common clinical symptom. Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a rare complication of lithium therapy. The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is not typically associated with polyuria of renal impairment and is not commonly linked to lithium therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old individual reports a sudden inability to chew food and upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old individual reports a sudden inability to chew food and upon examination, displays weakened masseter muscles. What nerve damage do you suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 22 - What statement accurately describes the ECG? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T waves are flat and prolonged in hypokalemia

      Explanation:

      ECG Changes Associated with Chlorpromazine

      Chlorpromazine is a psychotropic medication that has been associated with various ECG changes. One of the most notable changes is repolarization changes, which can be seen as ST segment and T wave changes. Additionally, chlorpromazine has been linked to heart blocks, which can be detected by a prolonged PR interval.

      Another significant ECG finding associated with chlorpromazine is QTc prolongation. This is a potentially dangerous condition that can lead to torsades de pointes, a type of ventricular tachycardia that can be life-threatening. Other medications that have been linked to QTc prolongation include a wide range of antipsychotics and antidepressants.

      It is important to note that not all patients who take chlorpromazine will experience ECG changes. However, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risks and monitor patients closely for any signs of cardiac abnormalities. If ECG changes are detected, the medication may need to be adjusted of discontinued to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 23 - Based on the information provided, it is most likely that the 25-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the information provided, it is most likely that the 25-year-old male with schizophrenia, who has no significant medical history, is experiencing symptoms of dehydration and hypoglycemia due to excessive fluid intake and lack of food intake. He has become lethargic and is vomiting, which are common symptoms of dehydration. His low blood glucose level of 4.3 mmol/L indicates that he has not eaten in a while and is experiencing hypoglycemia. It is important to address his dehydration and hypoglycemia promptly to prevent further complications.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic polydipsia

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient is experiencing hyponatremia due to psychogenic polydipsia, while diabetes mellitus can be ruled out as their blood glucose level is normal. Additionally, lithium toxicity is an unlikely cause as lithium is not typically prescribed for schizophrenia treatment.

      Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 24 - What is a true statement about the genetic aspect of Huntington's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the genetic aspect of Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The CAG length is more unstable when inherited from the father

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 25 - A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response. However, they gain a considerable amount of weight and are eager to find a solution. Despite attempts to lower the dosage, relapse occurs. What medication has been proven to decrease weight when combined with clozapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - What is the occurrence rate of a particular illness? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the occurrence rate of a particular illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Number of new cases arising in a population in a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Disease Incidence and Prevalence

      Disease incidence refers to the occurrence of new cases of a particular disease within a population over a specific period, usually a year. This is expressed as the number of cases per unit of population per year. On the other hand, disease prevalence refers to the total number of cases of a disease present in a defined population at a given time.

      Both incidence and prevalence are important measures in understanding the burden of a disease in a population. Incidence helps to identify the risk of developing a disease, while prevalence provides an estimate of the overall disease burden. These measures are crucial in public health planning and resource allocation for disease prevention and control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 27 - The father-to-be experiences nausea, vomiting, and abdominal swelling during the course of his...

    Incorrect

    • The father-to-be experiences nausea, vomiting, and abdominal swelling during the course of his partner's pregnancy. What is the medical term for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Couvade syndrome

      Explanation:

      Psychiatric Syndromes

      Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, is a conversion disorder that affects expectant fathers. It is characterized by the experience of physical symptoms of pregnancy. This is not a delusion, as the individual does not believe they are pregnant. Epidemiology, such as prevalence rates, may be useful in understanding this syndrome.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusional misidentification syndrome in which an individual believes that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter.

      Cotard’s syndrome is a condition characterized by nihilistic delusions, such as the belief that one is dead.

      Frégoli syndrome is a delusional misidentification syndrome in which the patient falsely identifies familiar people in strangers.

      Koro is a culture-specific syndrome in which the patient believes that their penis is retracting into their abdomen and that they will die as a result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old male experienced the sudden death of his spouse. Within a week,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male experienced the sudden death of his spouse. Within a week, he arrived at the Emergency department with an inability to speak at a normal volume and could only communicate in hushed tones.

      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aphonia

      Explanation:

      Speech disturbances can be caused by organic of psychogenic disorders. In this case, the patient is experiencing dissociative aphonia, which is a conversion disorder where psychological stress is converted into physical symptoms. Aphonia is the loss of ability to vocalize, resulting in whispered speech, and can also occur in organic disorders. Dysphonia is a speech impairment characterized by hoarseness but without complete loss of function. Echolalia is the automatic repetition of words of parts of sentences spoken in the presence of the person. Logoclonia is a condition where the patient may get stuck on a particular word, resulting in spasmodic repetition of syllables of words. Stuttering is a speech disorder characterized by involuntary repetitions, prolongations, of blocks in speech flow, resulting in silent pauses of difficulty producing sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 29 - Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct pairing regarding the surface of the cerebral hemispheres.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parietal lobe : primary somatosensory cortex

      Explanation:

      Right homonymous hemianopia is due to a lesion or pressure on the left optic tract.
      Total blindness of the left eye is due to a complete occlusion of the left optic nerve.
      Bipolar hemianopia is due to a midline chiasmal lesion.
      Left nasal hemianopia due to a lesion involving the left perichiasmal area.
      Right homonymous inferior quadrantanopia is due to involvement of the lower left optic radiations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 30 - From which structure are the cerebral peduncles derived? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which structure are the cerebral peduncles derived?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesencephalon

      Explanation:

      Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development

      The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

      The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.

      The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.

      Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 31 - What waveform represents a frequency range of 8-12Hz? ...

    Incorrect

    • What waveform represents a frequency range of 8-12Hz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 32 - What factor is most likely to induce sedation and potentially impair a person's...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to induce sedation and potentially impair a person's driving ability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpheniramine

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to avoid using first generation H1 antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine in individuals who drive of operate heavy machinery due to their ability to easily penetrate the blood brain barrier and cause sedation.

      Antihistamines: Types and Uses

      Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.

      There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 33 - Which BMI classification is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which BMI classification is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BMI 32 = obesity class I

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of Obesity

      Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.

      Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.

      Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 34 - Which of the following conditions is not licensed for the use of duloxetine?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not licensed for the use of duloxetine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Duloxetine is also licensed for the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder.

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 35 - What is the active ingredient in Subutex? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the active ingredient in Subutex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine only

      Explanation:

      Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?

      Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.

      Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.

      Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.

      Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 36 - Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following should be avoided when treating akathisia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 37 - A young adult develops nephrolithiasis after initiating a mood stabiliser. What has been...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult develops nephrolithiasis after initiating a mood stabiliser. What has been demonstrated to cause this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      The use of topiramate can result in metabolic acidosis due to its ability to block carbonic anhydrase. This can increase the risk of developing calcium phosphate nephrolithiasis, commonly known as kidney stones.

      Topiramate is a medication used for epilepsy and bipolar affective disorder. It works by inhibiting voltage gated sodium channels and increasing GABA levels. Unlike most psychotropic drugs, it is associated with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 38 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a female patient in an outpatient clinic. While reviewing her ECG, you notice that her QTc value is 660 ms, which puts her at high risk for arrhythmia. You decide to seek cardiology advice and during the handover, the cardiologist asks for your opinion on which medication may be responsible for the QTc prolongation. Which medication do you think is likely to be the culprit in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      While antipsychotics, tricyclic antidepressants, and citalopram are known to cause QTc prolongation and require ECG monitoring, they are not the only drugs that can cause this condition. However, in psychiatric practice, they are the most commonly prescribed drugs associated with QTc prolongation. It is important to note that clarithromycin is a high-risk drug for QTc prolongation, unlike the other drugs listed, which are considered low risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 39 - Which of the following has the shortest half-life? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following has the shortest half-life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zopiclone

      Explanation:

      The ‘Z drugs’ (zopiclone, zolpidem, zaleplon) are beneficial for nighttime sedation due to their relatively brief half-lives.

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

      Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 40 - What is a medication that acts as a partial agonist for 5HT1A receptors?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a medication that acts as a partial agonist for 5HT1A receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buspirone

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 41 - What is the principle utilized to forecast the temporal pattern of medication levels...

    Incorrect

    • What is the principle utilized to forecast the temporal pattern of medication levels in various regions of the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharmacokinetic

      Explanation:

      The time course of drug concentration in various body parts is described and predicted by pharmacokinetics, while pharmacodynamics is used to describe the intensity and time course of a drug’s effects. Pharmacological actions encompass genetic and environmental factors that affect an individual’s response to and tolerance of psychotropic agents. The mechanism of drugs’ therapeutic effects is described as how they are produced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 42 - What factor is most strongly linked to an increased likelihood of experiencing sexual...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most strongly linked to an increased likelihood of experiencing sexual dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management

      Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 43 - Which area of the cerebellum is responsible for regulating precise and delicate movements...

    Incorrect

    • Which area of the cerebellum is responsible for regulating precise and delicate movements of the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinocerebellum

      Explanation:

      The Cerebellum: Anatomy and Function

      The cerebellum is a part of the brain that consists of two hemispheres and a median vermis. It is separated from the cerebral hemispheres by the tentorium cerebelli and connected to the brain stem by the cerebellar peduncles. Anatomically, it is divided into three lobes: the flocculonodular lobe, anterior lobe, and posterior lobe. Functionally, it is divided into three regions: the vestibulocerebellum, spinocerebellum, and cerebrocerebellum.

      The vestibulocerebellum, located in the flocculonodular lobe, is responsible for balance and spatial orientation. The spinocerebellum, located in the medial section of the anterior and posterior lobes, is involved in fine-tuned body movements. The cerebrocerebellum, located in the lateral section of the anterior and posterior lobes, is involved in planning movement and the conscious assessment of movement.

      Overall, the cerebellum plays a crucial role in motor coordination and control. Its different regions and lobes work together to ensure smooth and precise movements of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 44 - How would you rephrase the term that refers to the use of words...

    Incorrect

    • How would you rephrase the term that refers to the use of words of phrases in a repetitive and meaningless manner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verbigeration

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 45 - At what threshold does the membrane potential of a cell need to reach...

    Incorrect

    • At what threshold does the membrane potential of a cell need to reach in order to trigger an action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: -55 mV

      Explanation:

      Understanding Action Potentials in Neurons and Muscle Cells

      The membrane potential is a crucial aspect of cell physiology, and it exists across the plasma membrane of most cells. However, in neurons and muscle cells, this membrane potential can change over time. When a cell is not stimulated, it is in a resting state, and the inside of the cell is negatively charged compared to the outside. This resting membrane potential is typically around -70mV, and it is maintained by the Na/K pump, which maintains a high concentration of Na outside and K inside the cell.

      To trigger an action potential, the membrane potential must be raised to around -55mV. This can occur when a neurotransmitter binds to the postsynaptic neuron and opens some ion channels. Once the membrane potential reaches -55mV, a cascade of events is initiated, leading to the opening of a large number of Na channels and causing the cell to depolarize. As the membrane potential reaches around +40 mV, the Na channels close, and the K gates open, allowing K to flood out of the cell and causing the membrane potential to fall back down. This process is irreversible and is critical for the transmission of signals in neurons and the contraction of muscle cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 46 - A 30-year-old woman is evaluating her character traits. She is responding to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is evaluating her character traits. She is responding to a series of statements using a scale ranging from 'strongly disagree' to 'strongly agree'.

      Which personality assessment tool is she utilizing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Personality assessment inventory (PAI)

      Explanation:

      There are several different types of personality assessments available. The personality assessment inventory (PAI) is a self-report test with 344 items and 22 scales, using a Likert-type format. Likert items ask respondents to rate their level of agreement of disagreement with a statement. The 16 personality factor questionnaire (16 PF) is a self-report questionnaire with true/false format, measuring 16 different personality dimensions. The Minnesota multiphasic personality inventory (MMPI) is an objective measure of personality in adults, with 566 true/false items. The Beck depression inventory is a self-report inventory with 21 multiple choice questions, used to measure the severity of depression. Finally, the thematic apperception test (TAT) is a projective measure of personality, using 20 stimulus cards depicting scenes of varying ambiguity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 47 - What is the lowest daily amount of paroxetine that is effective for treating...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lowest daily amount of paroxetine that is effective for treating depression in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants: Minimum Effective Doses

      According to the Maudsley 13th, the following are the minimum effective doses for various antidepressants:

      – Citalopram: 20 mg/day
      – Fluoxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Fluvoxamine: 50 mg/day
      – Paroxetine: 20 mg/day
      – Sertraline: 50 mg/day
      – Mirtazapine: 30 mg/day
      – Venlafaxine: 75 mg/day
      – Duloxetine: 60 mg/day
      – Agomelatine: 25 mg/day
      – Moclobemide: 300 mg/day
      – Trazodone: 150 mg/day

      Note that these are minimum effective doses and may vary depending on individual factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting of changing any medication regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 48 - What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric patients with mental health conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is proportional to drug concentration

      Explanation:

      Elimination kinetics refers to the process by which drugs are removed from the body. In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the plasma concentration of the drug. This is because clearance mechanisms, such as enzymes, are typically not saturated and drug clearance is observed to be a linear function of the drug’s concentration. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time.

      The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the plasma concentration to decrease by half. The rate of elimination is influenced by factors such as renal and hepatic function, as well as drug interactions.

      Drug distribution is influenced by factors such as plasma protein binding, tissue perfusion, permeability of tissue membranes, and active transport out of tissues. The volume of distribution is a measure of the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body. It is calculated as the quantity of drug administered divided by the plasma concentration.

      Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins can displace each other, leading to an increase in the free plasma concentration. This can result in increased drug effects of toxicity.

      In some cases, a loading dose may be necessary to achieve therapeutic levels of a drug more quickly. This is particularly true for drugs with a long half-life, as it can take a longer time for the plasma levels of these drugs to reach a steady state. An initial loading dose can help to shorten the time to reach steady state levels.

      Overall, understanding elimination kinetics is important for optimizing drug dosing and minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 49 - What is the initial psychosexual stage of development according to Freud? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the initial psychosexual stage of development according to Freud?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral

      Explanation:

      Psychosexual Development

      The psychosexual theory of development, developed by Freud, outlines a number of stages that individuals go through in their development. These stages are quite complex, but tend to come up in exams. The stages include the oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through sucking, swallowing, and biting. The anal stage occurs from 18 to 36 months, where pleasure and needs are explored through bowel and bladder elimination and retention. The phallic stage occurs from 3 to 5 years, where boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage. The latency stage occurs from 5 to puberty, where the sexual drive remains latent. Finally, the genital stage occurs from puberty to adulthood, where a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 50 - What is the meaning of animus in the context of Jungian therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of animus in the context of Jungian therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The unconscious male aspect present in every female

      Explanation:

      According to Jung, every individual possesses a concealed bisexuality. He referred to the feminine traits within a man as anima and the masculine traits within a woman as animus. The shadow represents the embodiment of our undesirable characteristics, while the persona is the facade we present to society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
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  • Question 51 - Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls....

    Incorrect

    • Little Sarah is slow in her language development. She loves playing with dolls. Her father started by rewarding her with a doll when she made a da sound. Once she could say da on her own, her father moved on to doll, then doll please and eventually to the complete sentence Can I play with my doll please?
      This type of reinforcement is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chaining

      Explanation:

      Chaining involves teaching and connecting the components of a complex task in order to teach the task as a whole. Cueing helps the learner focus on important stimuli. Extinction occurs when a conditioned response gradually disappears due to repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus. Habituation is a decrease in response to a stimulus after repeated presentation and is important in treating OCD. Shaping involves reinforcing successively closer approximations to the desired behavior to build up complex behavior, and has clinical applications in managing behavioral disturbances, learning disabilities, and substance misuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 52 - Which antihistamine should be avoided when a patient is taking an MAOI medication?...

    Incorrect

    • Which antihistamine should be avoided when a patient is taking an MAOI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorpheniramine

      Explanation:

      According to Gillman (1998), it is recommended to avoid using the antihistamines brompheniramine and chlorpheniramine as they act as serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SRIs). However, all other antihistamines are considered safe for use. Gillman’s study focused on the history and risk of serotonin syndrome.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 53 - What is the theory that suggests emotions and physiological responses happen at the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the theory that suggests emotions and physiological responses happen at the same time called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannon-Bard theory

      Explanation:

      Theories and Concepts in Psychology

      The field of psychology has developed various theories and concepts to explain human behavior and emotions. One of these is the Cannon-Bard theory, which proposes that emotions and physiological reactions occur simultaneously in response to a stimulus. However, this theory has been criticized for disregarding the influence of bodily functions on emotions.

      Another theory is the James-Lange theory, which suggests that physiological reactions precede emotions. However, studies have shown that emotions can still be felt even when somatic signals are removed, challenging this theory.

      The Thurstone Scale is a technique used to measure attitudes, while Maslow’s hierarchy of needs proposes that basic needs must be met before higher ones can be achieved. This hierarchy is often represented as a pyramid, with physiological needs at the base and self-actualization at the top.

      The Papez circuit, on the other hand, is a precursor to the limbic system, which is responsible for emotions, motivation, and memory. These theories and concepts continue to shape our understanding of human behavior and emotions in psychology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 54 - What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 55 - What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What substance is classified as a butyrylcholinesterase inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Semorinemab is a potential treatment for dementia that works by targeting the N-terminal region of the tau protein. By binding to tau, it aims to reduce its spread within neurons and slow down the progression of the disease.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 56 - At what age is it expected for primary circular reactions to first emerge,...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is it expected for primary circular reactions to first emerge, based on Piaget's theory of development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-5 months

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 57 - Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she...

    Incorrect

    • Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she was a member of the senior center's board. This awareness came out of nowhere.

      Is this an instance of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autochthonous delusion

      Explanation:

      Delusions that originate within the mind without any external influence are known as autochthonous. This term, derived from the Greek word for from the soil, emphasizes that the idea is self-generated rather than being triggered by a sensory experience of other external factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
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  • Question 58 - What condition is inherited in a pattern consistent with X-linked recessive inheritance? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is inherited in a pattern consistent with X-linked recessive inheritance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns and Examples

      Autosomal Dominant:
      Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.

      Autosomal Recessive:
      Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Dominant:
      Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.

      X-Linked Recessive:
      Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.

      Mitochondrial:
      Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 59 - How can authors ensure they cover all necessary aspects when writing articles that...

    Incorrect

    • How can authors ensure they cover all necessary aspects when writing articles that describe formal studies of quality improvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SQUIRE

      Explanation:

      As an AI language model, I do not have personal opinions of beliefs. However, I can provide information and guidance on the standards of reporting for different types of research studies. The guidelines mentioned above are essential for ensuring that research studies are reported accurately and transparently, which is crucial for the scientific community to evaluate and replicate the findings. It is important for researchers to be familiar with these standards and follow them when reporting their studies to ensure the quality and integrity of their research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 60 - What is the method used to identify the mode of inheritance for a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the method used to identify the mode of inheritance for a particular trait?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Segregation analysis

      Explanation:

      Segregation and Linkage Analysis in Genetics

      In genetics, segregation analysis is a statistical approach that helps determine the mode of inheritance of a specific phenotype using family data. On the other hand, linkage analysis is a method used to identify the genetic location of a disease gene. The primary objective of linkage analysis is to find a piece of DNA that is inherited by all affected family members and not by any unaffected members. Once this DNA segment is identified, it indicates that the disease gene is located nearby. Both segregation and linkage analysis are crucial tools in genetic research, helping scientists understand the inheritance patterns of genetic traits and diseases. By using these methods, researchers can identify the genetic basis of various disorders and develop effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 61 - A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The trigger for this was his wife asking him for a divorce.
      John informs you that he could have been a successful businessman himself had he chosen and wants to know your exact income. He then asks to speak to your supervisor instead, and when you explain this is not possible, he refuses to continue the interview, saying that he is a financial expert and can be treated only by professionals.
      His wife, who brought him in, explains that she can no longer cope with the patient's selfishness and lack of consideration. Things came to a head last night when she was upset and was crying. John stormed into her room to complain that the noise was keeping him awake. He then accused his wife of doing this purposively because she envied John's financial success. One of her friends went to college with John and says he has always been like this.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Based on the collateral history provided, it is more likely that the individual is exhibiting a personality disorder rather than a mental illness. Specifically, the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for narcissistic personality disorder may be applicable. This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy, which typically begins in early adulthood and is present in various contexts. To meet the diagnostic criteria, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success of power, a belief that they are special and unique, a need for excessive admiration, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, a lack of empathy, envy of others, and arrogant or haughty behaviors or attitudes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 62 - How can the immaturity of a defense mechanism be identified? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the immaturity of a defense mechanism be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 63 - What is the protein that binds to undesired cellular proteins to mark them...

    Incorrect

    • What is the protein that binds to undesired cellular proteins to mark them for breakdown by the proteasome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ubiquitin

      Explanation:

      The Function of Proteasomes in Protein Degradation

      Proteasomes play a crucial role in breaking down proteins that are produced within the cell. These cylindrical complexes are present in both the nucleus and cytoplasm of the cell. The process of protein degradation involves the tagging of proteins with a small protein called ubiquitin. The proteasome consists of a core structure made up of four stacked rings surrounding a central pore. Each ring is composed of seven individual proteins. This structure allows for the efficient degradation of proteins, ensuring that the cell can maintain proper protein levels and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 64 - Which reflex involves the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerve in its motor component?...

    Incorrect

    • Which reflex involves the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerve in its motor component?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibulo-ocular

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 65 - The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that an overabundance of dopamine in which...

    Incorrect

    • The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that an overabundance of dopamine in which specific pathway is accountable for the heightened importance placed on trivial thoughts and events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesolimbic pathway

      Explanation:

      The mesolimbic pathway is the correct answer, as it is associated with an excess of dopamine in individuals with addiction. This excess is accompanied by a relative deficiency of dopamine in the frontal lobes. The limbopituitary pathway is not a recognized dopamine pathway, so it should not be considered. The other options listed are all established dopamine pathways.

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 66 - Which type of white matter tract is categorized as a commissural tract? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of white matter tract is categorized as a commissural tract?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      White matter is the cabling that links different parts of the CNS together. There are three types of white matter cables: projection tracts, commissural tracts, and association tracts. Projection tracts connect higher centers of the brain with lower centers, commissural tracts connect the two hemispheres together, and association tracts connect regions of the same hemisphere. Some common tracts include the corticospinal tract, which connects the motor cortex to the brainstem and spinal cord, and the corpus callosum, which is the largest white matter fiber bundle connecting corresponding areas of cortex between the hemispheres. Other tracts include the cingulum, superior and inferior occipitofrontal fasciculi, and the superior and inferior longitudinal fasciculi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 67 - Out of the options provided, which symptom is not classified as a first...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the options provided, which symptom is not classified as a first rank symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual hallucinations

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 68 - Which depression assessment tool contains more physiological aspects compared to the others? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which depression assessment tool contains more physiological aspects compared to the others?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hamilton depression rating scale

      Explanation:

      The Hamilton depression rating scale is focused on biological aspects and is administered by an observer, making it suitable for assessing patients with cognitive impairment. The Beck depression inventory emphasizes cognitive items. The Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale is highly responsive to changes. The visual analogue scale is a straightforward tool where patients indicate their mood state on a line. The Zung self rating scale is a self-administered assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 69 - A 35-year-old male patient comes to your clinic with a recent history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient comes to your clinic with a recent history of substantial weight loss and absence of menstrual periods. What information do you require to determine his body mass index (BMI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Height in metres and weight in kg

      Explanation:

      The BMI of a person is determined by dividing their weight in kilograms by the square of their height in meters, expressed as kg/m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 70 - Which statement about serotonin is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about serotonin is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can cross the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown

      Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.

      The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.

      Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 71 - What is the outcome of bilateral dysfunction in the medial temporal lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the outcome of bilateral dysfunction in the medial temporal lobes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome

      Explanation:

      Periods of hypersomnia and altered behavior are characteristic of Kleine-Levin syndrome.

      Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms

      Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.

      The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 72 - What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition that occurs when there is a deletion of the paternal chromosome 15q?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 73 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in cases of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disturbance in the sleep-wake cycle

      Explanation:

      The disturbance of the sleep-wake cycle is frequently linked to delirium, which can cause problems such as daytime drowsiness, nighttime restlessness, trouble falling asleep, excessive sleepiness during the day, of staying awake throughout the night. These sleep-wake disruptions are so prevalent in delirium that they have been suggested as a fundamental requirement for diagnosis according to the DSM-V (2013).

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 74 - Which one of these organs is not classified as a circumventricular organ? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these organs is not classified as a circumventricular organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The olive

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Blood Brain Barrier

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) is a crucial component of the brain’s defense system against harmful chemicals and ion imbalances. It is a semi-permeable membrane formed by tight junctions of endothelial cells in the brain’s capillaries, which separates the blood from the cerebrospinal fluid. However, certain areas of the BBB, known as circumventricular organs, are fenestrated to allow neurosecretory products to enter the blood.

      When it comes to MRCPsych questions, the focus is on the following aspects of the BBB: the tight junctions between endothelial cells, the ease with which lipid-soluble molecules pass through compared to water-soluble ones, the difficulty large and highly charged molecules face in passing through, the increased permeability of the BBB during inflammation, and the theoretical ability of nasally administered drugs to bypass the BBB.

      It is important to remember the specific circumventricular organs where the BBB is fenestrated, including the posterior pituitary and the area postrema. Understanding the BBB’s function and characteristics is essential for medical professionals to diagnose and treat neurological disorders effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 75 - Which medication does not create a significant active metabolite? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication does not create a significant active metabolite?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      There is no active metabolite produced by lithium.

      The Significance of Active Metabolites in Drug Discovery and Development

      Certain drugs are classified as prodrugs, which means that they are inactive when administered and require metabolism to become active. These drugs are converted into an active form, which is referred to as an active metabolite. Some drugs have important active metabolites, such as diazepam, dothiepin, fluoxetine, imipramine, risperidone, amitriptyline, and codeine, which are desmethyldiazepam, dothiepin sulfoxide, norfluoxetine, desipramine, 9-hydroxyrisperidone, nortriptyline, and morphine, respectively.

      The role of pharmacologically active metabolites in drug discovery and development is significant. Understanding the active metabolites of a drug can help in the development of more effective and safer drugs. Active metabolites can also provide insights into the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug, which can aid in the optimization of dosing regimens. Additionally, active metabolites can have different pharmacological properties than the parent drug, which can lead to the discovery of new therapeutic uses for a drug. Therefore, the study of active metabolites is an important aspect of drug discovery and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 76 - What is the meaning of the term vorbeigehen? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of the term vorbeigehen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giving approximate answers

      Explanation:

      Mitgehen, also known as the ‘anglepoise sign’, refers to a phenomenon where a patient moves in response to very slight pressure, indicating a lack of resistance of rigidity in their muscles. This can be observed in various conditions, including Parkinson’s disease and catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
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  • Question 77 - The child followed every instruction without considering the outcome. The doctor requested the...

    Incorrect

    • The child followed every instruction without considering the outcome. The doctor requested the child to stick out their tongue and proceeded to prick it with a pin. Despite the pain, the child complied each time the doctor asked and allowed their tongue to be pricked. What symptom is the child displaying?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Automatic obedience

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 78 - What is the term used to describe the process of recalling information from...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of recalling information from long-term memory triggered by a cue, such as a particular scent of sound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Redintegration

      Explanation:

      Redintegration pertains to the recollection of information from long term memory triggered by a cue, like a scent of noise. Recall entails actively searching memory stores for information. Recognition refers to the ability to identify an answer to a question from a list of options, without spontaneously recalling it. Reconstructive memory is the process of transferring information from one person to another. Relearning involves learning something again that was previously learned and forgotten, with faster learning occurring on subsequent attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 79 - What is the origin of agoraphobia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the origin of agoraphobia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escape conditioning is involved

      Explanation:

      Beck identified two cognitive distortions, catastrophization and selective abstraction, which play a role in the development of depression. These distortions involve magnifying negative events and selectively focusing on negative aspects, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Aetiology
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  • Question 80 - Which researcher suggested that there is a correlation between arousal and task performance...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher suggested that there is a correlation between arousal and task performance up to a certain threshold, after which performance decreases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yerkes and Dodson

      Explanation:

      The Yerkes-Dodson curve suggests that performance is optimal at moderate levels of arousal, forming an inverted U-shaped relationship.
      Cox developed a stimulus model theory inspired by engineering principles, including Hooke’s Law of Elasticity.
      Lazarus and Folkman investigated how the perception and interpretation of stressors affect emotional responses.
      Seyle is known for his work on response models and the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).
      Plutchik identified eight fundamental emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 81 - Which term is commonly associated with Goffman? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which term is commonly associated with Goffman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total institution

      Explanation:

      Goffman coined the term ‘total institution’ in relation to asylums, which were responsible for fulfilling all the patients’ requirements, thereby hindering their rehabilitation.

      D.W. Winnicott – Good enough mother, transitional object: Winnicott believed that a good enough mother is one who provides a secure and nurturing environment for her child, allowing them to develop a sense of self and independence. He also introduced the concept of the transitional object, such as a teddy bear of blanket, which helps a child transition from the mother’s care to the outside world.

      Carl Jung – Collective unconscious, archetype, anima, animus: Jung believed in the existence of a collective unconscious, a shared pool of knowledge and experience that all humans possess. He also introduced the concept of archetypes, universal symbols and patterns that are present in the collective unconscious. The anima and animus are archetypes representing the feminine and masculine aspects of the psyche.

      Melanie Klein – Paranoid-schizoid position, depressive position, splitting: Klein introduced the concept of the paranoid-schizoid position, a stage of development in which a child experiences intense anxiety and fear of persecution. She also introduced the depressive position, a stage in which the child learns to integrate positive and negative feelings towards others. Splitting is the defense mechanism in which a person sees things as either all good of all bad.

      Sigmund Freud – Free association, transference, ego, super-ego, id, eros, thanatos, defense mechanisms, oedipus Complex, the unconscious: Freud is known for his theories on the unconscious mind, including the id, ego, and super-ego. He also introduced the concepts of eros (the life instinct) and thanatos (the death instinct), as well as defense mechanisms such as repression and denial. The Oedipus complex is a theory about a child’s sexual desire for their opposite-sex parent.

      Wilfred Bion – Basic assumption group: Bion introduced the concept of the basic assumption group, a group that forms around a shared fantasy of assumption. He believed that these groups can be helpful of harmful, depending on the assumptions they are based on.

      Karen Horney – Womb envy: Horney believed that men experience womb envy, a feeling of inferiority and jealousy towards women due to their inability to bear children. She also introduced the concept of neurotic needs, such as the need for affection and the need for power.

      Erving Goffman – Total institution: Goffman introduced the concept of the total institution, a place where people are completely cut off from the outside world and subjected to strict rules and regulations. Examples include prisons and mental hospitals.

      Siegfried Foulkes – Foundation matrix: Foulkes introduced the concept of the foundation matrix, a group’s shared history and experiences that shape their current dynamics and interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 82 - Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not advised by NICE for the treatment of delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid regular visits from family

      Explanation:

      Delirium Management

      Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.

      Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 83 - What is a true statement about antidepressant medications that are not taken orally?...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about antidepressant medications that are not taken orally?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compared to orally administered antidepressants, those given intravenously tend to require lower doses

      Explanation:

      Intravenous formulations bypass the initial metabolism in the liver, resulting in increased concentrations of the drug in the bloodstream.

      Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants

      While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.

      One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.

      Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.

      Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.

      Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 84 - Which statement about acetylcholine is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about acetylcholine is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptors are also stimulated by muscarine

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 85 - What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stages are based on age ranges rather than on developmental events

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 86 - On which cellular structure does the process of translation occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which cellular structure does the process of translation occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ribosome

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 87 - A teenager hears the sound of his neighbours car exhaust and suddenly believes...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager hears the sound of his neighbours car exhaust and suddenly believes his girlfriend is cheating on him. Which of the following best describes his experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary delusion

      Explanation:

      This is an instance of a primary delusion known as delusional perception.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 88 - In Argyll Robertson pupils… ...

    Incorrect

    • In Argyll Robertson pupils…

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson pupils are bilaterally small pupils that accommodate or reduce in size near an object but do not react to light. They do not constrict when exposed to bright light. They are a highly specific sign of neurosyphilis but may be seen in diabetic neuropathy as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 89 - In dementia pugilistica, which structure is commonly found to be abnormal? ...

    Incorrect

    • In dementia pugilistica, which structure is commonly found to be abnormal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septum pellucidum

      Explanation:

      A fenestrated cavum septum pellucidum is linked to dementia pugilistica.

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 90 - Who coined the term 'punch drunk syndrome'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who coined the term 'punch drunk syndrome'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Martland

      Explanation:

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 91 - What factor is most likely to increase the levels of clozapine in the...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is most likely to increase the levels of clozapine in the bloodstream?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caffeine

      Explanation:

      CYP1A2 is responsible for metabolizing caffeine, and it competes with other drugs that are also metabolized by this enzyme. When caffeine is consumed excessively, it can deplete the CYP1A2, leaving none available to metabolize clozapine, resulting in increased levels of clozapine. However, this is not a common issue in clinical settings.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 92 - In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of...

    Incorrect

    • In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of wrist cutting. Upon evaluation, you determine that she has a personality disorder. What specific type of personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Anankastic personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. It falls under cluster C personality disorders according to DSM-IV classification.

      Deliberate self-harm is commonly associated with cluster B personality disorders. In the United Kingdom, poisoning by drugs accounts for 90% of deliberate self-harm cases, while wrist cutting accounts for 6-7%, and all other methods combined account for 3-4%. Frequent wrist cutting can be a part of recurrent suicidal gestures seen in individuals with depressive disorder, schizophrenia, and borderline personality disorder.

      The reasons for wrist cutting are varied and complex, including a means of punishment oneself, reducing tension, feeling bodily instead of emotional pain, wishing to die, testing the benevolence of fate, seeking an interruption to an unendurable state of tension, crying for help, communicating with others, and unbearable symptoms.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by impulsive acts, mood instability, and chaotic relationships. Individuals with BPD are impulsive in areas that have a potential for self-harm and exhibit recurrent suicidal gestures such as wrist cutting, overdose, of self-mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 93 - Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • Acamprosate is believed to produce its positive effects in the treatment of alcohol dependence by targeting which type of receptors?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabotropic glutamate receptors

      Explanation:

      The exact way in which acamprosate helps maintain alcohol abstinence is not fully understood. However, it is believed that chronic alcohol exposure disrupts the balance between neuronal excitation and inhibition. Studies conducted on animals suggest that acamprosate may interact with the glutamate and GABA neurotransmitter systems in the brain, which may help restore this balance. Acamprosate is thought to inhibit glutamate receptors while activating GABA receptors, specifically GABA-A and metabotropic glutamate receptors. It should be noted that some sources suggest that acamprosate affects NMDA receptors, which are a type of ionotropic glutamate receptor. However, this is not entirely accurate and may not be reflected in exam questions.

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 94 - Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following methods is not utilized to diagnose narcolepsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA testing

      Explanation:

      In addition to conducting a thorough medical history and physical examination, healthcare providers typically order a series of tests to aid in the diagnosis of narcolepsy. These tests may include a multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) and a polysomnogram (PSG). The MSLT measures the time it takes for a person to fall asleep during the day, while the PSG records various physiological parameters during sleep, such as brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity. These tests can help confirm the presence of narcolepsy and rule out other sleep disorders.

      Sleep Disorders

      The International Classification of Sleep Disorders (ISCD) categorizes sleep disorders into several main categories and subclasses. Dyssomnias are intrinsic sleep disorders that include narcolepsy, psychopsychologic insomnia, idiopathic hypersomnia, restless leg syndrome, periodic limb movement disorder, and obstructive sleep apnea. Extrinsic sleep disorders include inadequate sleep hygiene and alcohol-dependent sleep disorder. Circadian rhythm disorders consist of jet lag syndrome, shift work sleep disorder, irregular sleep-wake pattern, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and advanced sleep phase disorder. Parasomnias include arousal disorders such as sleepwalking and sleep terrors, sleep-wake transition disorders such as rhythmic movement disorder, sleep talking, and nocturnal leg cramps, and parasomnias associated with REM sleep such as nightmares and sleep paralysis. Sleep disorders associated with medical/psychiatric disorders and proposed sleep disorders are also included in the classification.

      Narcolepsy is a disorder of unknown cause that is characterized by excessive sleepiness, cataplexy, and other REM sleep phenomena such as sleep paralysis and hypnagogic hallucinations. Periodic limb movement disorder is characterized by periodic episodes of repetitive and highly stereotyped limb movements that occur during sleep. Restless legs syndrome is a disorder characterized by disagreeable leg sensations that usually occur prior to sleep onset and that cause an almost irresistible urge to move the legs. Jet lag syndrome consists of varying degrees of difficulties in initiating or maintaining sleep, excessive sleepiness, decrements in subjective daytime alertness and performance, and somatic symptoms following rapid travel across multiple time zones. Shift work sleep disorder consists of symptoms of insomnia of excessive sleepiness that occur as transient phenomena in relation to work schedules. Non 24 hour sleep wake syndrome consists of a chronic steady pattern comprising one to two hour daily delays in sleep onset and wake times in an individual living in society. Sleepwalking consists of a series of complex behaviors that are initiated during slow-wave sleep and result in walking during sleep. Sleep terrors are characterized by a sudden arousal from slow wave sleep with a piercing scream of cry, accompanied by autonomic and behavioral manifestations of intense fear. Rhythmic movement disorder comprises a group of stereotyped, repetitive movements involving large muscles, usually of the head and neck. Sleep starts are sudden, brief contractions of the legs, sometimes also involving the arms and head, that occur at sleep onset. Nocturnal leg cramps are painful sensations of muscular tightness of tension, usually in the calf but occasionally in the foot, that occur during the sleep episode. Nightmares are frightening dreams that usually awaken the sleeper from REM sleep. Sleep paralysis is a common condition characterized by transient paralysis of skeletal muscles which occurs when awakening from sleep of less often while falling asleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 95 - A mother of a teenage girl recently diagnosed with Turner syndrome attends clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A mother of a teenage girl recently diagnosed with Turner syndrome attends clinic with a number of questions. She is considering having another child. What should she know about Turner syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increased risk of Turner syndrome in subsequent pregnancies has not been widely reported

      Explanation:

      Most medical professionals recommend growth hormone therapy for girls diagnosed with Turner syndrome. Prenatal diagnosis can be achieved through chorionic villus sampling of amniocentesis, and while it has been traditionally believed that there is no increased risk in subsequent pregnancies, recent data suggests further studies are needed to confirm this.

      Understanding Turner Syndrome

      Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.

      The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 96 - Which of these medications used to treat depression has the most extended duration...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these medications used to treat depression has the most extended duration of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants have varying half lives, with fluoxetine having one of the longest at four to six days. Agomelatine, on the other hand, has a much shorter half life of approximately one to two hours. Citalopram has a half life of approximately 36 hours, while duloxetine has a half life of approximately 12 hours. Paroxetine falls in the middle with a half life of approximately 24 hours. For more information on antidepressant discontinuation syndrome, refer to the article by Warner et al. (2006).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 97 - Which of the following describes the concept of 'goodness of fit', the reciprocal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following describes the concept of 'goodness of fit', the reciprocal relationship between a child's personality and their surroundings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thomas and Chess

      Explanation:

      The concept of ‘goodness of fit’ was introduced by Thomas and Chess, which refers to the interdependent relationship between a child’s temperament and their environment that impacts their development. The strange situation procedure is linked to Ainsworth, while Bowlby is known for his research on attachment and maternal deprivation. Main is recognized for developing the adult attachment interview. Winnicott coined the term ‘good-enough mother’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 98 - Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics would be associated with an individual possessing referent power?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charismatic

      Explanation:

      Referent power is the capacity of a leader to sway a follower’s actions based on the follower’s allegiance, esteem, camaraderie, adoration, fondness, of aspiration for validation. Typically, these leaders possess charisma.

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 99 - Which medication is most likely to induce anxiety symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is most likely to induce anxiety symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol

      Explanation:

      Prescribing in the Elderly: Iatrogenic Consequences

      Many medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter, can have significant adverse effects in the elderly population. It is important to note that the lists provided below are not exhaustive, and only the most common and important examples are given.

      Medications Linked to Delirium and Other Cognitive Disorders

      Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Many medications can cause cognitive impairment, but the classes of drugs most strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia are opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics.

      According to a systematic review done in 2011 (Clegg, 2011), long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are more troublesome than those that are shorter-acting. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients (Clegg, 2011). Pethidine appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other members of the opioid class. This may be because pethidine can accumulate when renal function is impaired and is converted to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.

      Some antipsychotic drugs have considerable antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) activity (e.g., chlorpromazine and clozapine), which may cause of worsen delirium. Delirium is uncommon in newer antipsychotics (but has been reported).

      Medications Linked to Mood Changes

      The following medications are well known to precipitate mood changes:

      – Centrally-acting antihypertensives (e.g., methyldopa, reserpine, and clonidine) can cause depressive symptoms.
      – Interferon-a is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Digoxin is capable of inducing depressive symptoms.
      – Corticosteroids can cause depressive, manic, and mixed symptoms with of without psychosis.
      – Antidepressants can precipitate mania.

      Medications Linked to Psychosis

      The following medications are well known to precipitate psychosis:

      – Anti-Parkinson’s Medications (e.g., bromocriptine, amantadine, selegiline, anticholinergics (e.g., trihexyphenidyl, benztropine, benzhexol), and levodopa).
      – Corticosteroids

      Medications Linked to Anxiety

      The following medications are well known to precipitate anxiety:

      – Stimulants
      – β adrenergic inhalers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 100 - What is the main way in which galantamine works? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main way in which galantamine works?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competitive and reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.

      Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.

      Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 101 - Which option is not included in Vaillant's categories of defence mechanisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not included in Vaillant's categories of defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depressive

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 102 - What is the least expected symptom in a patient who is taking sodium...

    Incorrect

    • What is the least expected symptom in a patient who is taking sodium valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Thrombocytosis would not be an expected finding as valproate typically decreases platelet counts instead of increasing them.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 103 - Salty taste is triggered by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Salty taste is triggered by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiloride-sensitive sodium channel

      Explanation:

      Amiloride-sensitive sodium channels also known as epithelial Na channels is a membrane bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. These channels are located throughout different epithelial membranes in the body. It is found in taste receptor cells, where it plays an important role in salt taste perception. They are also located in the kidney, the lung and the colon. Hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide-gated (HCN) voltage-gated ion channels are widely seen in the cortex, hippocampus, thalamus and brain regions that underlie the generation of both focal and generalized-onset seizures. The metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluRs) perform a variety of functions in the central and peripheral nervous systems. They are involved in learning, memory, anxiety, and the perception of pain. Gustducin is a G protein associated with taste and gustatory system. It plays a major role in sensation of bitter, sweet and umami stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 104 - What is the most specific biomarker for myocarditis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most specific biomarker for myocarditis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Troponin I

      Explanation:

      Elevated troponin levels typically manifest within a few hours of myocardial injury and persist for a maximum of two weeks.

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 105 - A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with a history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia has been stabilized on clozapine, but is experiencing clinical deterioration with a serum clozapine level below 1000 µg/L. What medication should be added if the patient's clozapine serum levels remain above this value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      If serum clozapine levels remain elevated, it is recommended to add anticonvulsant cover due to the increased risk of seizures and EEG changes. While some clinicians may advocate for higher clozapine levels, there is limited evidence to support this practice. Amisulpride can be used to augment clozapine, but it is not necessary in this situation. Beta-blockers are used to treat persistent tachycardia caused by clozapine, while hyoscine hydrobromide is used to manage clozapine-associated hypersalivation. Loperamide is unlikely to be needed as clozapine is known to cause constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 106 - What is a true statement about valproate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of congenital malformations is dose dependent

      Explanation:

      Valproate can pass through the placenta, increasing the likelihood of birth defects. The extent of risk during pregnancy is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by the dosage. Children who were exposed to valproate in the womb may have a lower IQ, with those aged 6 showing an average decrease of 7-10 points compared to those exposed to other antiepileptic medications.

      Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects

      Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.

      Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.

      Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 107 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 108 - What is the most common cause of QTc prolongation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram can moderately prolong QTc (>10 msec), while aripiprazole and paliperidone have no effect. Haloperidol and pimozide have a high effect, and quetiapine and amisulpride have a moderate effect. Clozapine, risperidone, and olanzapine have a low effect (<10 msec prolongation). Lamotrigine, mirtazapine, and SSRIs (excluding citalopram) do not have an effect on QTc interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 109 - What is the purpose of Southern blotting and what can it be used...

    Incorrect

    • What is the purpose of Southern blotting and what can it be used to detect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DNA

      Explanation:

      Molecular biology techniques are essential in the study of biological molecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. Southern blotting is a technique used to detect DNA, while Northern blotting is used to detect RNA. Western blotting, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins by separating them through gel electrophoresis based on their 3D structure. An example of Western blotting is the confirmatory HIV test.

      Another technique commonly used in molecular biology is the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). This biochemical assay is used to detect antigens and antibodies by attaching a colour-changing enzyme to the antibody of antigen. The sample changes colour if the antigen of antibody is detected. ELISA is commonly used in medical diagnosis, and an example includes the initial HIV test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 110 - Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 111 - What is the age range typically associated with Piaget's concrete operational stage? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the age range typically associated with Piaget's concrete operational stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 - 11 years

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 112 - What is the most accurate estimation of the heritability of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate estimation of the heritability of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 55%

      Explanation:

      Heritability: Understanding the Concept

      Heritability is a concept that is often misunderstood. It is not a measure of the extent to which genes cause a condition in an individual. Rather, it is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. In other words, it tells us how much of the variation in a condition seen in a population is due to genetic factors. Heritability is calculated using statistical techniques and can range from 0.0 to 1.0. For human behavior, most estimates of heritability fall in the moderate range of .30 to .60.

      The quantity (1.0 – heritability) gives the environment ability of the trait. This is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to environmental variance. The following table provides estimates of heritability for major conditions:

      Condition Heritability estimate (approx)
      ADHD 85%
      Autism 70%
      Schizophrenia 55%
      Bipolar 55%
      Anorexia 35%
      Alcohol dependence 35%
      Major depression 30%
      OCD 25%

      It is important to note that heritability tells us nothing about individuals. It is a population-level measure that helps us understand the relative contributions of genetic and environmental factors to a particular condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 113 - Which antipsychotic medication is offered in a depot form? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication is offered in a depot form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      A drug in depot form is released slowly.

      Depot antipsychotics (long-term injectables) are available for both first-generation and second-generation antipsychotics. The efficacy of first-generation antipsychotic depots is considered to be broadly similar, with zuclopenthixol potentially being more effective in preventing relapses but with an increased burden of adverse effects. Second-generation antipsychotic depots have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal symptoms compared to first-generation antipsychotic depots. Test doses should be administered for first-generation antipsychotic depots, and only gluteal injection is licensed for olanzapine depots. Post-injection syndrome is a potential adverse effect of olanzapine depots, which can cause significant weight gain. Patients may be most at risk of deterioration immediately after a depot rather than just before, and relapse seems to occur 3-6 months after withdrawing a depot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 114 - Which gene, present in an extra copy in individuals with Down's syndrome, is...

    Incorrect

    • Which gene, present in an extra copy in individuals with Down's syndrome, is associated with an elevated risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein

      Explanation:

      The increased likelihood of Alzheimer’s disease in individuals with Down’s syndrome is believed to be linked to their inheritance of an additional copy of the amyloid precursor protein (APP) found on chromosome 21.

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 115 - Which of the following examples best illustrates a drug interaction that affects the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following examples best illustrates a drug interaction that affects the way a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, of eliminated in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change in gastrointestinal tract motility

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions: Understanding the Different Types

      Drug interactions can occur in different ways, and it is important to understand the different types to avoid potential harm. Pharmacokinetic drug interactions happen when one drug affects the metabolism, absorption, of excretion of another drug. This can be due to enzyme induction of inhibition, changes in gastrointestinal tract motility and pH, chelation, competition for renal tubular transport, of changes in protein binding. On the other hand, pharmacodynamic drug interactions occur when one drug directly alters the effect of another drug. This can happen through synergism, antagonism, of interaction at receptors, such as allosteric modulation. It is important to note that pharmacodynamic drug interactions do not involve any absorption, distribution, metabolism, of excretion processes directly. By understanding the different types of drug interactions, healthcare professionals can better manage patients’ medications and prevent potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 116 - Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the arrhythmogenic potential of tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct