00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will...

    Incorrect

    • A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?

      Your Answer: Anti-HCV

      Correct Answer: HCV RNA

      Explanation:

      The most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection (acute) is HCA RNA; it can be detected 1-2 weeks after infection. Anti-HCV antibodies take at least 6 weeks to develop and be positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      620
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Pregnant patient in a third world country with hepatitis: The answer is most likely Hepatitis E. The mortality for Hepatitis E in pregnant women is very high. It is transmitted faecal-orally. There is no hepatitis G. Hepatitis C, B, A are less likely to be the correct answer than E given it’s classic association with pregnancy and poor living conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 43-year-old female presented with a 5 day history of a productive cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old female presented with a 5 day history of a productive cough with rusty coloured sputum. Chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation on her left side. The most likely causative organism would be?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus pneumonia is the chief causative organism for lobar pneumonia in this age group patients. Typically patients present with rusty coloured sputum and a cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is responsible for causing pneumocystis pneumonia among immunocompromised patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      716.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed profuse, watery, green coloured diarrhoea on the fifth day of antibiotics. What is the organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for diarrhoea is pseudomembranous colitis which is caused by Clostridium difficile. Pseudomembranous colitis is an inflammatory disease of the colon where the antibiotic-induced change in the balance of normal gut flora allows overgrowth of C difficile. Any antibiotic can cause this but the chances are higher with ampicillin, clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, and cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of them secreted...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of them secreted pinkish fluid while some were crusted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema Infectious

      Correct Answer: HSV1

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of acute gingivostomatitis, which is a manifestation of primary HSV-1 infection. Patients present with gingivitis and vesicular lesions which develop on the oral mucosa, tongue, and lips and later rupture and coalesce, leaving ulcerated plaques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 18-year-old prospective medical student is tested for hepatitis B. Her liver tests...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old prospective medical student is tested for hepatitis B. Her liver tests show alanine transaminase (ALT) 120 U/L and serology shows her to be positive for HBsAg, HBcAb and HBeAg, with a viral load of 105 genome equivalents/mL.

      A liver biopsy is reported as showing early fibrosis with evidence of moderate inflammation.

      Which of the following treatments should be offered?

      Your Answer: Pegylated interferon alfa 2a and ribavirin

      Correct Answer: Interferon alfa 2b

      Explanation:

      Interferon alfa alone, not interferon alfa and ribavirin, has been shown to achieve HBeAg seroconversion for patients with HBeAg-positive chronic hepatitis B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      186.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of vomiting and early morning headaches. CT scan of the brain shows multiple ring enhancing lesions. Which of the following is the cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the obligate intracellular parasite Toxoplasma gondii. Transmission occurs either through ingestion of cysts found, for example, in raw meat or cat faeces, or from mother to foetus through the placenta.
      The clinical presentation depends on the patient’s immune status: In immunocompetent individuals, 90% of cases are harmless and asymptomatic, with the remaining 10% displaying mild mononucleosis-like symptoms. In immunosuppressed patients (e.g., those who are HIV-positive), infection may result in cerebral toxoplasmosis (headache, confusion, focal neurologic deficits) or toxoplasma chorioretinitis (eye pain, reduced vision).
      Treatment is indicated for immunosuppressed patients, infected mothers, congenital toxoplasmosis, and immunocompetent patients with more severe symptoms. The treatment of choice is usually a combination of pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and leucovorin (folinic acid), with the exception of new infections during pregnancy, which are treated with spiramycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?

      Your Answer: HIV is a DNA virus

      Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of fever, myalgia, headache and abdominal pain for 4 days duration. He revealed that he had bathed in a river during his vacation. On examination, he had severe muscle tenderness, hypotension (BP - 80/60 mmHg) and tachycardia (140 bpm). What would be the first step in management?

      Your Answer: IV benzylpenicillin 2.4 g

      Correct Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of leptospirosis. This is a zoonotic infection caused by a spirochete. As the patient is in shock, resuscitation with IV fluids is the first step in the management. IV antibiotics should be started (Doxycycline or Penicillin) as soon as possible. Other investigations mentioned are important during the management to rule out other possible diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h....

    Correct

    • A man was admitted to the hospital and developed varicella zoster after 48h. Which of the following categories of people should be administered immunoglobulin only?

      Your Answer: All pregnant women who are tested negative for antibodies.

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin should be given to all seronegative women within 4 days. However, it is strongly advised to seek medical care immediately if the disease develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Is a risk factor for later conductive deafness

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Correct

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives...

    Incorrect

    • A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of her having a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism causes such manifestations?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is cytomegalovirus. The mother was infected during the pregnancy and the baby has developed cytomegalo-inclusion syndrome. Histologically, it is identified by viral particles surrounded by lysosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her vagina. She previously underwent a dental procedure and completed a 7 day antibiotic course prior to it. Which of the following microorganisms has most likely lead to this?

      Your Answer: Candida

      Explanation:

      Candida albicans is the most common cause of candidiasis and appears almost universally in low numbers on healthy skin, in the oropharyngeal cavity, and in the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. In immunocompetent individuals, C. albicans usually causes minor localized infections, including thrush (affecting the oral cavity), vaginal yeast infections (if there is an underlying pH imbalance), and infections of the intertriginous areas of skin (e.g., the axillae or gluteal folds). More widespread and systemic infections may occur in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., neonates, diabetics, and HIV patients), with the oesophagus most commonly affected (candida esophagitis). Localized cutaneous candidiasis infections may be treated with topical antifungal agents (e.g., clotrimazole). More widespread and systemic infections require systemic therapy with fluconazole or caspofungin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      120.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the mode of spread of chickenpox? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Airborne

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male patient presents with fever and signs of delirium. A few hours ago, blisters appeared on his trunk. His past history revealed nothing serious and he's not on any medication. He admits that he went to Italy five months ago on vacation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chicken pox in adults may manifest with acute encephalitis, causing the confusional syndrome known as delirium. Blisters on the trunk favour the diagnosis. The trip to Italy however seems unimportant since the incubation period of chicken pox is 10 to 21 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision....

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV is the best answer . Weight loss is mostly caused by HIV, which commonly presents with retinal haemorrhage and retinopathy when associated with CMV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth to a male infant. She is now concerned about her child contracting hep B. Which of the following is the most suitable option for the baby in this case?

      Your Answer: HepB full vaccine and Ig

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig should be given to babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers. Hepatitis B vaccine alone or Ig alone is not sufficient to prevent the infection in the new-born baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except:

      Your Answer: paralysis

      Correct Answer: exfoliative skin rash

      Explanation:

      Clostridium species do not present with an exfoliative skin rash. C. perfringens is a common aetiology in necrotizing infections (gas gangrene) as well as food poisoning, which often also includes diarrhoea. C. difficle causes diarrhoea. C. tetany and C. botulinum have neurotoxins that can lead to paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a well-established broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotic that penetrates well into the lung tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      The woman seems to have a chancroid, which may or may not drain to the lymph nodes of the groin. These nodes are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?

      Your Answer: Immediate delivery of the child

      Correct Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Acyclovir is the correct answer. There has been no documented evidence of harm in pregnancy yet. Chickenpox can cause fetal abnormalities, and varicella zoster Immunoglobulin should be given to the infant immediately after birth (not the mother, won’t help). Steroids will actually make the chicken pox worse. Painkillers only, is obviously the wrong answer and pose severe risk to foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 11-year-old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium TB

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman has been diagnosed with human papillomavirus infection. What is the most significant long-term risk following this infection?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Human-papilloma virus (HPV) can lead to cervical cancer. There are many different types, but the types associated with cervical cancer most commonly are 16, 18, 31, 33, and 35. The vaccination against HPV protects against the most common types of HPV that are seen in cervical cancer and is recommended for children/young teens. Cervical cancer has a clear association with HPV, making this the best answer over all of the other answer choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer: Infection is usually by respiration

      Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS

      Explanation:

      T. gondii infection in immunocompetent people is usually asymptomatic. It can present as fits in patients with AIDs, who are immunosuppressed. Additionally, infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is very harmful. Congenital toxoplasmosis presents with intracranial calcifications, classically. It can also present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly, blindness, petechiae. Siramycin is the drug of choice to try to prevent vertical transmission from mother to baby. It is typically gotten from cat faeces or raw/undercooked meat, not raw eggs (raw eggs: think salmonella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A urine culture of a 50-year-old patient with urosepsis has isolated a multi-drug...

    Correct

    • A urine culture of a 50-year-old patient with urosepsis has isolated a multi-drug resistant Escherichia coli. What is the most likely reason for the multidrug resistance?

      Your Answer: Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production

      Explanation:

      Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL) are enzymes that confer resistance to most beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins, cephalosporins, and the monobactam aztreonam. Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production is the main reason for multi-drug resistance among E.coli. Commonly used medications to treat ESBL-involved infections include carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem, and doripenem), cephamycins (cefoxitin and cefotetan), Fosfomycin, nitrofurantoin, beta-lactamase inhibitors (clavulanic acid, tazobactam, or sulbactam), non-beta-lactamases and colistin (if all other medications have failed.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (13/30) 43%
Passmed