A 30-year-old pregnant woman who has been receiving treatment for pre-eclampsia deteriorates and arrives at the Emergency Department. Upon evaluating the patient, you decide to admit her due to the development of HELLP syndrome.
Which of the following is NOT an acknowledged complication of HELLP syndrome? Select ONE option.
A 30-year-old pregnant woman who has been receiving treatment for pre-eclampsia deteriorates and arrives at the Emergency Department. Upon evaluating the patient, you decide to admit her due to the development of HELLP syndrome.
Which of the following signs or symptoms would NOT raise suspicion of HELLP syndrome in a pregnant patient?
You evaluate a 58-year-old woman who presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately one month. The patient is currently on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) to alleviate vasomotor symptoms.
What would be the MOST SUITABLE next course of action for managing this patient?
A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has no fever and her vital signs are normal. During the exam, her abdomen feels soft, but she experiences cervical motion tenderness during a pelvic examination.
What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?
A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has a temperature of 39.1°C, and there is tenderness in her abdomen during the examination.
What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?
A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, pain during intercourse, and thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. Based on the clinical findings, you diagnose her with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
When would hospitalization be necessary in this case?
A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, and purulent vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful sex, and a thick, yellowish vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative and her last period was four weeks ago. Her temperature today is 38.6°C.
What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?
A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and continuous lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her usual period. A CTG is conducted, revealing reduced variability in the fetal heart rate and late decelerations. During the examination, the uterus feels tender and firm.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
A 28-year-old primigravida woman comes in with a slight vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her typical menstrual period. She is currently 9 weeks pregnant and her pregnancy test is positive. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and the cervical os is closed.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?