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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.Paracetamol overdose:The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision.Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cimetidine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The brainstem reticular formation, consists of which important control system responsible for consciousness...

    Correct

    • The brainstem reticular formation, consists of which important control system responsible for consciousness and sleep?

      Your Answer: RAS reticular activating system

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem. Reticular activating system (RAS) is a set of connected nuclei in the brain that is responsible for regulating wakefulness and sleep wake transitions and is the most influential component in the reticular formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which is NOT true of vitiligo? ...

    Correct

    • Which is NOT true of vitiligo?

      Your Answer: A positive family history is not a risk factor

      Explanation:

      The cause of Vitiligo is typically unknown. It is believed to be due to genetic susceptibility that is triggered by an environmental factor such that an autoimmune disease occurs. This results in the destruction of skin pigment cells. Risk factors include a family history of the condition or other autoimmune diseases, such as hyperthyroidism, alopecia areata, and pernicious anaemia. Vitiligo is classified into two main types: segmental and non-segmental. Most cases are non-segmental meaning they affect both sides and typically get worse with time. The prevalence of vitiligo is 0.5-1% of populations worldwide. Typical sites include backs of hands, wrists, knees, neck and around body orifices. The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma. This occurs in vitiligo secondary to scratching.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?

      Your Answer: 60/600

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      290.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the area that indicates the site of active B lymphocyte proliferation?

      Your Answer: Cortex

      Correct Answer: Germinal centre

      Explanation:

      The cortex of the lymph node consists of the lymphoid nodules and sinusoids and posses a germinal centre from which B cells proliferate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      73.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The cerebellum consist of which three lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consist of which three lobes?

      Your Answer: Medial, lateral and flocculonodular

      Correct Answer: Anterior, posterior and flocculonodular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum consists of 3 lobes; Anterior, Posterior and Flocculonodular lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The majority striatal neurons, called medium spiny neurons, utilizes which neurotransmitter? ...

    Incorrect

    • The majority striatal neurons, called medium spiny neurons, utilizes which neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Correct Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      Medium spiny neurons are inhibitory neurons which use GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions. These cells represent 95% of neurones within the human striatum found in basal ganglia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lipodermatosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Varicose eczema

      Explanation:

      Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      28.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (5/10) 50%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Research Skills (0/1) 0%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Passmed