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Question 1
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With sneezing, a 45-year-old mother of two reported leaking a small bit of urine. It started to happen with exercising recently. She denies having experienced recent life pressures.
Which of the following best characterizes the incontinence she's dealing with?Your Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:Overflow incontinence typically presents with continuous urinary leakage or dribbling in the setting of incomplete bladder emptying. Associated symptoms can include weak or intermittent urinary stream, hesitancy, frequency, and nocturia. When the bladder is very full, stress leakage can occur or low-amplitude bladder contractions can be triggered resulting in symptoms similar to stress or urgency incontinence.
Women with urgency incontinence experience the urge to void immediately preceding or accompanied by involuntary leakage of urine
Individuals with stress incontinence have involuntary leakage of urine that occurs with increases in intraabdominal pressure (e.g., with exertion, sneezing, coughing, laughing) in the absence of a bladder contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not caused by HPV?
Your Answer: Cancer of penis
Correct Answer: Oesophageal cancer
Explanation:HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.
HPV-related cancers include:
Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.
Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.
Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.
Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).
When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.
She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.
What is the most suitable advice for this woman?Your Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.
Explanation:The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.
If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.
It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.
Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A cervical screening test for HPV non-16 and 18 types, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion on reflex liquid-based cytology, was positive for a young doctor from a nearby hospital.
What is the next step in management?Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:On reflex liquid-based cytology, this patient had a cervical screening test that revealed HPV non-16 and 18 kinds, as well as a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. In a year, she should be provided a cervical screening test. If HPV non-16/18 kinds are discovered in 12 months, she will need a colposcopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health.
Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Stop OCP and give antihypertensive medications
Correct Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)
Explanation:The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.
Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.
These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.
She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.
On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.
Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.
From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.Your Answer: An imperforate hymen.
Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.
Explanation:The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.
Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.
If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.
Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.
She complains of a fever and purulent vaginal discharge.
She add that's four days ago, she underwent a suction curettage for an unwanted pregnancy which occurred after a university party.
On examination, she has a temperature of 38.4°C.
Which organism is the most probable cause of her presentation?Your Answer: Mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.
Explanation:The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.
Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.
The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.
Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.
PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A mother brought her 3-year-old daughter to the doctor with a complaint of vulval pruritus. On examination, the vulval region has a well-defined white plaque with a wrinkled surface and scattered telangiectasia. The diagnosis of lichen sclerosis was confirmed by histopathology.
Which of the following treatments is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Potent topical steroids
Explanation:Lichen sclerosis (LS) is a benign, chronic, progressive dermatologic condition characterized by marked inflammation, epithelial thinning, and distinctive dermal changes accompanied by symptoms of pruritus and pain.
Topical corticosteroids are the mainstay of therapy. Intralesional corticosteroid therapy is an additional option that is useful for the treatment of thick hypertrophic plaques that topical corticosteroids may not penetrate adequately.
Antibiotics or antifungals have no role in the treatment of LS since it’s not an infection.
Since histological diagnosis has already been made, there is no need to refer to dermatologist.
Surgical intervention is indicated for treatment of complications like adhesion and scarring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her symptoms started after laparoscopic filshie clip sterilization was performed 3 years ago. She has three children aged eleven, seven, and six years. Her periods used to last 10 days before she was sterilized because she didn't use any form of contraception. Her periods lasted only four days when she was on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP), which was the case right before the sterilization. At the time of sterilization, a hysteroscopic check revealed a normal uterine cavity, and no abnormalities were found during the laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?
Your Answer: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).
Explanation:Although a dilatation and curettage (D&C) is frequently recommended as part of a woman’s menorrhagia examination.
D&C is not indicated in a woman who had a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy only two years ago, and who experienced comparable symptoms when not taking the OCP in the past, especially after the age of 40.
The Filshie clips should not be removed because they will not improve the symptoms.Although an endometrial ablation or possibly a hysterectomy may be required in the future to address the symptoms, the first line of treatment should be a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which will reduce the loss in up to half of the women treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old female presents to her general practitioner.
She complains of a three month history of amenorrhea, with recently added hot flushes 10 - 12 times a day, irritability and difficulty sleeping.
What would be the best management strategy to relieve her symptoms, whilst minimising side effects?Your Answer: Continuous daily oestrogen therapy, with medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) given daily for 12 days each month.
Explanation:The best strategy is to commence cyclical hormone therapy using continuous daily oestrogen therapy, with medroxy progesterone acetate (MPA) given daily for 12 days each month.
This patient is most likely experiencing menopause, with symptoms caused by her oestrogen deficiency state.
Diazepam will help her to sleep and possibly alleviate her irritability, but would be unlikely to relieve the hot flushes.
Continuous therapy with oestrogen and MPA provides continuous progestogen therapy and has a high risk of causing unpredictable breakthrough vaginal bleeding, as it is only three months since the last menstrual period. This treatment is not recommended to be given within 1 – 2 years of the last period.
Oestrogen alone is not recommended for women who still have their uterus.
Progestogen alone would only be indicated in cases with contraindications to oestrogen administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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