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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg for seven days

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: After puberty, the prevalence of fibroids increases progressively until the menopause.

      Correct Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: < 5 mm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following conditions, which is considered as the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage requiring hysterectomy?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony

      Correct Answer: Placenta accreta

      Explanation:

      Placental abnormalities such as placenta previa and placenta accreta are the most common reasons for considering hysterectomy as an inevitable treatment option in postpartum hemorrhage.

      Placental villi normally invade only the superficial layers of endometrial deciduas basalis, but when the invasion is too deep into the uterine wall, the condition is termed as placenta accreta, increta or percreta depending on the depth of invasion.
      – When the villi invade the deeper layers of the endometrial deciduus basalis, but not the myometrium it is called as Placenta accreta. This is the most common type of decidual invasion and accounts for approximately 75% of the cases.
      – When the villi invade the myometrium, but do not reach the uterine serosa or the bladder is called Placenta increta. This type accounts for nearly 15% of cases.
      – In cases were the villi invades into the uterine serosa or the bladder is it called as Placenta percreta and this happens in 5% of cases.

      Prior uterine surgery is the main risk factor for placenta accreta and the best management is elective cesarean hysterectomy.
      postpartum hemorrhage can also be caused by conditions like genital lacerations, uterine atony, retained products of conception and uterine inversion. In most of these above mentioned cases, hysterectomy is not required and remains as the last resort in extremely desperate situations.

      NOTE– Though uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, it is often manageable medically.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects...

    Incorrect

    • The COCP (Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill) causes all of the following biochemical effects EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Elevate Sex Hormone Binding Globulin

      Correct Answer: Elevate FSH

      Explanation:

      COCP’s act both centrally and peripherally. They inhibit ovulation. Both oestrogen and progestogen supress the release of FSH and LH hence preventing ovulation. Peripherally it acts by making the endometrium atrophic and hostile towards implantation. It also alters the cervical mucus and prevents the sperm from ascending the uterine cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 22 weeks pregnant seeks your advice as she was recently exposed to chickenpox. Regarding fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) which of the following statements is correct regarding maternal varicella infection?

      Your Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the last 6 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: FVS may result if there is maternal varicella infection within the 1st 20 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      (13-20 weeks). If a mother has chickenpox in late pregnancy (5 days prior to delivery) then there is risk of neonatal varicella infection which may be severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to persistent abnormal uterine...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the office due to persistent abnormal uterine bleeding. Patient’s menstrual periods previously occurred monthly, which lasts of 4 days with moderate bleeding and light cramping. However, for the past 8 months, she has had intermenstrual spotting and bleeding which have occurred at varying intervals and last for 3-7 days. 
      Patient had started combination oral contraceptives 4 months ago, which has not improved the bleeding pattern. 

      On examination her temperature is 37.2 C (99 F), blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg, pulse is 86/min and BMI is 29 kg/m2. 
      Speculum examination shows dark red blood in the posterior vaginal vault but no cervical or vaginal lesions. Remainder of the pelvic examination was normal. 
      Her laboratory results are as follows:
      - Hemoglobin: 12.2 g/dL
      - Prolactin: 5 ng/mL
      - TSH: 1.8 µU/mL
      - Urine pregnancy test is negative. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows an anteverted uterus without any adnexal masses. 

      Which of the following is considered the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      Uncontrolled endometrial proliferation due to excess and unregulated estrogen is the reason for intermenstrual bleeding and irregular menses along with abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB) in this patient. The condition is mostly associated with an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer.
      The absolute risk of endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer is very low in women aged <45, therefore they can be started on combination medication with estrogen/progestin contraception (ie, medical management) without the evaluation of endometrium.  The estrogen component of medication regulates the menstrual cycle by build up the endometrium; whereas the progestin component helps in shedding of the endometrium.
      However, patients who have continued irregular menstrual bleeding even while on combination contraceptives require further evaluation as they have failed to improve with medical management. In such patients, the endometrial lining will be too thick for the progestin to completely shed during menstruation and this unshed endometrium continues to undergo dysregulated proliferation, leading to an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer. Therefore, patients age below 45 with AUB who have failed medical management require an endometrial biopsy.
      AUB persistent above 6 months, obesity, and/or tamoxifen therapy are the other indications for endometrial biopsy in women age <45, as all of these will increase the amount of unopposed endometrial estrogen exposure. In patients with heavy menstrual bleeding and anemia, coagulation studies are performed to evaluate for bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease. It is not necessary in this patient as she have a normal hemoglobin level. In patients with heavy, but regular (ovulatory) bleeding an endometrial ablation, which is a procedure used to remove the excess endometrium, can be considered as the treatment option. Endometrial ablation is contraindicated in undiagnosed cases of AUB as it prevents evaluation of the endometrium in patients with possible endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer.

      To check for abnormalities of the uterus like didelphys or of the Fallopian tube like scarring, a hysterosalpingogram is used but it is not useful to evaluate AUB. In addition, as the procedure could spread cancerous endometrial cells into the abdominal cavity, hysterosalpingogram is contraindicated in cases of undiagnosed AUB.

      To evaluate secondary amenorrhea, ie. absence of menses for >6 months in a patient with previously irregular menses, a progesterone withdrawal test is used to determine whether amenorrhea is from low estrogen level, in negative cases there will be no bleeding after progesterone. This test is not indicated or relevant in this case as patient had continued bleeding while on oral contraceptives suggestive of high estrogen levels.

      Evaluation for endometrial hyperplasia
      ancer with an endometrial biopsy is required for those women age <45 with abnormal uterine bleeding who have failed medical management with oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most accurate estimate of mature breast milk composition?

      Your Answer: Fat 18% Protein 5% Sugar 5%

      Correct Answer: Fat 4%, Protein 1%, Sugar 7%

      Explanation:

      Breast milk contains around 4% fat, 7% sugar and 1% proteins. The rest is water and minerals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The second stage of labour involves: ...

    Correct

    • The second stage of labour involves:

      Your Answer: Expulsion of the foetus

      Explanation:

      First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.

      Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.

      Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer: Clomiphene

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman, at 37 weeks and 2 days gestation and currently in her second pregnancy, presents with a breech presentation. She previously delivered a baby girl weighing 3.8kg via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Ultrasound examination this time shows a breech presentation with extended legs. She wishes to deliver vaginally if it is possible.

      Which is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section now.

      Correct Answer: Await spontaneous onset of labour.

      Explanation:

      The most suitable step would be to wait for spontaneous onset of labour. This woman would be able to deliver vaginally in 3 situations. The first would be if the foetus is estimated to weigh less than 3800g (first child weight 3800g). Another would be if the foetus is in a frank or complete breech presentation and lastly if the rate of labour progress is satisfactory and breech extraction is unnecessary. RCOG (Royal College of Obstetricians & Gynaecologists) guidelines recommends that women should be informed that elective Caesarean section for the delivery of a breech baby would have a lower risk of perinatal mortality than a planned vaginal delivery. This is because with an elective Caesarean section, we would be able to avoid stillbirth following 39 weeks of gestation as well as intrapartum and vaginal breech delivery risks. The ideal mode of delivery of a breech foetus when labour starts or at least close to term is a Caesarean section as the risks towards the foetus would be significantly increased in a vaginal delivery. The obstetrician is responsible to ensure that there are no other abnormalities that could complicate this even further such as footling presentation, low estimated birth weight (less than 10th centile), hyperextended neck on ultrasound, evidence of fetal distress and high estimated birth weight (>3.8kg). Provided that there is a normal progression of events, fetal risks during both labour and delivery should be low if such factors are absent. Hence, it is right to await the onset of labour to occur spontaneously in this case. In order to exclude a knee presentation with fetal head extension or a footling breech, ultrasound examination has to be done. These are linked to a high fetal risk if the mother attempts vaginal delivery. X-ray pelvimetry is advisable but is not essential in fetal size assessment since its accuracy is roughly 20%. In this case, it is not indicated since there is evidence that her pelvis is of adequate size as she had already delivered a 3.9kg baby prior. It is best to avoid induction of labour in breech cases for numerous reasons (need for augmentation, cord prolapse).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to A&E with lower abdominal and unilateral flank pain. From the following list what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ureteric Obstruction

      Explanation:

      In stage III cervical cancer there is involvement of the pelvic wall and ureter which may result in abdominal pain and hydronephrosis.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma

      Stage
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Ootidogenesis refers to which process during Oogenesis?

      Your Answer: Growth and maturation

      Correct Answer: 1st and 2nd Meiotic Divisions

      Explanation:

      Oogonium become Primary Oocyte via Growth/Maturation. This process is called oocytogenesis Primary Oocyte undergoes 2 meiotic divisions to become Ootids. This process is called Ootidogenesis Ootids differentiate into Ovum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

      Your Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

      Explanation:

      Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding the development of external genitalia?

      Your Answer: The Mullerian system develops into external genitalia

      Correct Answer: The genital fold forms the scrotum in males

      Explanation:

      Genital folds lead to the formation of the scrotum in males while in females they form the posterior labial commissure. Genital tubercles form the labia majora whereas the tubercle itself becomes the mons pubis. The labia minora is formed by the urogenital folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has...

    Incorrect

    • A women has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of breast cancer is?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      The life time risk of breast cancer in BRCA 1 gene is 70% and of ovarian cancer is 40%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?...

    Incorrect

    • When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 0-10 weeks

      Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks. Although the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, if infection does occur earlier, particularly before 10 weeks, then complications are typically more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer: 5 in 100

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.

      Management of PROM:
      60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
      If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.

      What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Decreased risk of infertility

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
      Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.

      In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.

      The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
      To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks....

    Correct

    • A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking Microgynon in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship.

      Your Answer: Start immediately

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) can be started immediately following abortion or miscarriage. Note following childbirth COCPs should not be restarted for 3 weeks (assuming the patient is not breastfeeding).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due...

    Correct

    • Lowered haemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiological finding which is mainly due to:

      Your Answer: Increased plasma volume

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, anaemia increases more than fourfold from the first to third trimester. It is a well established fact that there is a physiological drop in haemoglobin (Hb) in the mid trimester. This physiological drop is attributed to increase of plasma volume and hence decrease of blood viscosity lead to better circulation in placenta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type...

    Incorrect

    • During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      PMNs phagocytise debris and kill bacteria via free radicals (AKA respiratory burst). They also break down damaged tissue. PMNs typically undergo apoptosis after 48 hours. They are then engulfed and degraded by macrophages. Macrophages therefore become the predominant cell type in the wound on days 3-4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE?

      Your Answer: It arises from the internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the internal iliac artery, in particular the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. Some older texts refer to the internal iliac as the hypogastric artery. The vaginal artery typically arises as its own branch of the internal iliac artery. The ovarian arteries are branches of the aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      The 3 main oestrogens are Estrone (E1) Oestradiol (E2) and Estriol (E3). Oestradiol is the predominant oestrogen during female reproductive years except during the early follicular phase when Estrone predominates. During pregnancy Estriol levels rise significantly and this becomes the dominant oestrogen during pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol and Mestranol are oestrogen found in COCP’s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical polyp

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group? ...

    Correct

    • Maternal mortality rate is lowest in which age group?

      Your Answer: 20 - 30

      Explanation:

      The maternal mortality rate starts low and raises steeply after the age of 30 years. The lowest mortality rate recorded among women is between 19-30 years of age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

    She is at 38 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department.

      She is at 38 weeks gestation and has gone into labour.

      On examination, her cervix is 7cm dilated.

      Which of the following would be indicative of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section?

      Your Answer: Caput and moulding of the fetal head.

      Correct Answer: A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman.

      Explanation:

      A brow presentation in a nulliparous woman is associated with high risk of obstructed labour and the need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      Brow presentation occurs when the presenting part of the fetal head is the part between the orbital ridge and anterior fontanelle.

      In multiparous women, the indications differ as vaginal manipulation or spontaneous flexion to a vertex presentation or extension to a face presentation can occur after full cervical dilatation.

      Early fetal heart decelerations are indicative of a mild abnormality on cardiotocograph (CTG). It does not indicate obstructive labour or need for delivery by Caesarean section.

      The slow descent of the fetal head can be controlled subsequently by good uterine contractions and allow for vaginal birth.

      Prolonged labour can cause maternal fever, but that in isolation is not an indication for Caesarean section.

      Caput and head moulding are associated with a ‘tight fit’ of the fetal head in the pelvis, but does not contraindicate vaginal birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has been shown to increase ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy (oestrogen only)

      Explanation:

      Factors that increase the risk of ovarian cancer include nulliparity, IUD, endometriosis, cigarette smoking, HRT and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: US

      Explanation:

      The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is the primary stimulus for uterine involution following childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive...

    Correct

    • A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

      Your Answer: 1 year from completion of treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the RCOG greentop guidelines, a women who have underdone chemotherapy for GTD are advised not to conceive for 1 years after completion of the chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - An 80 year old female patient comes to the hospital with stress urinary...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old female patient comes to the hospital with stress urinary incontinence. Pelvic organ prolapse is not apparent on physical exam.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Urodynamic studies

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercise

      Explanation:

      Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary loss of urine with increases in intra-abdominal pressure. It is the most common type of incontinence in younger women, but also occurs in older women. Key risk factors include childbirth, medications that relax the urethral sphincter, obesity, lung disease (from chronic cough), and prior pelvic surgeries. Numerous treatments are available, although few studies compare one treatment with another.

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Routine urodynamic tests are not recommended for urinary incontinence. Surgery is reserved for refractory incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.

      Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: Cervical polyp

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.

      Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.

      With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.

      Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.

      Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following is the primary source of oestrogen ? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the primary source of oestrogen ?

      Your Answer: Theca interna cells

      Correct Answer: Granulosa cells

      Explanation:

      Ovarian granulosa cells (GC) are the major source of oestradiol synthesis. Induced by the preovulatory luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, cells of the theca and, in particular, of the granulosa cell layer profoundly change their morphological, physiological, and molecular characteristics and form the progesterone-producing corpus luteum that is responsible for maintaining pregnancy. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: The majority are 45XO

      Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following is the primary host for Toxoplasma Gondii? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary host for Toxoplasma Gondii?

      Your Answer: Cats

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma gondii, an intracellular protozoan, is the main causative agent for Toxoplasmosis. The primary host for the organism is the domestic cat. Humans can become infected by eating undercooked meat of animals harbouring cysts, consuming water or food contaminated with cat faeces, or through maternal-fetal transmission. Toxoplasmosis can cause complications in pregnancy such as miscarriages and congenital infection can lead to hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental disability and vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: External iliac node

      Correct Answer: Inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The lower vagina drains to the inguinal nodes where as the upper vagina drains to the internal and external iliacs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following positions does hyperextension of the fetal head occur?

      Your Answer: Face presentation

      Explanation:

      Face presentation is the abnormal position of the fetal head in labour. In this position the neck is hyperextended.
      Vertex position is the normal presentation of the foetus for delivery, in which the head is flexed and the position of the chin is towards the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 47-year-old woman is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy(HRT) after...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy(HRT) after her menopause. She's still having normal menstrual cycles and hasn't experienced any hot flashes or other issues. She is especially concerned about Alzheimer's disease (AD), as her mother was diagnosed with the condition at the age of 75 and is now confined to a nursing facility. Which of the following is the best piece of advice about using HRT and the risk of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD.

      Explanation:

      Although there have been some mixed results regarding the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and the prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease (AD), there is little question that HRT started during menopause lowers cognitive decline, which is a common early symptom of AD.
      This is in contrast to the effect shown when HRT is started at the age of 60-65, when the risk of Alzheimer’s disease rises.
      There are no statistics on the effect of HRT on the incidence of Alzheimer’s disease when it is started before menopause, but it is apparent that it does not slow the progression of the disease or make advanced dementia less severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old women presents with a history of vaginal spotting and cramping abdominal pain. She has an 8 week history of amenorrhoea. On examination urine pregnancy test is positive and the cervix is closed. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is a pregnancy that ends spontaneously before the foetus reaches the age of viability i.e. before 24 weeks of gestation. In a threatened miscarriage the USG findings are of a foetus present in the uterus and on speculum examination the cervical OS is closed, in an inevitable miscarriage the cervical OS is opened. In an incomplete miscarriage the uterus contains the retained products of conception and the cervical OS is open. complete miscarriage contains no retained products of conception and the cervix is closed as the bleeding as resolved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is the prevalence of antiphospholipid syndrome in patients with recurrent miscarriage? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prevalence of antiphospholipid syndrome in patients with recurrent miscarriage?

      Your Answer: 2.50%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Anti phospholipid syndrome is an autoimmune disorder in which abnormal antibodies are formed which increases the risk of blood clots to develop in vessels and leads to recurrent miscarriages to occurs. The changes of recurrent miscarriage in a previously known case of APL is 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

      Your Answer: IgD

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      It utilizes the IgG class of the antibody.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - The ureter is lined by what type of epithelium? ...

    Incorrect

    • The ureter is lined by what type of epithelium?

      Your Answer: Simple Columnar

      Correct Answer: Transitional

      Explanation:

      Ureters are muscular tubes that run from the kidneys to the urinary bladder. It is lined by transitional epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Correct

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?

      Your Answer: Treponema Pallidum

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is characterised by a foul smelling vaginal discharge without inflammation. The most common spp to cause this is gardnerella vaginalis. Other spp include mycoplasma hominis and bacteroides. It occurs due to growth and increase in anaerobic spp with simultaneous reduction in lactobacilli in vaginal flora causing an increase in vaginal pH. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to explain to a patient the results of her Rubella screen. They are as follows:

      Your Answer: Past Rubella Infection

      Correct Answer: Acute Rubella Infection

      Explanation:

      IgM rise is typically seen with acute infection. IgG is produced in response to infection but is produced later than IgM. IgG is also produced in response to vaccination. If IgG and IgM are negative the patient is susceptible to Rubella infection. If IgG +ve and IgM -ve the patient should be considered immune. If IgM +ve this suggests acute infection or false positive IgM (not uncommon)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a...

    Incorrect

    • In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: Placenta previa

      Correct Answer: A normal term foetus

      Explanation:

      Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge.

      All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:

      Your Answer: Partner should also be treated

      Correct Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.

      Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.

      Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.

      BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the right anterior aspect of her labia following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect ilioinguinal nerve injury. What spinal segment is the ilioinguinal nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      Ilioinguinal nerve injury is one of the most common nerve injuries associated with pelvic surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Villamentous insertion of placenta

      Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem

      Explanation:

      Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour.
      Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries.

      Further examination was done and the following are her results:
      BMI is 28 kg/m2
      Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg
      Pulse is 120/min

      An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis.

      Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Surgical exploration

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.

      Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.

      Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

      Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.

      Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical...

    Correct

    • At what angle is the plane of the pelvic inlet to the anatomical horizontal plane?

      Your Answer: 60

      Explanation:

      The female pelvic inlet tilts at an inclination that is about 60 degrees from the anatomical horizontal plane. This tilt is maintained by muscles and fascia. The pelvic outlet slopes at an angle of 15 degrees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old lady comes to you for hirsutism therapy. She is overweight, with hirsutism and facial pimples on her face and peri areolar areas, as well as a masculine escutcheon. Serum LH levels range from 1.9 to 12.5 IU/L, whereas FSH levels range from 4.5 to 21.5 IU/L. The levels of androstenedione and testosterone are somewhat higher, while the serum DHAS is normal. The patient does not want to start a family right now.

      Which of the single medications listed below is the best therapy for her condition?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptives

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture, unusually high LH-to-FSH ratio (which should ordinarily be around 1:1), and higher androgens but normal DHAS all point to polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). DHAS is an indicator of adrenal androgen production; when normal, it rules out adrenal hyperandrogenism. Several drugs have been used to treat PCOS-related hirsutism. Contraceptives were the most often used medications for many years; they can decrease hair growth in up to two-thirds of individuals. They work by decreasing ovarian steroid production and increasing hepatic-binding globulin production, which binds circulating hormones and lowers metabolically active (unbound) androgen concentrations. Clinical improvement, on the other hand, can take up to 6 months to show.
      Medroxyprogesterone acetate, spironolactone, cimetidine, and GnRH agonists, all of which decrease ovarian steroid synthesis, have also shown potential. GnRH analogues, on the other hand, are costly and have been linked to severe bone demineralization in some patients after only 6 months of treatment. Given the efficacy of pharmacologic medications and the ovarian adhesions that were usually linked with this surgery, surgical wedge resection is no longer regarded as an appropriate therapy for PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 1mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 7mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline is 7mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual activity results in 5-6 mL of blood. She had never had a cervical cancer screening. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis is normal.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Do a Cervical Screening test as well liquid base cytology

      Explanation:

      Postcoital bleeding refers to spotting or bleeding unrelated to menstruation that occurs during or after sexual intercourse. It can be a sign of serious underlying pathology and is usually alarming for patients. About one-third of patients also have abnormal uterine bleeding that is not associated with coitus and about 15 percent have dyspareunia. The most serious cause of postcoital bleeding is cervical cancer. About 11 percent of women with cervical cancer present with postcoital bleeding. The patient should undergo cervical cancer screening according to local guidelines. Postcoital bleeding is not an indication for cervical cytology if previous screening tests are up-to-date and normal.

      Cervical screening and liquid based cytology are superior to transvaginal ultrasound.

      Coagulation profile can be done if cytology is normal to rule out bleeding diathesis.

      Tranexamic acid can be considered once malignancy is ruled out and cause of bleeding has been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in to talk about the findings of a recent CT scan. Last week, the patient was involved in a car accident and had a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out any intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan revealed a uterus that was significantly enlarged, with several intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not squeeze the ureters or the surrounding intestine. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with light bleeding lasting four days. On the first day of her monthly period, she normally has stomach discomfort but does not require pain medication. There are no changes in bowel habits, urine frequency, urgency, or chronic pelvic pain in the patient. She doesn't have any chronic illnesses and doesn't use any drugs on a daily basis. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and experiences no discomfort during sexual activity. The vital signs are OK, and the BMI is 24 kilograms per square metre. The lower abdomen has an irregularly expanded mass, which is consistent with uterine leiomyomata.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: GnRH agonist therapy

      Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance only

      Explanation:

      Leiomyomas uterine (fibroids)
      Clinical features:
      Menses that are heavy and last a long time, symptoms of pressure, pelvic discomfort, constipation, frequency of urination, complications during pregnancy, fertility problems, loss of pregnancy, premature birth, uterus enlargement and irregularity

      Workup:
      Ultrasound

      Treatment:
      Asymptomatic: monitoring
      Surgical intervention, hormonal contraception

      This patient has uterine leiomyomata, or fibroids, which are benign smooth muscle (myometrial) tumours that are very prevalent in adult women (up to 25%). These tumours can expand the endometrium’s surface area, the uterus’ overall size and thickness, and compress adjacent structures; nevertheless, some individuals have no symptoms and are identified by chance during a physical examination or imaging (as in this patient’s CT scan after a car accident).
      Heavy, prolonged menses are among the indications for uterine leiomyomata treatment (particularly if associated with anaemia).
      Pelvic discomfort that persists (e.g., dyspareunia).
      Symptoms in abundance (e.g., pelvic pressure, hydronephrosis, constipation).
      Recurrent miscarriages.
      Medical or surgical treatment options are available for patients with these clinical characteristics (e.g., myomectomy).

      This woman had mild menses and no pelvic discomfort or mass symptoms while having many big intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata (e.g., no ureter compression). There is no need for extra treatment in persons with asymptomatic fibroids. Only observation and reassurance are required.
      In the treatment of symptomatic fibroids, a combination of oral contraceptive pills and progestin-containing intrauterine devices can be utilised, although they are not required in the management of asymptomatic fibroids. Furthermore, this patient has a minimal risk of unwanted pregnancy (e.g., monogamous, same-sex relationship), and the hazards of these contraceptives (e.g., venous thromboembolism, uterine perforation) outweigh the benefits.

      GnRH agonist therapy (e.g., leuprolide) is a treatment for symptomatic uterine fibroids that works by inhibiting pulsatile FSH and LH production in the hypothalamus, lowering oestrogen levels. Low oestrogen levels cause a temporary reduction in leiomyoma size, which helps with heavy menses and bulky symptoms. Because long-term usage of GnRH agonists is linked to an increased risk of osteoporotic fractures, they are only administered preoperatively.

      Tranexamic acid is a nonhormonal medicinal medication that reduces heavy menstrual bleeding by preventing fibrin breakdown (i.e., an antifibrinolytic drug). This patient’s menses are light.
      Uterine leiomyomata (fibroids) are benign myometrial tumours that can produce a range of symptoms but are often identified by chance. Heavy menstrual blood, pelvic pain, and bulk symptoms are all indications for treatment. Patients with asymptomatic fibroids merely need to be monitored and reassured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss?

      Your Answer: 35-40ml

      Correct Answer: 80-85ml

      Explanation:

      Most women lose about 35-40 ml of blood on average during each menstrual cycle. The maximum amount of blood loss is 80 ml after which blood loss of more than 80 ml is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding, formerly known as menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (4/11) 36%
Clinical Management (6/13) 46%
Biophysics (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (1/4) 25%
Physiology (3/4) 75%
Gynaecology (3/9) 33%
Embryology (0/3) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (4/6) 67%
Endocrinology (3/4) 75%
Epidemiology (1/1) 100%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed