00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony.

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?...

    Correct

    • What kind of biochemical changes occur during the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Endometrial gland proliferation

      Explanation:

      During follicular phase, there is an increase in gonadotrophin hormones and a proliferation of the endometrium occurs. The duration of the cycle depends upon the overall length of the menstrual cycle. The progesterone levels are increased in the luteal phase and not in follicular phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.

      Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?

      Your Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.

      If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.

      Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.

      It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist?

      Your Answer: Atosiban

      Explanation:

      Atosiban is a modified form of oxytocin that is administered by intravenous infusion for 2–48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:

      Your Answer: Cord entrapment

      Explanation:

      Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      202.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      DHEA is formed in the mother’s adrenal gland as well as the fetal adrenal glands. These weak androgens are transported by the blood to the placenta and are converted into oestradiol, estrone and estriol in the trophoblast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a 10-year history of schizophrenia, accompanied by her husband, presents to your hospital with amenorrhea lasting two months. She is currently taking clozapine with appropriate control of her symptoms.

      Which of the following is the most crucial step in management?

      Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea worldwide. As a result, the first thing to check in every woman of reproductive age who has amenorrhea is a urine pregnancy test.
      Once pregnancy has been ruled out, an ultrasound or measuring FSH and LH may be done to assess the condition (if required).
      FBC is used to track clozapine side effects such as neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is not recommended for the assessment of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to infiltrate a patients perineum with local anaesthetic prior to episiotomy. What is the maximum dose of lidocaine (without adrenaline)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The half-life of lidocaine is approximately 1.5 hours. It is a local anaesthetic and the maximum dose that can be given is 3mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women is seen in clinic following hysteroscopy and biopsy due to irregular menstrual bleeding. Her BMI is 34 kg/m2. This shows atypical hyperplasia. Which of the following is the most appropriate 1st line management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial hyperplasia with atypia is at high risk of progression to cancer and hysterectomy is indicated There is high risk of progression to cancer with endometrial hyperplasia with atypia and hysterectomy is indicated. Although weight loss would be beneficial this shouldn’t delay surgical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis

      Explanation:

      Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be: ...

    Incorrect

    • In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foetus with oesophageal-atresia

      Explanation:

      An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, usually postcoital. On pelvic examination, the cervix of was found to be of an unusually bright red colour and its texture was rougher than normal. Which of the following will you choose as the next step in the management of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical smear (2nd line)

      Explanation:

      Before considering invasive procedures, a cervical smear must first be performed. Antibiotics can only be given when inflammation has been confirmed and culture results have identified the organism causing the inflammation. Endometrial ablation, colposcopy and vaginal US are all invasive procedures that are not relevant in the immediate management of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection...

    Incorrect

    • Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infection and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. Other non albicans species include C.tropicalis, C.glabrata, C.krusei and C.parapsilosis. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the incubation period for Rubella? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incubation period for Rubella?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12-23 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation period of rubella is 12-23 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rubella belongs to which of the following family of viruses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Togaviruses

      Explanation:

      The Rubella virus, also known as German measles, is found in the Togavirus family and is a single-stranded RNA virus. The virus, which is acquired through contact with respiratory secretions, primarily replicates in the nasopharynx and lymph nodes, and produces a mild and self-limiting illness. Congenital infection, however, is associated with several anomalies including sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman with a 6 month history of fatigue and some weight gain reports to clinic for a review. Her medical records show evidence of hypothyroidism. On examination, a non tender, hard goitre is palpated. Further tests reveal elevated anti TPO (anti thyroid peroxidase) and anti -Tg (anti thyroglobulin). Which of the following conditions is most likely to present like this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hashimoto's

      Explanation:

      The case presented points to a diagnosis of an autoimmune thyroiditis leading to hypothyroidism. The most common form of autoimmune hypothyroidism, Hashimoto’s, often presents with a goitre, positive for antibody tests against thyroid components i.e. anti-TPO and anti-thyroglobulin. Graves disease and toxic diffuse goitre are more likely to cause hyperthyroidism. While De-Quervain’s and endemic goitre may cause hypothyroidism, they don’t result in positive antibody tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which is a false statement about endometriosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is a false statement about endometriosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The usual delay in diagnosis is 8 to 10 months with onset in adolescence

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is found in about one-third of women undergoing laparoscopy for chronic pelvic pain. Published studies show a diagnostic delay of 8.5 years from onset of symptoms to the eventual diagnosis of endometriosis!

      This means that women can suffer for 8.5 years before a diagnosis of endometriosis is made, and appropriate interventions are carried out.

      All other options are true statements about endometriosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding ectopic pregnancy, where is the most common site of implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ampullary tubal

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancies can quickly become a gynaecological emergency if left untreated. The majority of ectopic pregnancies (95-97%) are tubal occurring in the fallopian tube as opposed to the abdomen, ovary or cervix. In tubal ectopics, the most common site of occurrence is in the ampulla (70%), followed by the isthmus, fimbria, and the cornua.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the left ovary drain into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein ascends and enters the inferior vena cava and the left ovarian vein drains into the longer left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. What is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methyldopa

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

      Non-severe Hypertension and asymptomatic at ≥ 20w
      (BP ≥ 140/90 and < 160/110mmHg)
      • Urine dipstick analysis
      • Quantify 24hr urine protein excretion/U-PCR
      • Start Methyldopa 500mg 8hrly
      • Do Hb, Platelet count, s-Cr, AST/ALT, Urine specimen for MC&S
      • If gestational hypertension is diagnosed and BP is well controlled, continue antihypertensive therapy and plan delivery at 38 weeks if all remains well in the interim

      Hypertension with symptoms or severe features
      • Admit in High care unit and nurse in left lateral
      • Insert urinary catheter and IV line
      • Administer IV Ringers lactate (total volume of IV fluid administered should not exceed
      80mls/hr)
      • Start Magnesium Sulphate
      • Control BP
      • Perform an ultrasound (if indicated) or assess clinically to determine fetal viability,
      EFW (Estimated Fetal Weight) and liquor volume and, if possible
      • If GA ≥ 34/40 or EFW ≥ 2200g expedite delivery
      • If GA ≥ 26/40 and < 34/40, administer course of steroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
      • If patient is stabilised, offer expectant management if < 34 weeks and eligible

      Acute severe hypertension (DBP ≥ 110mmHg and or SBP ≥ 160mmHg)
      • Administer Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg per os immediately
      • Start maintenance therapy with Nifedipine (Adalat XL®) 30-60mg BD orally (maximum
      120mg/day)
      • Aim for DBP ≤ 110 and SBP ≤ 160mmHg
      • If BP is still high after 30 minutes, repeat Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg orally every 30
      minutes, for a maximum of three dosages or until BP < 160/110mmHg (contraindication:
      tachycardia > 120 bpm, unable to swallow, cardiac lesion).
      • If after 30 minutes BP is still high then give Labetalol 20, 40, 80, 80 and
      80mg (max 300mg) as bolus doses at 10 minute intervals, checking BP every 10
      minutes until BP < 160/110mmHg. Contra-indications: patients with asthma and
      ischaemic heart disease. If BP monitoring is not achievable at 10 minute intervals then
      patient should be transferred to ICU for a Labetalol infusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition.

      Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.

      Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.

      With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.

      Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.

      Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-week pregnant patient presents with acute epigastric pain and general signs of malaise. She has a normal body temperature but clinical examination shows RUQ tenderness. Blood tests revealed a mild anaemia, high liver enzyme values, low platelets and haemolysis. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels and is a very severe condition that can happen during pregnancy. Management of this condition requires immediate delivery of the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy. Which nerve roots are typically affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      Erb’s or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a type of brachial plexus injury. The brachial plexus comprises C5 to T1 nerve roots. In Erb’s palsy C5 and C6 are the roots primarily affected. Shoulder Dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Immediate delivery of the foetus is recommended at which fetal scalp pH? ...

    Incorrect

    • Immediate delivery of the foetus is recommended at which fetal scalp pH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.18

      Explanation:

      A pH value below than 7.18 indicates acidosis which can result in hypoxic brain injury. In order to prevent brain injury, immediate delivery of the foetus should be planned. The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (2/3) 67%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Management (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Passmed