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Question 1
Incorrect
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This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.
Your Answer: T1
Correct Answer: C7
Explanation:The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.
Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair.
What is true regarding the mitral valve?Your Answer: It is best auscultated in the left third interspace
Correct Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound
Explanation:The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.
The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricleThe anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer: Hesselbach's triangle
Explanation:A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
– Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
– Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She was found collapsed on the street. She has visual and oculomotor deficits on examination, but her motor function is intact.
A digital subtraction angiography is performed that shows occlusion of the basilar artery at the site where the vertebral arteries fuse to form the basilar artery.
Which anatomical landmark corresponds to this site of occlusion?Your Answer: The base of the pons
Explanation:The basilar artery is a large vessel that is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the junction of the medulla and pons. It lies in the pontine cistern and follows a shallow groove on the ventral pontine surface, extending to the upper border of the pons.
The basilar artery then bifurcates into the two posterior cerebral arteries that form part of the Circle of Willis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man, has been scheduled for a splenectomy. For this procedure, he requires a urethral catheter.
Where does resistance first occur during the insertion of a catheter?Your Answer: Prostatic urethra
Correct Answer: Membranous urethra
Explanation:The membranous urethra is the shortest part of the urethra and the least dilatable part of it.
This is as a result of it being surrounded by the external urethral sphincter which is made up of striated muscle and controls voluntary urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.
Your Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
Explanation:The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.
The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.
These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.
Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 73-year-old man, presents with abdominal pain, constipation and blood on defecation. He is diagnosed with a distal sigmoid colon carcinoma.
Which artery is most likely to provide its blood supply?Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the hindgut, which includes the sigmoid colon.
Note that during high anterior resection of distal sigmoid colon tumours, the inferior mesenteric artery is ligated, interrupting blood supply.
The branches of the internal iliac artery, particularly the middle rectal branch, are essential in retaining vascularity of the rectal stump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
From superior to inferior, these are the:
– Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
– Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
– Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
– Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
– Cervical branch supplying platysma.There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer: Teres minor
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Correct
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The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?
Your Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.
At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.
As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.
The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.
Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).
The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery.
Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.
The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.
Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?Your Answer: Inferior laryngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.
Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.
The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus.
What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?Your Answer: Axillary artery
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.
The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.
The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.
The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?
Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz
Explanation:The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.
The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.
Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Correct
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A man suffers damage to his vagus nerve during surgery on his neck. The vagus nerve is cut near its exit from the skull. The man loses his parasympathetic tone raising his heart rate and blood pressure.
What other feature will be likely present with a vagus nerve injury?Your Answer: Hoarse voice
Explanation:The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve with both autonomic and somatic effects. Its most important somatic effect is the motor supply to the larynx via recurrent laryngeal nerves. If one vagus nerve is damaged, the result will be the same as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness of voice.
The vagus exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the accessory nerve.
Anal tone, erections, and urination are all controlled by the sacral parasympathetic and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus. Parasympathetic controlled pupillary constriction is via the oculomotor nerve and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.
He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?Your Answer: S2
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.
The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?
Your Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media
Explanation:The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Correct
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A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal.
Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?Your Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.
The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?
Your Answer: Heliox
Explanation:Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:
1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO₂ level of 94 98%.
2. Use high-dose inhaled ?₂ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
intravenous ?₂ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.
Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?
Your Answer: The spinal cord ends at the level of L3 in the adult
Correct Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots
Explanation:The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
– 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
– 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
– 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
– 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
– 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.
The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.
The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.
The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations.
She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital.
What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.
A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.
While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.
Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the abdominal aorta?
Your Answer: Superior phrenic artery
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
2. Coeliac artery: T12
3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
8. Median sacral artery: L4
9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma involving the ureter. He is due to undergo a left nephroureterectomy.
Which structure has no relation to the left ureter's anatomy?Your Answer: Ovarian artery
Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus
Explanation:The ureter starts from the hilum of the kidney and has different relations with structures along its journey to the bladder.
It runs anterior to the psoas major muscle.
The testicular vessels (males) or the ovarian vessels (females) cross in front of the ureter.
The ureter passes in front of the common iliac artery where it bifurcates into the internal and external iliac arteries.
The ureter passes medial to the branches of the internal iliac vessel downwards and forwards to towards the bladder.
In males, the ductus deferens crosses the pelvic ureter medially.
In females. the ureter passes through the base of the broad ligament
In females, the pelvic part initially has the same relations as in males but, anterior to the internal iliac artery, it is immediately behind the ovary, forming the posterior boundary of the ovarian fossa. It is in extraperitoneal connective tissue in the inferomedial part of the broad ligament of the uterus. In the broad ligament, the uterine artery is anterosuperior to the ureter for approximately 2.5 cm and then crosses to its medial side to ascend alongside the uterus. The ureter turns forwards slightly above the lateral vaginal fornix and is, generally, 2 cm lateral to the supravaginal part of the uterine cervix in this location. It then inclines medially to reach the bladder. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus?
Your Answer: Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
Correct Answer: Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
Explanation:Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system.
Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?Your Answer: Long myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter adrenaline or noradrenaline), short unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline)
Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The prostate and the rectum are separated by which anatomical plane?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Denonvilliers fascia
Explanation:The prostate is separated from the rectum by the Denonvilliers fascia (rectoprostatic fascia).
Waldeyers fascia functions to separate the rectum and the sacrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT).
Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver.
Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?
Your Answer: Hepatic artery proper
Explanation:The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
1. Hepatic artery proper
It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric veinThe inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding the information about kidney, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Renal plasma flow is 1200 ml/minute
Correct Answer: Each kidney contains approximately 1.2 million nephrons
Explanation:Each kidney is composed of about 1.2 million uriniferous tubules. Each tubule consists of two parts that are embryologically distinct from each other. They are as follows:
a) Excretory part, called the nephron, which elaborates urine
b) Collecting part which begins as a junctional tubule from the distal convoluted tubule.There are two types of nephrons in the kidney:
The cortical nephron comprises 80% of the total nephron and its major function is the excretion of waste products in urine whereas the juxtamedullary nephron comprises 20% of the total nephron and its major function is the concentration of urine by counter current mechanism.
In the superficial (cortical) nephrons, peritubular capillaries branch off the efferent arterioles and deliver nutrients to epithelial cells as well as serve as a blood supply for reabsorption and secretion. In juxtamedullary nephrons, the peritubular capillaries have a specialization called the vasa recta, which are long, hairpin-shaped blood vessels that follow the same course as a loop of Henle. The vasa recta serve as osmotic exchangers for the production of concentrated urine.The kidney receives about 25% of cardiac output and about 20% of this is filtered at the glomeruli of the kidney. Thus, renal blood flow is 1200 ml/minute and renal plasma flow is 650 ml/minute
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- Anatomy
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