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Question 1
Correct
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A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his bowel habit and unexpected weight loss in the last 6 months. He is scheduled for a colonoscopy and biopsy where he is diagnosed with a transverse colon malignancy.
The transverse colon is one of many organs tethered to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a double fold of the peritoneum.
Which of the listed organs is also tethered to the peritoneum in a similar way?Your Answer: The stomach
Explanation:The peritoneal cavity is made up of the omentum, the ligaments and the mesentery.
The section of the peritoneum responsible for tethering organs to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.
These tethered organs are classified as intraperitoneal, and these include the stomach, spleen, liver, first and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse, and sigmoid colon.
Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneum and include: the rest of the duodenum, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the middle third of the rectum, and the remainder of the pancreas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Correct
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What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?
Your Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:
The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions
The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.
The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old female is undergoing a lymph node biopsy from the posterior triangle of his neck.
What structure forms the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck?Your Answer: Trapezius muscle
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus – greater auricular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, lesser occipital nerve, supraclavicular nerve (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment.
Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?Your Answer: Loss of sensation over lateral aspect of thigh
Correct Answer: Loss of knee reflex
Explanation:Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.
The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).
The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old man collapsed at home. He was brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. His wife tells you that he complained of sudden lower back pain just before he collapsed.
He is pale and hypotensive. You suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
What vertebral level does this affected vessel terminate?Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
An abdominal aortic aneurysm is a swelling in the abdominal aorta. It most commonly occurs in men over 65 years old of age. Smoking, diabetes, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia are other risk factors contributing to the disease.
The NHS screening program for abdominal aortic aneurysms involves an ultrasound test for men aged 65 or over if they have not undergone screening for a one-off screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.
Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
2. ilioinguinal nerve
3. spermatic cord (males only)
4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.
The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canalThe Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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A 79-year-old female complains of painful legs, especially in her thigh region. The pain starts after walking and settles with rest. She occasionally has to take paracetamol to relieve the pain. She is a known case of hyperlipidaemia, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression.
Her physician makes a provisional diagnosis of claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery.
Which of the following anatomical landmarks does the external iliac artery cross to become the femoral artery?Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:The external iliac artery is the larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery. It forms the main blood supply to the lower limbs. The common iliac bifurcates into the internal and external iliac artery anterior to the sacroiliac joint.
The external iliac artery courses on the medial border of the psoas major muscles and exits the pelvic girdle posterior to the inguinal ligament. Here, midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic symphysis, the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery and descends along the anteromedial part of the thigh in the femoral triangle.
The pectineus forms the posterior border of the femoral canal.
The femoral vein forms the lateral border of the femoral canal.
The medial border of the adductor longus muscle forms the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
The medial border of the sartorius muscle forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle
Explanation:A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
– Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
– Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's disease. She is eligible for surgery as medical treatment options have failed to control her symptoms and she is the sole guardian for her young children, so radioiodine treatment is unsuitable. While gaining her consent for the surgery, she is told of possible complications of thyroidectomy, which include damage to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.
What is the name of the sensory nerve that arises from the superior laryngeal nerve?Your Answer: Right recurrent laryngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.
There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.
The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:Your Answer: Lateral rectus
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.
The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
Roof – frontal bone
Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.
The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.
The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
4th (superior oblique), and
6th (lateral rectus).The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).
To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus
Explanation:Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.
The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old businesswoman presents to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. Her work requires her to travel internationally frequently. The consultant makes a diagnosis and treats her.
Now, the consultant recommends placing a filter that will prevent future incidents. A needle is placed into the femoral vein and passed up into the abdomen to insert the filter.
What is true regarding the organ where the filter is placed for this patient's condition?Your Answer: It is located posteriorly to the peritoneum
Explanation:The patient likely suffers from pulmonary embolism due to her history of frequent international travels. A filter is placed in the inferior vena cava to decrease the risk of future episodes of pulmonary embolism. The IVC filter is a small, wiry device that can catch blood clots and stop them from going into the heart and lungs. Your IVC is a major vessel that brings deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the heart, from where it is pumped into the lungs.
The filter is placed via a thin catheter inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. The catheter is gently moved up into your IVC, and a filter is introduced.
The IVC is a retroperitoneal organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.
The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.
What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?Your Answer: L1
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.
The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.
The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system.
Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?Your Answer: Short unmyelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long myelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)
Explanation:The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.
The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.
The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of these statements is false relating to the posterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer: It is connected to the circle of Willis via the superior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The posterior cerebral arteries are the terminal branches of the basilar artery and are connected to the circle of Willis via the posterior communicating artery. The posterior cerebral artery supplies the visual areas of the cerebral cortex and other structures in the visual pathway.
The posterior cerebral artery is separated from the superior cerebellar artery near its origin by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve) and, lateral to the midbrain, by the trochlear nerve.
PCA strokes will primarily cause a visual field loss or homonymous hemianopia to the opposite side. This large occipital or PCA stroke causes people to be “blind” on one side of the visual field. This is the most common symptom of a large occipital lesion or PCA stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.
Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.Your Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The outer muscular layer of the oesophagus is covered by?
Your Answer: Serosa
Correct Answer: Loose connective tissue
Explanation:The oesophagus has four layers namely; 1. the mucosal layer, 2. the submucosal layer, 3. the muscular layer and 4. the layer of loose connective tissue which binds to the outer mucosal layer. The oesophagus lacks the serosal layer and therefore holds sutures poorly.
The mucosal layer consists of muscularis mucosa and the lamina propria and is made up of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium. The mucosal layer is the innermost layer of the oesophagus.
The submucosal layer being the strongest layer of all has mucous glands which are called as the tuboalveolar mucous glands.
The outer muscular layer has two types of muscle layers of which one is the circular layer and the other the longitudinal layer. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses lie in between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers and submucosally. The muscle fibres present in the upper 1/3rd part of the oesophagus are skeletal muscle fibres, the middle 1/3rd layer has both smooth and skeletal muscle fibres, but the lower 1/3rd only has smooth muscle fibres.
The loose connective tissue layer or the adventitious layer has dense fibrous tissue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman is a known case of acute myeloid leukaemia and was treated with chemotherapy as a child. She now presents in casualty, and you are called in to attend this patient as it is getting difficult to gain vascular access in her arms. The medical registrar asks you to site a cannula during the arrest call as intraosseous access is delayed. The intern wants to assist you in performing a venous cutdown of one of the veins in the patients ankle that passes anterior to the medial malleolus. Which vessel is this?
Your Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:Venous cutdown is a surgical procedure when venous access is difficult, and other procedures like the Seldinger technique, ultrasound-guided venous access, and intraosseous vascular access have failed.
The vein of choice for venous cutdown is the long/great saphenous vein. It is part of the superficial venous collecting system of the lower extremity. It is the preferred vein as the long saphenous vein has anatomic consistency and is superficially located at the ankle anterior to the medial malleolus. It is also the most commonly used conduit for cardiovascular bypass operations.
Origin- in the foot at the confluence of the dorsal vein of the first digit and the dorsal venous arch of the foot
Route- runs ANTERIOR to the medial malleolus and travels up in the medial leg and upper thigh.
Termination: in the femoral vein within the femoral triangleRegarding the other options:
The short saphenous vein passes posterior to the lateral malleolus.
The dorsalis pedis vein accompanies the dorsalis pedis artery on the anterior foot.
The posterior tibial vein is part of the deep venous system accompanying the posterior tibial artery. There is no significant sural vein (there is a sural nerve), but the sural veins accompany the sural arteries and drain to the popliteal vein. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 58-year-old man, visits his general practitioner complaining of a lump in his groin. He explains he is otherwise well and reports no other symptoms. The lump is examined and is found to be soft, and can be reduced without causing the patient pain. The GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia. To determine the nature of the hernia, the GP reduced the lump and applies pressure on the deep inguinal ring.
The deep inguinal ring has what anatomical landmark?Your Answer: Superior to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring lies approximately 1.5-2cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle, next to the epigastric vessels.
It is an important point in determining the nature of an inguinal hernia (direct or indirect). The patient is asked to cough after the hernia is reduced, with pressure applied to the deep inguinal ring. The hernia reappearing indicates it is direct, moving through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
Inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle is the normal anatomical position of the neck of a femoral hernia.
Superior and medial to the pubic tubercle is the site of the superficial inguinal ring, and the normal anatomical position of the neck of an inguinal hernia.
The mid-inguinal point is located halways between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. It is the surface marking for taking the femoral pulse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What part of the male urethra is completely surrounded by Bucks fascia?
Your Answer: Membranous part
Correct Answer: Spongiosa part
Explanation:Bucks fascia refers to the layer of loose connective tissue, nerves and blood vessels that encapsulates the penile erectile bodies, the corpa cavernosa and the anterior part of the urethra, including the entirety of the spongiose part of the urethra.
It runs with the external spermatic fascia and the penile suspensory ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Correct
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An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.
Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?Your Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.
On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer: Antebrachial fascia
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding the blood supply of the heart, are the following statements true?
Your Answer: The anterior cardiac vein drains into the coronary sinus
Correct Answer: The left coronary artery originates from the left posterior aortic sinus
Explanation:The left coronary artery arises from the left posterior aortic sinus and divides into the circumflex arteries and the left anterior descending (LAD) artery.
The right coronary artery arises from the anterior aortic sinus and supplies:
– the right ventricle
– part of the interventricular septum
– the atrioventricular (A-V) node and
– in 85% of cases the inferior part of the left ventricle.
The right coronary artery provides a posterior interventricular branch and a marginal branch that anastomoses with the LAD at the apex.The oblique vein together with the small, middle and great cardiac veins drain into the coronary sinus, which drains into the right atrium.
The anterior cardiac vein drains directly into the right atrium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms consistent with mesenteric ischemia. She is quickly shifted to the operation theatre for an emergency laparotomy.
On exploration, the segment of the colon from the splenic flexure down to the rectum is ischemic.
The artery blocked in this scenario arises at what vertebral level from the aorta?Your Answer: L3
Explanation:The hindgut is from the distal third of the transverse colon down to the upper one-third of the anal canal. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the aorta behind the inferior border of the third part of the duodenum 3–4 cm above the aortic bifurcation, at the third lumbar vertebra level.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Correct
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A 28-year-old girl, Sam, has suffered a road traffic accident. She is brought to the emergency department and undergoes investigations and treatment.
On X-ray of the humerus, she has a mid-shaft fracture.
What structure is at the highest risk of damage with a mid-shaft humeral fracture?Your Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs.
The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.The humeral shaft has two compartments:
1. Anterior:
Brachial artery and vein
Biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
Musculocutaneous, median, and ulnar nerves
2. Posterior:
Radial nerve
TricepsOther significant nerve injuries are:
1. Axillary nerve – surgical neck fracture of the humerus
2. Brachial Artery – supracondylar fracture of the humerus
3. Axillary artery – surgical neck fracture of the humerus, but is relatively uncommon -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT).
Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver.
Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?
Your Answer: Hepatic artery proper
Explanation:The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
1. Hepatic artery proper
It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric veinThe inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?
Your Answer: A line connecting the processes of S5
Correct Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines
Explanation:The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.
In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.
A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.
A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.
The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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A laceration to the upper lateral margin of the popliteal fossa will pose the greatest risk of injury for which nerve?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal (fibular) nerve descends obliquely along the lateral side of the popliteal fossa to the fibular head, medial to biceps femoris.
The sural nerve exits at the fossa’s lower inferolateral aspect and is more at risk in short saphenous vein surgery.
The tibial nerve lies more medially and is even less likely to be injured in this location.
The boundaries of the popliteal fossa are:
Superolateral – the biceps femoris tendon
Superomedial – semimembranosus reinforced by semitendinosus
Inferomedial and inferolateral – medial and lateral heads of gastrocnemiusThe contents of the Popliteal fossa are:
1. The popliteal artery
2. The popliteal vein
3. The Tibial nerve and common Fibular nerve
4. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve: descends and pierces the roof
5. Small saphenous vein
6. popliteal lymph nodes
7. fat -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male student is admitted to ER after sustaining a crush injury of the pelvis.
Clinical examination is as follows:
Airway: Patent
Breathing: RR: 25 breaths per minute, breath sounds vesicular, nil added
Circulation: Capillary refill time = 4 seconds, cool peripheries
Pulse: 125 beats per minute
BP: 125/96 mmHg
Disability:
Glasgow coma score 15
Anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey does not reveal any other significant injuries. The patient is given high flow oxygen therapy and intravenous access is established.
Which one of the following options is the most appropriate initial route of intravenous access?Your Answer: Left subclavian vein
Correct Answer: Left cephalic vein
Explanation:The clinical signs suggest a class II haemorrhage – 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant concealed haemorrhage (>2000 ml) and may require aggressive fluid resuscitation. Other priorities include stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines)
Minimal systolic pressure changes
Anxiety, fright or hostility
Can usually be stabilised by crystalloid, but may later require a blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state in which at least crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
Classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale
Need rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.Loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
The route of choice is an arm vein (cephalic) with one or two large bore cannula. This will enable initial aggressive fluid resuscitation. A central line can be inserted at a later stage if central venous monitoring is deemed necessary. If a suitable peripheral vein cannot be cannulated with a large bore cannula then the internal jugular vein could be accessed rapidly (preferably ultrasound guided).
Intravenous access below the diaphragm in this case is inadvisable when other routes are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is planned for elective parotidectomy for pleomorphic adenoma. The surgeon intends to use a nerve integrity monitor thus avoiding neuromuscular blockade. Which of the following nerves is liable to injury in parotidectomy?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:Parotidectomy is basically an anatomical dissection. Identification of the facial nerve trunk is essential during parotid gland surgery because facial nerve injury is the most daunting potential complication of parotid gland surgery owing to the close relation between the gland and the extratemporal course of the facial nerve. After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve enters the substance of the parotid gland and then gives off five terminal branches:
From superior to inferior, these are the:
– Temporal branch supplying the extrinsic ear muscles, occipitofrontalis and orbicularis oculi
– Zygomatic branch supplying orbicularis oculi
– Buccal branch supplying buccinator and the lip muscles
– Mandibular branch supplying the muscles of the lower lip and chin
– Cervical branch supplying platysma.There are two approaches to identify the facial nerve trunk during parotidectomy—conventional antegrade dissection of the facial nerve, and retrograde dissection. Numerous soft tissue and bony landmarks have been proposed to assist the surgeon in the early identification of this nerve. Most commonly used anatomical landmarks to identify facial nerve trunk are stylomastoid foramen, tympanomastoid suture (TMS), posterior belly of digastric (PBD), tragal pointer (TP), mastoid process and peripheral branches of the facial nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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