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  • Question 1 - Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer: Elderly

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Compliance changes at different lung volumes. Initially at lower lung volumes the compliance of the lung is poor and greater pressure change is required to cause a change in volume. This occurs if the lungs become collapsed for a period of time. At functional residual capacity (FRC) compliance is optimal since the elastic recoil of the lung tending towards collapse is balanced by the tendency of the chest wall to spring outwards. At higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung again becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer. At all volumes, the base of the lung has a greater compliance than the apex. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance. Compliance is affected by a person’s age, sex and height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You see a patient in the ED with photophobia, petechial rash, headache and...

    Incorrect

    • You see a patient in the ED with photophobia, petechial rash, headache and neck stiffness, and suspect a diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis.

      What is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Give benzylpenicillin 1.2 g IM

      Correct Answer: Give ceftriaxone 2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment should be commenced with antibiotics immediately before laboratory confirmation due to the potentially life-threatening nature of the disease.

      In a hospital setting, 2g of IV ceftriaxone (80 mg/kg for a child) or IV cefotaxime (2 g adult; 80 mg/kg child) are the drugs of choice.
      In the prehospital setting, IM benzylpenicillin can be given as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man complains of chest pain and syncope on occasion. His heart rate is 37 beats per minute, and he has a second-degree heart block, according to his rhythm strip.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in his management, according to the ALS bradycardia algorithm?

      Your Answer: Set up transcutaneous pacing

      Correct Answer: Give atropine 500 mcg

      Explanation:

      Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (sinus, atrial, or nodal) or AV block when the patient’s haemodynamic condition is compromised by the bradycardia.

      If any of the following adverse features are present, the ALS bradycardia algorithm recommends a dose of atropine 500 mcg IV:
      Shock
      Syncope
      Myocardial ischemia
      Insufficiency of the heart

      If this does not work, give additional 500 mcg doses at 3-5 minute intervals until a maximum dose of 3 mg is reached. The heart rate can be slowed paradoxically if the dose is higher than 3 mg.

      The ALS bradycardia algorithm also suggests the following interim measures:
      Transcutaneous pacing
      Isoprenaline infusion 5 mcg/min
      Adrenaline infusion 2-10 mcg/minutes
      Alternative drugs (aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A diagnosis of acute hepatitis B is suspected.
      Which of the following blood results is most suggestive of an acute hepatitis B infection? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
      The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
      Susceptible to infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Negative

      Immune due to natural infection:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Immune due to vaccination:
      HBsAg = Negative
      Anti-HBc = Negative
      Anti-HBs = Positive

      Acute infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Positive

      Chronic infection:
      HBsAg = Positive
      Anti-HBc = Positive
      Anti-HBs = Negative
      IgM anti-HBc = Negative

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man present to the ED with abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man present to the ED with abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. It has been present for the past two days.

      Which of the following statements regarding diarrhoea and vomiting is true?

      Your Answer: E.Coli can cause diarrhoea and renal failure

      Explanation:

      Escherichia coli strain 0157 causes enterohaemorrhagic diarrhoea and can lead to renal failure, haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia.

      Norwalk virus is an RNA virus.

      Although transmission of rotavirus is primarily through the faeco-oral route, airborne spread has been seen in some cases.

      Cryptosporidium are protozoa with acid fast walls and are resistant to both chlorine treatment and conventional filtering methods.

      There is no therapy effective in treating cryptosporidium diarrhoea as the protozoa is not susceptible to antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient presents with a rash for dermatological examination. A large area of...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a rash for dermatological examination. A large area of purplish discolouration of the skin that measures 2 cm in diameter and does not blanch when pressure is applied is seen .

      What is the best description of this rash that you have found on examination?

      Your Answer: Ecchymoses

      Explanation:

      Ecchymosis are discolouration of the skin or mucous membranes caused by extravasation of blood. They are usually red or purple in colour and measure greater than 1 cm in diameter and do not blanch on applying pressure.

      A macule is a flat, well circumscribed area of discoloured skin less than 1 cm in diameter with no changes in the thickness or texture of the skin.

      Petechiae are discolouration of the skin measuring less than 3 mm in diameter

      Purpura are discolouration of the skin measuring between 0.3 cm and 1 cm in diameter.

      Erythema is redness of the skin or mucous membranes caused by hyperaemia of superficial capillaries caused by skin injury, infection or inflammation. Erythema blanches when pressure is applied whereas ecchymosis, purpura and petechiae do not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note...

    Incorrect

    • On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note that both osmolarities are decreased. There urine osmolality does not increase with fluid ingestion.

      What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      As part of the investigation of hyponatraemia, serum osmolality is commonly requested in combination with urine osmolality to aid diagnosis.

      When:
      Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is decreased with no intake of fluid, the causes are
      Hyponatraemia
      Overhydration
      Adrenocortical insufficiency
      Sodium loss (diuretic or a low-salt diet)

      Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is increased the causes include:
      Dehydration
      Hyperkalaemia
      Hyperglycaemia
      Hyponatremia
      Mannitol therapy
      Diabetes mellitus
      Alcohol ingestion
      Congestive heart failure
      Renal disease and uraemia

      Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is decreased the usual cause is diabetes insipidus

      Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is increased the usual cause is syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding co-amoxiclav, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding co-amoxiclav, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Clavulanic acid acts to inhibit cross-linking of bacterial peptidoglycan polymers.

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav consists of amoxicillin with the beta-lactamase inhibitor clavulanic acid. Clavulanic acid itself has no significant antibacterial activity but, by inactivating beta-lactamases, it makes the combination active against beta-lactamase-producing bacteria that are resistant to amoxicillin.The most common adverse effects of co-amoxiclav include nausea, vomiting, skin rash and diarrhoea. Pseudomembranous colitis should be considered if a person develops severe diarrhoea during or after treatment with co-amoxiclav. Cholestatic jaundice can occur either during or shortly after the use of co-amoxiclav. An epidemiological study has shown that the risk of acute liver toxicity was about 6 times greater with co-amoxiclav than with amoxicillin. Cholestatic jaundice is more common in patients above the age of 65 years and in men; these reactions have only rarely been reported in children. Jaundice is usually self-limiting and very rarely fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following nerves provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior surface of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior surface of the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Branch of the perineal nerve

      Explanation:

      The following nerves provide cutaneous innervation to the scrotum, and other anatomic structures:

      The perineal nerve supplies the muscles in the urogenital triangle, and the skin on the posterior surface of the scrotum (or labia majora).

      The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster muscle, the skin over the anterior surface of the thigh, and the anterolateral surface of the scrotum.

      The ilioinguinal nerve supplies the external oblique, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, skin of the upper medial aspect of thigh, the root of the penis and the anterior surface of the scrotum in the male, and the mons pubis and labia majora in the female.

      The posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, or posterior femoral cutaneous nerve, supplies the skin over the lower medial quadrant of the buttock, the inferior skin of the scrotum or labium majus, and the back of the thigh and the upper part of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman is transfused following a diagnosis of anaemia secondary to heavy...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is transfused following a diagnosis of anaemia secondary to heavy vaginal bleeding. She complains of feeling hot and cold during transfusion of the second unit and her temperature is 38.5ºC. Prior to the transfusion, her temperature was 37ºC. She has no other symptoms.

      Which of these transfusions reactions most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Febrile transfusion reactions presents with an unexpected temperature rise (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above baseline, if baseline ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after transfusion. It is usually an isolated finding and the fever is accompanied by chills and malaise occasionally.

      Allergic reaction is commonly caused by foreign plasma proteins but may be due to anti-IgA. Allergic type reactions usually present with urticaria, pruritus, hives. Associations include laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.

      Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.

      Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is a form of acute respiratory distress caused by the donor plasma containing antibodies against the patient’s leukocytes. It is defined as hypoxia and bilateral pulmonary oedema that occurs within 6 hours of a transfusion in the absence of other causes of acute lung injury. Clinical features include Breathlessness, cough, frothy sputum, hypertension or hypotension, hypoxia and fever. Chest X-ray shows multiple perihilar nodules with infiltration of the lower lung fields.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding flucloxacillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding flucloxacillin, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is used first line for localised impetigo infection.

      Correct Answer: It is resistant to bacterial beta-lactamases.

      Explanation:

      Flucloxacillin is unique in that it is beta-lactamase stable and it can be used in infections caused by beta-lactamase producing staphylococci e.g. S. aureus. It is acid-stable and can therefore be given by mouth as well as by injection. It is used first line for treatment of widespread impetigo infection, cellulitis, mastitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, severe erysipelas, severe/spreading otitis externa and infective endocarditis caused by staphylococci. The most common adverse effects of flucloxacillin include nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and diarrhoea. Cholestatic jaundice and hepatitis may occur very rarely, up to two months after treatment with flucloxacillin has been stopped. Administration for more than 2 weeks and increasing age are risk factors. First line treatment of animal and human bites is co-amoxiclav.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Regarding the human cell, which of the following cell organelles is responsible for...

    Correct

    • Regarding the human cell, which of the following cell organelles is responsible for the production of ATP:

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles that are responsible for the production of the cell’s supply of chemical energy. This is achieved by using molecular oxygen to utilise sugar and small fatty acid molecules to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This process is known as oxidative phosphorylation and requires an enzyme called ATP synthase. ATP acts as an energy-carrying molecule and releases the energy in situations when it is required to fuel cellular processes. Mitochondria are also involved in other cellular processes, including Ca2+homeostasis and signalling. Mitochondria contain a small amount of maternal DNA.
      Mitochondria have two phospholipid bilayers, an outer membrane and an inner membrane. The inner membrane is intricately folded inwards to form numerous layers called cristae. The cristae contain specialised membrane proteins that enable the mitochondria to synthesise ATP. Between the two membranes lies the intermembrane space, which stores large proteins that are required for cellular respiration. Within the inner membrane is the perimitochondrial space, which contains a jelly-like matrix. This matrix contains a large quantity of ATP synthase.
      Mitochondrial disease, or mitochondrial disorder, refers to a group of disorders that affect the mitochondria. When the number or function of mitochondria in the cell are disrupted, less energy is produced and organ dysfunction results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is urgently rushed into the Emergency Department as she complains of chest pain that is worse on breathing, shortness of breath, palpitations, and haemoptysis.

      She undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram, which reveals a large pulmonary embolus. She is immediately started on heparin and shifted to the acute medical ward.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding heparin?

      Your Answer: It activates antithrombin III

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a polymer of glycosaminoglycan. It occurs naturally and is found in mast cells. Clinically, it is used in two forms:
      1. Unfractionated: widely varying polymer chain lengths
      2. Low molecular weight: Smaller polymers only

      Heparin works by binding to and activating the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III. Antithrombin III inactivates thrombin (factor IIa) by forming a 1:1 complex with thrombin. The heparin-antithrombin III complex also inhibits factor Xa and some other proteases involved with clotting. The heparin-ATIII complex can also inactivate IX, XI, XII, and plasmin.

      Heparin is not thrombolytic or fibrinolytic. It prevents the progression of existing clots by inhibiting further clotting. The lysis of existing clots relies on endogenous thrombolytics.

      Heparin is used for:
      1. Prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism
      2. Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation
      3. Treatment of fat embolism
      4. Priming of haemodialysis and cardiopulmonary bypass machines

      There is no evidence that heparin is superior to low-molecular-weight heparins in preventing mortality from thrombosis.

      Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin but not heparin. For heparin, protamine sulphate is used to counteract its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which statement about cross-sectional studies is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about cross-sectional studies is true?

      Your Answer: They can be used to differentiate between cause and effect

      Correct Answer: They can be used to assess the prevalence of a condition

      Explanation:

      Cross-sectional studies can be used to assess the prevalence of a condition.

      Cross-sectional studies CANNOT be used to differentiate between cause and effect or establish the sequence of events.

      They can be used to study multiple outcomes but are NOT suitable for studying rare diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The sensation produced by touching the arm with a vibrating tuning fork during...

    Correct

    • The sensation produced by touching the arm with a vibrating tuning fork during a neurological examination is mediated by which of the following spinal tracts:

      Your Answer: Posterior column

      Explanation:

      Fine-touch, proprioception and vibration sensation are mediated by the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Liver damage peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion.

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures: ...

    Correct

    • CSF is reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via which of the following structures:

      Your Answer: Arachnoid granulations

      Explanation:

      From the subarachnoid cisterns in the subarachnoid space, CSF is reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations which protrude into the dura mater, into the dural venous sinuses and from here back into the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral...

    Correct

    • A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?

      Your Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual loss in the lower left quadrant in both visual fields is an indication of an inferior homonymous. This is due to a lesion of the superior fibres of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe on the contralateral side of the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old man goes to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man goes to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and swollen parotid glands that are excruciating. You have a suspicion that it is mumps. Which of the following nerves is causing the discomfort the patient is experiencing:

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The auriculotemporal nerve is irritated by mumps, which results in significant discomfort due to inflammation and swelling of the parotid gland, as well as the stretching of its capsule. Compression caused by swallowing or chewing exacerbates pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents...

    Incorrect

    • One of your patients has been infected by an obligate pathogen and presents with features of this condition.

      Which of these is an example of an obligate pathogen?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci

      Correct Answer: Trepenoma pallidum

      Explanation:

      Treponema pallidum is an obligate pathogen. Obligate pathogens are almost always associated with disease and usually cannot survive outside of the body for long periods of time. Examples include and HIV.

      Staphylococcus aureus and Bacteroides fragilis are conditional pathogens. These are pathogens that usually cause disease only if certain conditions are met.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, are opportunistic pathogens. These are pathogens that can only cause disease in an immunocompromised host or under unusual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      23.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (2/4) 50%
Specific Pathogen Groups (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
General Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (2/2) 100%
Basic Cellular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Infections (1/2) 50%
Abdomen And Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (4/4) 100%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
Principles Of Microbiology (0/1) 0%
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