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  • Question 1 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman was referred to the endocrinology department with hypercalcemia and raised parathyroid hormone levels. Her blood tests are highly suggestive of primary hyperparathyroidism.
      She has type 2 diabetes controlled by metformin alone. Her albumin-adjusted serum calcium level is 3.5 mmol/litre.

      Which of the following is the most important reason for her referral?

      Your Answer: Co-existing type 2 diabetes

      Correct Answer: Albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 3.5 mmol/litre

      Explanation:

      Indications for surgery for the treatment of primary hyperparathyroidism:
      1. Symptoms of hypercalcaemia such as thirst, frequent or excessive urination, or constipation
      2. End-organ disease (renal stones, fragility fractures or osteoporosis)
      3. An albumin-adjusted serum calcium level of 2.85 mmol/litre or above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      117
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old appears at the OPD with symptoms of persistent cough and purulent...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old appears at the OPD with symptoms of persistent cough and purulent sputum. He is a chronic smoker and had measles in the past. Upon auscultation, inspiratory crepitation and finger clubbing are noted. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      A history of measles, whooping cough, or other severe lung infections like tuberculosis (TB) and pneumonia can lead to airway damage and possibly bronchiectasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old male attends a doctor's surgery to get help with quitting drinking...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male attends a doctor's surgery to get help with quitting drinking alcohol. He expressed that he wishes to avoid the unpleasant alcohol craving experiences. From the following options, what should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Disulfiram

      Correct Answer: Acamprosate

      Explanation:

      Acamprosate (calcium acetyl-homotaurine) helps to restore the normal activity of glutaminergic neurons, which usually become hyperexcited following chronic alcohol exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old male presented in the OPD with a complaint of abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presented in the OPD with a complaint of abdominal pain and blood in his stools for the last two days. He reports that the stools are black in colour and sometimes accompanied by fresh blood. There is also a history of significant weight loss. Blood tests revealed elevated CA 19-9. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      66.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with bloody diarrhoea associated with systemic upset. Blood tests show the following:


      Hb 13.4 g/dl
      Platelets 467 * 109/l
      WBC 8.2 * 109/l
      CRP 89 mg/l

      A diagnosis of ulcerative colitis is suspected. Which part of the bowel is most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      The most COMMON site of inflammation from ulcerative colitis is the rectum, making this the correct answer. This is simply a fact you need to memorize. In general, ulcerative colitis only occurs in colorectal regions– nothing in the small bowel (unless there is backwash into the terminal ileum) and nothing further up the GI tract. In Crohn’s it can affect the entire GI tract from mouth to anus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      290.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old student presents to the university health service complaining of flu-like symptoms, lethargy and jaundiced sclerae and an inability to eat due to a sore throat. He remembered that his father may have suffered from a liver condition. On further questioning a history of intravenous drug use on two occasions is identified.

      Investigations reveal:
      Alanine transaminase (ALT) 23 U/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 28 U/l
      Bilirubin 78 μmol/l
      Albumin 41g/l

      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      122
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old female patient presents with butterfly rash, haematuria and photosensitivity. She is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient presents with butterfly rash, haematuria and photosensitivity. She is currently on TB treatment. Which antibody would you expect positive?

      Your Answer: Anti-Histone

      Explanation:

      This patient is probably suffering from a drug-induced lupus. There’s a 95% chance that anti-histone antibodies are positive. Drug-induced lupus is a lupus-like disease caused by certain prescription drugs. The drugs most commonly connected with drug-induced lupus are: hydralazine (used to treat high blood pressure or hypertension), procainamide (used to treat irregular heart rhythms) and isoniazid (used to treat tuberculosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man who has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine slow release tablet (MST) 60mg bd as an analgesic, is reviewed. Recently, he has been unable to take medications orally and, thus, a decision has been made to set up a syringe driver.

      Out of the following, what dose of diamorphine should be prescribed for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 40mg

      Explanation:

      The dose is calculated, using the conversion factor, as follows:

      (Conversion factor used to convert oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine = Divide the total daily dose of oral morphine by 3)
      Hence,
      60mg*2 = 120mg
      120mg/3 = 40mg

      The side effects of opioids can be transient or persistent, and these include constipation, nausea, and drowsiness. Therefore, all patients taking opioids should also be prescribed a laxative and an anti-emetic (if the nausea is persistent). Dose-adjustment may be necessary in cases of persistent drowsiness. Moreover, strong opioids can also provide quick relief from metastatic bone pain, as compared to NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old male came in with chills and dilated pupils, which were withdrawal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male came in with chills and dilated pupils, which were withdrawal signs and symptoms of a certain drug. Which of the following can cause above presentation?

      Your Answer: Heroine

      Explanation:

      Both cocaine and heroine withdrawal cause dilated pupils. Heroine withdrawal causes chills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      647.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A patient is told to consult a pathologist regarding the stone that was...

    Correct

    • A patient is told to consult a pathologist regarding the stone that was found in his urine. The pathologist describes the stone as laminated, with areas of black staining. Urinalysis indicates hypercalciuria. Which is the most likely type of renal calculus?

      Your Answer: Calcium oxylate

      Explanation:

      Hypercalciuria is the most common cause of kidney stone disease. It is an identifiable cause and can be primary (or idiopathic) or secondary. Secondary hypercalciuria might be due to hyperparathyroidism (2-3%), high levels of vitamin D, Cushing’s syndrome, sarcoidosis or milk-alkali syndrome. Hypercalciuria can also be idiopathic and is considered the commonest metabolic abnormality in people with stone disease. Factors favouring stone formation are: abnormal urine constituents, infection and stasis. In these cases, investigations fail to reveal any calcium metabolism disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old female presents with an infected skin ulcer. She is prescribed flucloxacillin...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female presents with an infected skin ulcer. She is prescribed flucloxacillin and later develops jaundice, pale stools, and dark-coloured urine. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholestatic jaundice

      Explanation:

      Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. Pale stools is an effect of the blocked bile flow through the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary System
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 38-year-old woman with a history of multiple joint pain and red painful...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman with a history of multiple joint pain and red painful skin lesions complained of a chronic non-productive cough. CXR shows symmetric hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any organ but mainly affects the lungs and lymph nodes. Cough can be due to any of the given conditions. Polyarthritis, erythema nodosum (erythematous painful subcutaneous nodules) and symmetric hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy are classical signs of sarcoidosis. This triad is known as Lofgren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      152.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her bloods show: Hb: 10.4 g/dL Plts: 278 x...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman presents with lethargy. Her bloods show: Hb: 10.4 g/dL Plts: 278 x 10^9/L WCC: 6.3 x 10^9/L MCV: 68 fL Blood film: Microcytic hypochromic RBCs, marked anisocytosis and basophilic stippling noted HbA2: 3.9% What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Individuals with thalassemia major usually develop symptoms within the first two years of life. These infants may fail to thrive and often have difficulty feeding, tire easily and suffer from severe anemia.

      The infants may also suffer from diarrhea, irritability, recurrent episodes of fever, and other intestinal problems. These children have trouble gaining weight and growing at the rate expected for their age. Other complications include enlarged spleen, heart and liver and misshapen bones.

      In many cases, the symptoms are severe enough to warrant regular blood transfusion to replenish the blood with healthy red blood cells. However, these regular transfusions can lead to a build up of iron in the blood that can damage the heart, liver and endocrine system and chelation therapy may be needed to remove this iron from the body.

      Individuals with beta thalassemia trait usually have evidence of microcytosis and increased levels of hemoglobin A2. Hemoglobin F is sometimes elevated as well. Individuals with alpha thalassemia trait usually have evidence of microcytosis and normal levels of hemoglobin A2 and F.

      In thalassemia major, the hemoglobin (Hb) level is usually less than 7 g/dl; the mean corpuscolar volume (MCV) less than 70 fl and the mean corpuscolar Hb (MCH) is over 20 pg.

      In thalassemia intermedia, the hemoglobin level is between 7 and 10 g/dl; the MCV between 50 and 80 fl and MCH between 16 and 24 pg.

      Thalassemia minor is characterized by a reduced MCV and MCH and an increased haemoglobin A2 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?

      Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors typically decrease the prostate specific antigen level

      Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the statements given below would be the most accurate regarding airway...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements given below would be the most accurate regarding airway obstruction in the newborn?

      Your Answer: Stridor is less severe in the supine position

      Correct Answer: In Pierre Robin syndrome the airway can be improved by a nasopharyngeal tube

      Explanation:

      Pierre Robin syndrome (PRS) is a congenital defect observed in humans which is characterized by an unusually small mandible, posterior displacement or retraction of the tongue, and upper airway obstruction. Cleft palate (incomplete closure of the roof of the mouth) is present in the majority of patients.

      PRS is generally diagnosed clinically shortly after birth. The infant usually has respiratory difficulty, especially when supine. The palatal cleft is often U-shaped and wider than that observed in other people with cleft palate.

      Treatment:
      If moderate dyspnoea: symptomatic treatment, non-invasive ventilation, supervision and assistance while eating
      If severe dyspnoea: surgical correction, special interventions for long-term correction
      In cases of acute life-threatening respiratory distress → tracheostomy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
      Parametric tests:
      Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
      Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlation

      Non-parametric tests:
      Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
      Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
      chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
      Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.

      The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann-Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
      This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is feeling more fatigued than usual. She has not attended the previous three annual check-ups and her blood glucose control has been poor. She has not been compliant with his medications. Blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows microalbuminuria. A blood test reveals her glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 26 mL/min.

      If a renal biopsy was to be performed in this patient, what would be the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis and hyaline arteriosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has a poorly controlled T2DM with an underlying diabetic nephropathy. The histological findings are Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions (nodular glomerulosclerosis) and hyaline arteriosclerosis. This is due to nonenzymatic glycosylation.

      Diabetic nephropathy is the chronic loss of kidney function occurring in those with diabetes mellitus. Protein loss in the urine due to damage to the glomeruli may become massive, and cause a low serum albumin with resulting generalized body swelling (edema) and result in the nephrotic syndrome. Likewise, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) may progressively fall from a normal of over 90 ml/min/1.73m2 to less than 15, at which point the patient is said to have end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). It usually is slowly progressive over years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg during a routine medical check. She is otherwise well and her physical examination is unremarkable.
      Blood tests show:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 2.6 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 31 mmol/l
      Urea 3.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 77 µmol/l

      Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer: Renin:aldosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      Primary aldosteronism now is considered one of the more common causes of secondary hypertension (HTN).
      Individuals with primary aldosteronism may present with hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis; however, as many as 38% of patients with primary aldosteronism may be normokalaemia at presentation.
      Routine laboratory studies can show hypernatremia, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis resulting from the action of aldosterone on the renal distal convoluted tubule (DCT) (i.e., enhancing sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion).
      Plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio is used for screening because it is fairly constant over many physiologic conditions.

      The patient is clinically free, so Cushing diseases can be exclude.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily.
       
      Routine investigations show:

      Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Serum creatinine 100 μmol/L (60-110)

       
      Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today.
       
      Which of these is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week

      Explanation:

      Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      52.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

The Skin (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (1/2) 50%
Respiratory System (2/3) 67%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal System (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal System (1/1) 100%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Renal System (3/4) 75%
Hepatobiliary System (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/1) 0%
Passmed