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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint:...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with signs of inflammation in the first metatarsophalangeal joint: redness, swelling and pain. The analysis of synovial fluid reveals needle-shaped, strongly negatively birefringent crystals. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout is a rheumatic disease caused by the precipitation of monosodium urate crystals into tissues, usually joints. This causes acute or chronic pain; the acute illness initially affects only one joint, often the first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis of the disease requires the identification of crystal in the synovial fluid. These crystals are needle-shaped and strongly negatively birefringent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults? ...

    Correct

    • Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by which microbe in adults?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by S. aureus in all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is...

    Correct

    • If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      One of the complications of long-term intake of corticosteroids is osteoporosis. Some guidelines recommend prophylactic calcium and vitamin D supplementation in patients who take more than 30 mg hydrocortisone or 7.5 mg of prednisolone daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman goes to the doctor complaining of pain and stiffness in her shoulders and hips for 4 months, which is worst in the mornings. She has also been suffering from fatigue, weight loss and depression. There were no abnormal findings on physical examination. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate was 110 mm/hour, and serum rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibody assays were negative. Mild normochromic normocytic anaemia was also found. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Seronegative rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) affects older adults, with an acute or subacute onset. Symptoms include severe pain and stiffness of the neck and pectoral or pelvic girdles, which is worse in the morning or after a period of inactivity and is usually bilateral. Other symptoms can include fatigue, weight loss, depression and fever. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated, and normochromic normocytic anaemia can occur. Other tests are usually normal in this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and...

    Incorrect

    • Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and sometimes extending to the soft tissues?

      Your Answer: Chondroblastoma

      Correct Answer: Benign giant-cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Benign giant-cell tumours tend to affect adults in their twenties and thirties, occur in the epiphyses and can erode the bone and extend into the soft tissues. These tumours have a strong tendency to recur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his left middle and ring fingers, which he can't extend fully. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Giant-cell tumour of the tendon sheath

      Correct Answer: Fibromatosis

      Explanation:

      This case is suggestive of Dupuytren’s contracture due to palmar fibromatosis. Its incidence is higher in men over the age of 45 years, and it increases in patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or epilepsy. These nodules are benign, usually appearing as a tender nodule in the palm which becomes painless. The disease has an aggressive clinical behaviour and recurs frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spondylolisthesis

      Correct Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus

      Explanation:

      A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man complains of pain in his left thigh. An X-ray reveals bowing of the affected femur, increased bone density, bony enlargement, abnormal bone architecture with coarse cortical trabeculations, and stress microfractures. Which is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disorder of the adult skeleton in which bone turnover is accelerated in localised areas, replacing normal matrix with softened and enlarged bone and causing gradual pain and deformity in some cases. It is more predominant in men over the age of 40. Characteristic X-ray findings include increased bone density, abnormal architecture with coarse cortical trabeculation or cortical thickening, bowing and bony enlargement; there might also be stress microfractures of the tibia or femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Aneurysmal bone cyst

      Correct Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      5.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Orthopaedics (4/10) 40%
Pathology (4/10) 40%
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