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  • Question 1 - What is the main biochemical buffer in urine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main biochemical buffer in urine?

      Your Answer: Calcium Carbonate

      Correct Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate and ammonia are the major urinary buffers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister.

      What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis.

      Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.

      Explanation:

      It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.

      While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?

      Your Answer: Ovarian

      Explanation:

      The ovarian artery takes its origin directly from the aorta. While the uterine and the vaginal arteries are all branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25 year old prim gravida carrying a twin male pregnancy presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old prim gravida carrying a twin male pregnancy presents at 31 weeks gestation. She is lethargic, clinically jaundiced and complains of abdominal pain with frequent vomiting. You suspect acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP). What is the maternal mortality rate with AFLP?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy occurs in 1-10000 pregnancies and presents as jaundice with abdominal pain. The maternal mortality is around 20%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian tumour

      Correct Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk...

    Correct

    • At a family clinic, you're seeing a young lady. She came to talk about the many contraceptive alternatives available to her. She wants to begin using combined oral contraception tablets. She is concerned, however, about the risk of cancer associated with long-term usage of pills.

      Which of the following is the most likely side effect of oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 years or more are more likely to get cervical cancer than women who have never used them. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the higher her chances of developing cervical cancer become. According to one study, using marijuana for less than 5 years increases the risk by 10%, using it for 5–9 years increases the risk by 60%, and using it for 10 years or more increases the risk by double. After women cease using oral contraceptives, their risk of cervical cancer appears to decrease over time. Endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancer risks, on the other hand, are lowered.
      Compared to women who had never used oral contraceptives, women who were taking or had just discontinued using oral combination hormone contraceptives had a slight (approximately 20%) increase in the relative risk of breast cancer. Depending on the type of oral combination hormone contraception used, the risk increased anywhere from 0% to 60%. The longer oral contraceptives were used, the higher the risk of breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for...

    Correct

    • Which of the following ultrasound findings form part of the Rotterdam criteria for diagnosis of PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) ?

      Your Answer: Increased ovarian volume >10cm3

      Explanation:

      The Rotterdam criteria for the diagnosis of PCOS is based on a score of two out of the three criteria:
      1) Oligo or anovulation
      2) Hyperandrogenism – clinical (hirsutism or less commonly male pattern alopecia) or biochemical (raised FAI or free testosterone)
      3) on ultrasound – contain 12 or more follicles measuring 2 to 9 mm in diameter and/or have an increased volume of 10 cm3 or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the half life of Ergometrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the half life of Ergometrine?

      Your Answer: 3-5 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30-120 minutes

      Explanation:

      Ergometrine has a half life of 30-120 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She...

    Correct

    • You are called to see a 24 year old patient in A&E. She is 34 weeks gestation and her blood pressure is 149/98. Urine dip shows protein 3+. You send a for a protein:creatinine ratio. What level would be diagnostic of significant proteinuria?

      Your Answer: >30 mg/mmol

      Explanation:

      Significant proteinuria = urinary protein:creatinine ratio >30 mg/mmol or 24-hour urine collection result shows greater than 300 mg protein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels elevated: Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly); Omphalocele; Gastroschisis.

      Pregnant maternal serum AFP low levels: Down syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:

      Your Answer: Dilatation and curettage

      Correct Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.

      Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the male infertility rate in CF patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the male infertility rate in CF patients?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 98%

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is the most common fetal genetic disease in Caucasians and has an autosomal recessive inheritance. It is caused by an abnormal chloride channel due to a defect in the CFTR gene. Complications range from haemoptysis, respiratory failure, biliary cirrhosis, diabetes and male infertility. Men with CF are infertile in 98% of the cases due to failure of development of the vas deference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In fetal circulation: ...

    Incorrect

    • In fetal circulation:

      Your Answer: The blood in the umbilical arteries is more oxygenated that blood in the umbilical vein

      Correct Answer: Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Circulation in the foetus: 1. Deoxygenated fetal blood is conducted to the placenta via the two umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.
      2. Gas exchange occurs in placenta.
      3. Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes through the single umbilical vein and enters the inferior vena cava (IVC).
      4. About 50% of the blood in the IVC passes through the liver and the rest bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus. The IVC also drains blood returning from the lower trunk and extremities.
      5. On reaching the heart, blood is effectively divided into two streams by the edge of the interatrial septum (crista dividens) (1) a larger stream is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale (lying between IVC and left atrium) (2) the other stream passes into right atrium where it is joined by blood from SVC which is blood returning from the myocardium and upper parts of body. This stream therefore has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
      6. Because of the large pulmonary vascular resistance and the presence of the ductus arteriosus most of the right ventricular output passes into the aorta at a point distal to the origin of the arteries to the head and upper extremities. The diameter of the ductus arteriosus is similar to the descending aorta. The patency of the ductus arteriosus is maintained by the low oxygen tension and the vasodilating effects of prostaglandin E2;
      7. Blood flowing through the foramen ovale and into left atrium passes into the left ventricle where it is ejected into the ascending aorta. This relatively oxygen rich blood passes predominantly to the head and upper extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection is associated with which of the following onco-proteins?...

    Incorrect

    • Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection is associated with which of the following onco-proteins?

      Your Answer: L3 and E5

      Correct Answer: E6 and E7

      Explanation:

      There are over 100 genotypes of HPV including several other high risk HPV types. HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. HPV is thought to induce cancer via onco-proteins. The primary onco-proteins are E6 and E7 which inactivate two tumour suppressor proteins, p53 (inactivated by E6) and pRb (inactivated by E7)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm...

    Incorrect

    • During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm ulcerated, indurated lesion on her cervix. She was otherwise asymptomatic. Most likely cause would be?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      This lady is most likely suffering from primary syphilis. Since the chancre is asymptomatic, it is often only found on deep examination of the vulvo-vaginal mucosa. The chief organism causing syphilis is Treponema Pallidum which is a spirochete and one of the most widely distributed sexually transmitted infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?

      Your Answer: Enhance the rapid division of the zygote

      Correct Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus

      Explanation:

      Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was...

    Correct

    • You see a patient who gave birth earlier in the day. She was taken off warfarin during pregnancy and is currently on LMWH. She intends to breastfeed for the first 6-8 weeks and wants advice regarding restarting warfarin. Which of the following is appropriate?

      Your Answer: Recommence warfarin in 5-7 days

      Explanation:

      The use of anticoagulants during pregnancy is a complicated issue because warfarin is teratogenic if used in the first trimester, and is linked with fetal intracranial haemorrhage in the third trimester (mainly at doses 5 mg daily). Low molecular weight heparin may be insufficient at preventing thrombosis in women with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, where the risk of valve thrombus is 10 per cent. Anticoagulation is essential in patients with congenital heart disease who have pulmonary hypertension, or artificial valve replacements, and in those in or at risk of atrial fibrillation. The options are either to continue warfarin for the pregnancy, or replace it with heparin between 6 and 12 weeks gestation to avoid the teratogenic risk. Warfarin should be started a week after delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 25 in 10,000

      Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Cone biopsy with endocervical curettage

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - During pregnancy which one of the following laboratory parameters is decreased? ...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy which one of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?

      Your Answer: ESR

      Correct Answer: Platelet count

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, although it is a hypercoagulable state with an increase in clotting factors, the platelet count is decreased. Fibrinogen and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) may be both increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to A&E with lower abdominal and unilateral flank pain. From the following list what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ureteric Obstruction

      Explanation:

      In stage III cervical cancer there is involvement of the pelvic wall and ureter which may result in abdominal pain and hydronephrosis.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma

      Stage
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?

      Your Answer: 1 day

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In the absence of any gross pelvic abnormality, cephalopelvic disproportion can be correctly...

    Incorrect

    • In the absence of any gross pelvic abnormality, cephalopelvic disproportion can be correctly diagnosed by?

      Your Answer: X-ray pelvimetry

      Correct Answer: Trial of labour

      Explanation:

      Cephalo-pelvic disproportion exists when the capacity of the pelvis is inadequate to allow the foetus to negotiate the birth canal. This may be due to a small pelvis, a nongynecoid pelvic formation, a large foetus, an unfavourable orientation of the foetus, or a combination of these factors. Diagnosis of CPD may be made when there is failure to progress, but not all cases of prolonged labour are the result of CPD. Use of ultrasound to measure the size of the foetus in the womb is controversial, as these methods are often inaccurate and may lead to unnecessary caesarean section; a trial of labour is often recommended even if size of the foetus is estimated to be large.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old women comes to see you and advises she has felt a little unwell with diarrhoea and flu like symptoms. She is 28 weeks pregnant. Upon questioning she discloses she ate a soft cheese and deli meats platter 5 days earlier. A blood culture confirms listeria infection. What is the appropriate treatment (she has no known drug allergies)?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of listeria depends on clinical suspicion and isolation of the organism from blood, vaginal swabs or the placenta. Meconium staining of the amniotic fluid in a preterm foetus may increase clinical suspicion for listeriosis. For women with listeriosis during pregnancy, intravenous antibiotic treatment (ampicillin 2 g given every 6 hours) is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen...

    Incorrect

    • A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen when a warning sign occurs.

      Which of the following is considered the single most important warning sign for the said situation?

      Your Answer: Tachypnoea

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a cumulative blood loss greater than 1000 mL with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of the birth process, regardless of the route of delivery.

      The first step in managing hemorrhagic shock is recognition. This should occur before the development of hypotension. Close attention should be paid to physiological responses to low blood volume. Tachycardia, tachypnoea, and narrowing pulse pressure may be the initial signs.

      Tachycardia is typically the first abnormal vital sign of hemorrhagic shock. As the body attempts to preserve oxygen delivery to the brain and heart, blood is shunted away from extremities and nonvital organs. This causes cold and modelled extremities with delayed capillary refill. This shunting ultimately leads to worsening acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 26 year old women presents for her 12 week scan. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old women presents for her 12 week scan. She has been pregnant once before but had a 1st trimester miscarriage. She reports no problems with this pregnancy and has had no vaginal bleeding or spotting. The scan shows no fetal cardiac activity and a small gestational sac. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Recurrent Miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Missed Miscarriage

      Explanation:

      As there has been no bleeding or expulsion of the products of conception this is a missed miscarriage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - In patients with endometriosis what is the infertility rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • In patients with endometriosis what is the infertility rate?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Around 30-40% of women affected by this condition complain of difficulty in conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 29 year old obese woman presents complaining of difficult or painful sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old obese woman presents complaining of difficult or painful sexual intercourse and dysmenorrhea. She is requesting a reversible contraceptive method. Which of the following would be most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirena

      Explanation:

      Mirena is a form of contraception also indicated for the treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding and the management of dysmenorrhea, being able to reduce the latter considerably.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (6/6) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Clinical Management (8/9) 89%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (2/2) 100%
Microbiology (4/4) 100%
Obstetrics (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed