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  • Question 1 - Regarding flow through a tube, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding flow through a tube, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Poiseuille's law states that flow is dependent on the pressure difference across the ends of a tube and the resistance provided by the tube.

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia will decrease the rate of blood flow through a vessel.

      Explanation:

      Darcy’s law states that flow through a tube is dependent on the pressure differences across the ends of the tube (P1 – P2) and the resistance to flow provided by the tube (R). Resistance is due to frictional forces and is determined by the length of the tube (L), the radius of the tube (r) and the viscosity of the fluid flowing down that tube (V). The radius of the tube has the largest effect on resistance and therefore flow – this explains why smaller gauge cannulas with larger diameters have a faster rate of flow. Increased viscosity, as seen in polycythemia, will slow the rate of blood flow through a vessel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      51.8
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Osteoclasts are a type of bone cell that are critical in the maintenance,...

    Incorrect

    • Osteoclasts are a type of bone cell that are critical in the maintenance, repair and remodelling of bones.
      Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

      Correct Answer: Calcitonin

      Explanation:

      Osteoclasts are a type of bone cell that breaks down bone tissue. This is a critical function in the maintenance, repair and remodelling of bones. The osteoclast disassembles and digests the composite of hydrated protein and minerals at a molecular level by secreting acid and collagenase. This process is known as bone resorption and also helps to regulate the plasma calcium concentration.
      Osteoclastic activity is controlled by a number of hormones:
      1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases osteoclastic activity
      Parathyroid hormone increases osteoclastic activity
      Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic activity
      Bisphosphonates are a class of drug that slow down and prevent bone damage. They are osteoclast inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      291.3
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 10-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and stomach pain. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and stomach pain. She has a history of type I diabetes mellitus. On blood gas analysis, she has metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is diagnosed, and therapy is initiated. She becomes increasingly confused when intravenous fluids and insulin are administered.

      Which electrolyte imbalance is the MOST likely reason of the increased confusion

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Because of the shift of water from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment as a result of hyperglycaemia and increased plasma osmolality, dilutional hyponatraemia is common in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).

      If intravenous fluids are not delivered with caution, hyponatraemia might worsen, which can lead to increased degrees of disorientation. Hyponatraemia has also been linked to an increased risk of cerebral oedema, especially if blood glucose levels drop too quickly following treatment.

      Headache, recurrence of vomiting, irritability, Glasgow Coma Scale score, inappropriate heart rate slowing, and rising blood pressure are the most common causes of death in paediatric DKA, and children should be monitored for the symptoms mentioned above. To prevent this from developing,  s low osmolarity normalization, attention to glucose and salt levels, as well as hydration over 48 hours, is necessary. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      296.3
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesis is predominantly stimulated by which of the following cytokines:...

    Correct

    • C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesis is predominantly stimulated by which of the following cytokines:

      Your Answer: IL-6

      Explanation:

      Activated leukocytes, adipocytes, and endothelial cells all release interleukin 6 (IL-6), a significant proinflammatory cytokine. The main downstream mediator of the acute phase response is C-reactive protein, which is predominantly produced by IL-6–dependent hepatic biosynthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammatory Responses
      • Pathology
      87.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old type I diabetic patient presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. Measurement of her blood glucose level is done and found to be grossly elevated. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. A fixed rate insulin infusion is given as part of her treatment.

      Which of these is an action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis

      Correct Answer: Stimulates lipogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is an anabolic hormone. Its actions can be broadly divided into:
      Lipid metabolism
      Protein metabolism and
      Carbohydrate metabolism

      For lipid metabolism, insulin:
      Stimulates lipogenesis
      Inhibits lipolysis by lipase

      For carbohydrate metabolism, insulin:
      Decreases gluconeogenesis
      Stimulates glycolysis
      Promotes glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissue
      Promotes glycogen storage
      Increases glycogenesis
      Decreases glycogenolysis

      Protein metabolism:
      Stimulates protein synthesis
      Accelerates net formation of protein
      Stimulates amino acid uptake
      Inhibits protein degradation
      Inhibits amino acid conversion to glucose

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      582.2
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary...

    Incorrect

    • An analytical cohort study aimed to determine a relationship between intake of dietary calcium and incidence of hip fractures among post-menopausal women. The following are the data obtained from the study:

      No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium: 500
      No. of post-menopausal women who took Calcium and suffered a hip fracture: 10

      No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo: 500
      No. of post-menopausal women who took placebo and suffered a hip fracture: 25

      Compute for the absolute risk reduction of a hip fracture.

      Your Answer: 0.4

      Correct Answer: 0.03

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) is computed as the difference between the absolute risk in the control group (ARC) and the absolute risk in the treatment group (ART).

      ARR = ARC-ART
      ARR = (25/500) – (10/500)
      ARR = 0.03

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      61.4
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old African American male presents to your clinic complaining of swelling of his feet for the past six months. On examination, there is periorbital and pedal oedema. A 24-hour urine collection is ordered, which shows 8 g of protein. The serum cholesterol is ten mmol/L. You order a renal biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.

      Which one of the following findings are you most likely to see in this patient's biopsy?

      Your Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      This patient has Nephrotic Syndrome confirmed by the presence of 1. Heavy proteinuria (greater than 3-3.5 g/24 hours)
      2. Hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin < 25 g/L)
      3. Generalised oedema (often with periorbital involvement)
      4. Severe hyperlipidaemia (total cholesterol is often > 10 mmol/L).

      Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis will be the most likely answer as it is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in African American adults.

      Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Caucasian adults.

      In IgA nephropathy, patients will complain of cola-coloured urine.

      Mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis presents with features of Nephritic Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      256
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate:

      Your Answer: There is no correlation between the two variables

      Correct Answer: The two variables are inversely related

      Explanation:

      A negative correlation coefficient means that the two variables are inversely related e.g. socio-economic class and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      87.3
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of the benefits of wound healing through first intention is:

      Your Answer: Increased production of granulation tissue

      Correct Answer: Minimisation of scar tissue formation

      Explanation:

      Primary wound healing, or healing by first intention, occurs within hours of repairing a full-thickness surgical incision. This surgical insult results in the mortality of a minimal number of cellular constituents. Healing by first intention can occur when the wound edges are opposed, the wound is clean and uninfected and there is minimal loss of cells and tissue i.e. surgical incision wound. The wound margins are joined by fibrin deposition, which is subsequently replaced by collagen and covered by epidermal growth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Wound Healing
      44.8
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - How is filtered K+mainly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop...

    Incorrect

    • How is filtered K+mainly reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle:

      Your Answer: Primary active transport via Na + /K + ATPase

      Correct Answer: Secondary active transport via Na + /K + /2Cl - cotransporter

      Explanation:

      Around 30% of filtered K+is reabsorbed in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, primarily via the luminal Na+/K+/2Cl-cotransporter, but there is also significant paracellular reabsorption, encouraged by the positive potential in the tubular lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      45.7
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the nephrology clinic by her mother due to facial oedema. Her lab workup shows proteinuria of 7 g/24 hours and serum albumin levels of 15 g/L. A diagnosis of Nephrotic Syndrome is made, and corticosteroid therapy is initiated.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in this patient?

      Your Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in the paediatric population. It may be caused by NSAID use. Electron microscopy shows the fusion of foot processes while light microscopy will appear normal.

      Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis causes Nephrotic Syndrome in adults. It is associated with Heroin use and HIV infection. There is a limited response to steroids, and the disease progresses to end-stage renal failure in 5-10 years.

      Diabetic nephropathy occurs after a long period of diabetes due to the deposition of amyloid protein leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration.

      There is no history of Hepatitis B in this patient and no symptoms of liver disease such as jaundice.

      Membranous glomerulonephritis would present with features of Nephritic Syndrome. These would be oedema, haematuria; red blood cell casts in the urine and hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      94.1
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding saliva, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the parotid gland.

      Correct Answer: Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system.

      Explanation:

      At rest, saliva is predominantly produced by the submandibular gland (65%) but when stimulated, the parotid glands produce a higher proportion of the total saliva production (50%) than at rest. Saliva is alkaline and hypotonic to plasma. The predominant digestive enzymes in saliva are alpha-amylase and lingual lipase; lingual lipase is not functionally very important, but alpha-amylase is important for the initiation of starch digestion. Saliva production is decreased by inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system e.g. by sleep, dehydration, anticholinergic drugs and fear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      124.9
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily implicated in which of the following conditions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cryptococcus neoformans is primarily implicated in which of the following conditions:

      Your Answer: Catheter associated UTI

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcus neoformans typically causes a chronic lymphocytic meningitis in immunosuppressed patients or those with intense exposure e.g. pigeon fanciers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      74
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine....

    Incorrect

    • Many of the chemical digestion and absorption takes place in the small intestine. Most digestive enzymes in the small intestine are secreted by the pancreas and enter the small intestine through the pancreatic duct.

      Which of these digestive enzymes is responsible for breaking down lipids into fatty acid and glycerol?

      Your Answer: Carboxypeptidase

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic lipase

      Explanation:

      The principal enzyme involved in lipid digestion is pancreatic lipase. It breaks down triglycerides into free fatty acids and monoglycerides. Pancreatic lipase works with the help of emulsifying agents secreted by the liver and the gallbladder. The main emulsifying agents are the bile acids, cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid. These are conjugated with the amino acids glycine and taurine to form bile salts. Bile salts are more soluble than bile acids and act as detergents to emulsify lipids. The free fatty acids and monoglycerides form tiny particles with these bile salts called micelles. The outer region of the micelle is water-attracting (hydrophilic), whereas the inner core is water-repelling (hydrophobic). This arrangement allows the micelles to enter the aqueous layers surrounding the microvilli and free fatty acids and monoglycerides to diffuse passively into the small intestinal cells.

      Pancreatic amylase breaks down some carbohydrates (notably starch) into oligosaccharides.

      Chymotrypsin is a proteolytic enzyme that aids in digestion of protein

      Carboxypeptidase hydrolyses the first peptide or amide bond at the carboxyl or C-terminal end of proteins and peptides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      156.5
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the...

    Incorrect

    • Gallstones are commonly found lodged in which of the following parts of the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Fundus

      Correct Answer: Neck

      Explanation:

      There is a significant association between the presence of Hartmann’s pouch and gallbladder stones. It is the most common location for gallstones to become lodged and cause cholestasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      42.3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition.

      Which of these drugs should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolide antibiotics (e.g. clarithromycin and erythromycin) are cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitors. They increase blood levels of theophylline leading to hypokalaemia, and potentially increasing the risk of Torsades de pointes when they are prescribed together.

      Co-prescription with theophylline should be avoided.

      Factors that enhance theophylline clearance include cigarette smoking, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, and rifampin.
      Medications that inhibit clearance include ethanol, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, verapamil, propranolol, ticlopidine, tacrine, allopurinol, and cimetidine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      101.5
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions require IV Lidocaine administration?

      Your Answer: Refractory asystole in cardiac arrest

      Correct Answer: Refractory ventricular fibrillation in cardiac arrest

      Explanation:

      IV Lidocaine is indicated in Ventricular Arrhythmias or Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (after defibrillation, attempted CPR, and vasopressor administration)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      44.2
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following ions is more abundant in extracellular fluid than in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following ions is more abundant in extracellular fluid than in intracellular fluid:

      Your Answer: Cl -

      Explanation:

      Protein and phosphate are the primary intracellular anions, while chloride (Cl-) and bicarbonate are the predominant extracellular anions (HCO3-).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      6.8
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - A 64-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout. He has a history of chronic heart failure and hypertension. His current medications include ramipril and furosemide.
      Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of gout is true? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: NSAIDs are the treatment of choice for patients with a history of heart failure

      Correct Answer: Colchicine has a role in prophylactic treatment

      Explanation:

      In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.
      Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.
      Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.
      Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.
      NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      52.1
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Mebendazole is the first line treatment for tapeworm infection.

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in the stool.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of tapeworm is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in stool. Humans may be infected by pork or beef tapeworm. Treatment is with praziquantel or niclosamide. Specialist advice should be sought for the management of neurocysticercosis.Iron-deficiency anaemia is typically seen in hookworm infection. Threadworms migrate from the intestine at night to lay eggs on the perianal skin. Mebendazole is first line treatment for threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      31.3
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia

      Correct Answer: Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is seen in damage to the frontal eye field of the frontal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is typically a result of damage to the occipital lobe (or of the optic radiation passing through the parietal and temporal lobes). Auditory agnosia may been seen in a lesion of the temporal lobe. Hemispatial neglect may be seen in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Receptive dysphasia is seen in damage to Wernicke’s area, in the temporal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      30.1
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently...

    Correct

    • A medical student is reviewing the chart of a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukaemia. The chief resident asks him to identify ONE feature that will most support acute leukaemia diagnosis in contrast to chronic leukaemia.

      Which one of the following options will he pick?

      Your Answer: The patient is a child

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is more common in children than chronic leukaemias, which generally occur in adults. Bone marrow failure occurs early on in the course of the disease in acute leukaemias, and there is the massive proliferation of undifferentiated cells with functioning cells being crowded out. Hepatosplenomegaly occurs in both acute and chronic forms of leukaemia and is not a differentiating feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      53.5
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 18 year old student presents to ED with a headache, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 18 year old student presents to ED with a headache, fever and photophobia. You suspect meningitis and agree to observe your junior performing a lumbar puncture. What is the highest safest vertebral level to perform lumbar puncture in adults:

      Your Answer: L2/L3

      Correct Answer: L3/L4

      Explanation:

      In adults, the spinal cord typically ends between L1/L2 whereas the subarachnoid space extends to approximately the lower border of vertebra S2. Lumbar puncture is performed in the intervertebral space L4/L5 or L3/L4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      12.2
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy is carried by his friends to the Emergency Department in an unconscious state. He is quickly moved into the resuscitation room.

      He was at a party with friends and has injected heroin. On examination, his GCS is 6/15, and he has bilateral pinpoint pupils and a very low respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone 0.2 mg IM

      Correct Answer: Naloxone 0.8 mg IV

      Explanation:

      Heroin is injected into the veins and is the most commonly abused drug. Acute intoxication with opioid overuse is the most common cause of death by drug overdose.

      The clinical features of opioid overdose are:
      1. Decreased respiratory rate
      2. Reduced conscious level or coma
      3. Decreased bowel sounds
      4. Miotic (constricted) pupils
      5. Cyanosis
      6. Hypotension
      7. Seizures
      8. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema (with IV heroin usage)

      The main cause of death secondary to opioid overdose is respiratory depression, which usually occurs within 1 hour of the overdose. Vomiting is also common, and aspiration can occur.

      Naloxone is a short-acting, specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors. It is used to reverse the effects of opioid toxicity.

      It can be given by a continuous infusion if repeated doses are required and the infusion rate is adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.

      Naloxone has a shorter duration of action (6-24 hours) than most opioids, and so close monitoring according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma with repeated injections is necessary. When repeated doses are needed in opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.

      An initial dose of 0.4 to 2 mg can be given intravenously and can be repeated at 2 to 3-minute intervals to a maximum of 10mg.

      If the intravenous route is inaccessible, naloxone can be administered via an IO line, subcutaneously (SQ), IM, or via the intranasal (IN) route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      15.1
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following problems is associated with Helicobacter pylori infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric malignancy

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori is a ubiquitous organism that is present in about 50% of the global population. Chronic infection with H pylori causes atrophic and even metaplastic changes in the stomach, and it has a known association with peptic ulcer disease. The most common route of H pylori infection is either oral-to-oral or faecal-to-oral contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A 30 year old man stabbed in the upper arm presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man stabbed in the upper arm presents to the Emergency Department and you perform a vascular examination.

      The brachial pulse can be best palpated at ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the antecubital fossa, medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery can be palpated in the antecubital fossa, medial to the tendon of the biceps brachii muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ALL is the most common malignancy of childhood.

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage. Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. The total white cell count may be decreased, normal or increased. The blood film typically shows a variable number of blast cells. The bone marrow is hypercellular with >20% blast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 71-year-old patient has been diagnosed with a dopamine-secreting neuroendocrine tumour.

    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old patient has been diagnosed with a dopamine-secreting neuroendocrine tumour.

      Which of the following statements about dopamine is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It inhibits prolactin release from the anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      Dopamine is a neurotransmitter and amine hormone that is derived from the amino acid tyrosine. It is made in a number of places throughout the human body, both inside and outside the central nervous system. The adrenal medulla, dopamine neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus, the substantia nigra, and other areas of the brain produce dopamine.

      The tuberoinfundibular pathway refers to the dopamine neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus’ tubeal region. Dopamine is discharged into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system from these neurons’ neurosecretory terminals at the median eminence.

      The major function of dopamine produced from the hypothalamus is to suppress prolactin production from the anterior pituitary, and it is released in reaction to excessive levels of prolactin secretion. Modulation of motor-control centres and activation of reward centres are two more crucial activities of the brain.
      Dopamine-secreting cells can also be found in other areas of the body, where they perform mostly paracrine functions (acting on nearby cells).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT one of insulin's actions:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin has a number of effects on glucose metabolism, including:
      Inhibition of glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
      Increased glucose transport into fat and muscle
      Increased glycolysis in fat and muscle
      Stimulation of glycogen synthesis
      By inhibiting gluconeogenesis, insulin maintains the availability of amino acids as substrates for protein synthesis. Thus, insulin supports protein synthesis through direct and indirect mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - You've been asked to visit a 20-year-old patient  who has been complaining of stomach pain,...

    Incorrect

    • You've been asked to visit a 20-year-old patient  who has been complaining of stomach pain, diarrhoea, and bloating. The  GP recently saw the patient and is now looking into numerous possible reasons for stomach hypermotility.

      Which of the following factors contributes to increased stomach motility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is a peptide hormone that aids in gastric motility by stimulating the generation of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach. G-cells in the stomach’s pyloric antrum, the duodenum, and the pancreas release it.

      The following stimuli cause the release of gastrin:

      Stimulation of the vagus nerve
      Hypercalcaemia
      stomach bloating
      Proteins that have been partially digested, particularly amino acids.
      The presence of acid and somatostatin inhibits the release of gastrin.
      Gastrin’s main actions are as follows:
      Gastric parietal cells are stimulated to release hydrochloric acid.
      ECL cells are stimulated to produce histamine.
      Gastric parietal cell maturation and fundal growth stimulation
      Causes the secretion of pepsinogen by the gastric chief cells.
      Improves antral muscle mobility
      stimulates gastric contractions
      Increases gastric emptying rate and stimulates pancreatic secretion
      Gallbladder emptying is induced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Basic Cellular (1/2) 50%
Physiology (1/7) 14%
Endocrine Physiology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology (0/5) 0%
Inflammatory Responses (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/5) 60%
Evidence Based Medicine (0/2) 0%
General Pathology (1/2) 50%
Statistics (0/1) 0%
Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/2) 0%
Pathogens (0/2) 0%
Gastrointestinal Physiology (0/1) 0%
Abdomen And Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/3) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Central Nervous System (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Head And Neck (0/1) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Passmed
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