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Question 1
Incorrect
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With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?
Your Answer: Interphase
Correct Answer: Anaphase
Explanation:Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:- The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other. – The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane. – The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes. – The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which ONE statement about homeostasis is true?
Your Answer: The principle mechanism by which homeostasis occurs is via positive feedback
Correct Answer: Negative feedback occurs via receptors, comparators and effectors
Explanation:Homeostasis is the property of a system in which variables are regulated so that internal conditions remain relatively constant and stable. Homeostasis is achieved by a negative feedback mechanism. Negative feedback occurs based upon a set point through receptors, comparators and effectors. The ‘set point’ is a NARROW range of values within which normal function occurs. The two body systems that regulate homeostasis are the Nervous system and the Endocrine system. The smooth muscle of the uterus becomes more active towards the end of pregnancy. This is a POSITIVE feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the function of secondary messengers?
Your Answer: Communication between adjacent cells
Correct Answer: Communication from extracellular to intracellular signalling pathways
Explanation:First messengers may not physically cross the phospholipid bilayer to initiate changes within the cell directly. This functional limitation necessitates the cell to devise signal transduction mechanisms to transduce first messenger into second messengers, so that the extracellular signal may be propagated intracellularly. Second messengers are intracellular signalling molecules released by the cell to trigger physiological changes such as proliferation, differentiation, migration, survival, and apoptosis. Secondary messengers are therefore one of the initiating components of intracellular signal transduction cascades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students about skeletal muscle physiology and its use in clinical medicine. They pose a series of difficult questions to you. Which of the following definitions for the A-band of the sarcomere is correct?
Your Answer: The segment between two neighbouring Z-lines
Correct Answer: A band that contains the entire length of a single thick filament (myosin)
Explanation:Myofibrils, which are around 1 m in diameter, make up each myofiber. The cytoplasm separates them and arranges them in a parallel pattern along the cell’s long axis. These myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin filaments that are repeated in sarcomeres, which are the myofiber’s basic functional units. Myofilaments are the filaments that make up myofibrils, and they’re made mostly of proteins. Myofilaments are divided into three categories: Myosin filaments are thick filaments made up mostly of the protein myosin. Actin filaments are thin filaments made up mostly of the protein actin. Elastic filaments are mostly made up of the protein titin. The sarcomere is a Z-line segment that connects two adjacent Z-lines. The I-bands are thin filament zones that run from either side of the Z-lines to the thick filament’s beginning. Between the I-bands is the A-band, which spans the length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is a zone of thick filaments that is not overlaid by thin filaments in the sarcomere’s centre. The H-zone keeps the myosin filaments in place by surrounding them with six actin filaments each. The M-band (or M-line) is a disc of cross-connecting cytoskeleton elements in the centre of the H-zone. The thick filament is primarily made up of myosin. The thin filament is primarily made up of actin. Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin are found in a 7:1:1 ratio in thin filaments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A patient presents with a history of excessive thirst, urination and high fluid intake. His blood sugar is normal. You estimate his osmolarity as part of his work-up. Which of these equations can be used to estimate osmolarity?
Your Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose
Correct Answer: 2 (Na + ) + 2 (K + ) + Glucose + Urea
Explanation:Osmolality and osmolarity are measurements of the solute concentration of a solution. Although the two terms are often used interchangeably, there are differences in the definitions, how they are calculated and the units of measurement used. Osmolarity, expressed as mmol/L, is an estimation of the osmolar concentration of plasma. It is proportional to the number of particles per litre of solution. Measured Na+, K+, urea and glucose concentrations are used to calculate the value indirectly. It is unreliable in pseudohyponatremia and hyperproteinaemia. The equations used to calculate osmolarity are: Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + 2 (K+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) OR Osmolarity = 2 (Na+) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) Doubling of sodium accounts for the negative ions associated with sodium, and the exclusion of potassium approximately allows for the incomplete dissociation of sodium chloride.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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With regards to the Na+/K+ ATPase, which one of the following is correct?
Your Answer: 2 Na+ released into the extracellular fluid
Correct Answer: 3 Na+ released into the extracellular fluid
Explanation:Na+/K+ pump or sodium–potassium pump is an enzyme found in the plasma membrane. This pumping is active (i.e. it uses energy from ATP) and is important for cell physiology. Its simple function is to pump 3 sodium ions out for every 2 potassium ions taken in and since they both have equal ionic charges, this creates a electrochemical gradient between a cell and its exterior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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With regards to the cell cycle, which phase represents period of cell growth that divides the end of DNA synthesis and the beginning of somatic cell division?
Your Answer: M Stage
Correct Answer: Gap 2
Explanation:Interphase is divided into three phases: G1 (first gap), S (synthesis), and G2 (second gap). During all three parts of interphase, the cell grows by producing proteins and cytoplasmic organelles. However, chromosomes are replicated only during the S phase. Thus, a cell grows (G1), continues to grow as it duplicates its chromosomes (S), grows more and prepares for mitosis (G2), and finally divides (M) before restarting the cycle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Mitosis is the process of cell division which culminates in cell chromosomes which are:
Your Answer: Diploid
Explanation:Mitosis is a part of the cell cycle when replicated chromosomes are separated into two new diploid nuclei.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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The free radical most abundantly formed by the immune system is:
Your Answer: Hydroxyl radical
Explanation:Neutrophil and macrophage phagocytosis stimulates various cellular processes including the respiratory burst whereby increased cellular oxygen uptake results in the production of the potent oxidant bactericidal agents, hypochlorous acid and hydroxyl radical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The processing of NH3 to urea occurs in:
Your Answer: Cytoplasm alone
Correct Answer: Mitochondria and cytoplasm
Explanation:The urea cycle (also known as the ornithine cycle) is a cycle of biochemical reactions that produces urea ((NH2)2CO) from ammonia (NH3). The urea cycle consists of four enzymatic reactions: one mitochondrial and three cytosolic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance?
Your Answer: Antioxidants
Explanation:Unlike superoxide, which can be detoxified by superoxide dismutase, the hydroxyl radical cannot be eliminated by an enzymatic reaction but it is believed can be counteracted by antioxidants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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How does an action potential in the motor end plate rapidly spread to the central portions of the muscle cells?
Your Answer: Pores in the plasma membrane
Correct Answer: Transverse tubules
Explanation:When the concentration of intracellular Ca2+rises, muscle contraction occurs. The pathway of an action potential is down tube-shaped invaginations of the sarcolemma called T-tubules (transverse tubules). These penetrate throughout the muscle fibre and lie adjacent to the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The voltage changes in the T-tubules result in the opening of sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+channels and there is there is release of stored Ca2+into the sarcoplasm. Thus muscle contraction occurs via excitation-contraction coupling (ECC) mechanism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which intercellular connections are responsible for fastening the cells to one another?
Your Answer: Hemidesmosomes, focal adhesions & gap junctions
Correct Answer: Hemidesmosomes, zonula adherens & desmosomes
Explanation:There are three major types of cell junction:Adherens junctions, desmosomes and hemidesmosomes (anchoring junctions),Gap junctions (communicating junction) &Tight junctions (occluding junctions)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: G0
Correct Answer: Interphase
Explanation:DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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On review of a patient's serum and urine osmolality test result, you note that both osmolarities are decreased. There urine osmolality does not increase with fluid ingestion. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:As part of the investigation of hyponatraemia, serum osmolality is commonly requested in combination with urine osmolality to aid diagnosis. When: Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is decreased with no intake of fluid, the causes are Hyponatraemia Overhydration Adrenocortical insufficiency Sodium loss (diuretic or a low-salt diet) Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is increased the causes include: Dehydration Hyperkalaemia Hyperglycaemia Hyponatremia Mannitol therapy Diabetes mellitus Alcohol ingestion Congestive heart failure Renal disease and uraemia Serum osmolality is normal or increased and urine osmolality is decreased the usual cause is diabetes insipidus Serum osmolality is decreased and urine osmolality is increased the usual cause is syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which is true of the citric acid cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated
Explanation:The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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The function of the Golgi apparatus is
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maturation of peptides secreted by the rER into functional proteins by glycosylation
Explanation:Steroidogenesis is a multi-step process that occurs in two organelles, the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and the mitochondrion. The Golgi apparatus is a major collection and dispatch station of protein products received from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). Proteins synthesized in the ER are packaged into vesicles, which then fuse with the Golgi apparatus. The majority of proteins synthesized in the rough ER undergo glycosylation which occurs in the Golgi apparatus. Glycosylation mainly refers in particular to the enzymatic process that attaches glycans to proteins, lipids, or other organic molecules. These cargo proteins are modified and destined for secretion via exocytosis or for use in the cell. The Golgi apparatus is also involved in lipid transport and lysosome formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following pathology terms refers to programmed cell death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apoptosis
Explanation:Apoptosis is described as programmed cell death. The cell release certain proapoptotic mediators that regulate this cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle are alike, but there are a few key variations. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of skeletal muscle but is a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The presence of intercalated discs
Explanation:Cardiac muscle is striated, and the sarcomere is the contractile unit, similar to skeletal muscle. Contracture is mediated by the interaction of calcium, troponins, and myofilaments, much as it occurs in skeletal muscle. Cardiac muscle, on the other hand, differs from skeletal muscle in a number of ways. In contrast to skeletal muscle cells, cardiac myocytes have a nucleus in the middle of the cell and sometimes two nuclei. The cells are striated because the thick and thin filaments are arranged in an orderly fashion, although the arrangement is less well-organized than in skeletal muscle. Intercalated discs, which work similarly to the Z band in skeletal muscle in defining where one cardiac muscle cell joins the next, are a very significant component of cardiac muscle. Adherens junctions and desmosomes, which are specialized structures that hold the cardiac myocytes together, are formed by the transverse sections. The lateral sections produce gap junctions, which join the cytoplasm of two cells directly, allowing for rapid action potential conduction. These critical properties allow the heart to contract in a coordinated manner, allowing for more efficient blood pumping. Cardiac myocytes have the ability to create their own action potentials, which is referred to as myogenic’. They can depolarize spontaneously to initiate a cardiac action potential. Pacemaker cells, as well as the sino-atrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes, control this. The Purkinje cells and the cells of the bundle of His are likewise capable of spontaneous depolarization. While the bundle of His is made up of specialized myocytes, it’s vital to remember that Purkinje cells are not myocytes and have distinct characteristics. They are larger than myocytes, with fewer filaments and more gap junctions than myocytes. They conduct action potentials more quickly, allowing the ventricles to contract synchronously. Cardiac myocytes contract by excitation-contraction coupling, just like skeletal myocytes. Heart myocytes, on the other hand, utilise a calcium-induced calcium release mechanism that is unique to cardiac muscle (CICR). The influx of calcium ions (Ca2+) into the cell causes a ‘calcium spark,’ which causes more ions to be released into the cytoplasm. An influx of sodium ions induces an initial depolarisation, much as it does in skeletal muscle; however, in cardiac muscle, the inflow of Ca2+ sustains the depolarisation, allowing it to remain longer. Due to potassium ion (K+) inflow, CICR causes a plateau phase in which the cells remain depolarized for a short time before repolarizing. Skeletal muscle, on the other hand, repolarizes almost instantly. Comparison of skeletal and cardiac muscle: Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle Striation Striated but arrangement less organised Multiple nuclei located peripherally Usually single nucleus (but can be two), located centrally Discs None Intercalated discs No Gap junctions Gap junctions No Pacemaker Pacemaker Electrical stimulation: Nervous system (excitation) Pacemaker (excitation)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the function of the pro-apoptotic Bcl-2 family of proteins, Bax and Bak?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Form permissive pores in the mitochondrial membrane
Explanation:The pro-apoptotic proteins in the BCL-2 family, including Bax and Bak, normally act on the mitochondrial membrane to promote permeabilization and release of cytochrome C and ROS, that are important signals in the apoptosis cascade. Growing evidence suggests that activated BAX and/or Bak form an oligomeric pore, MAC in the mitochondrial outer membrane. This results in the release of cytochrome c and other pro-apoptotic factors from the mitochondria, often referred to as mitochondrial outer membrane permeabilization, leading to activation of caspases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old athlete drinks a 500 ml hypertonic sports drink before an endurance event he participates in. Which of the following effects will this cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated
Explanation:Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a region of low solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration. When hypertonic fluid is ingested: The plasma becomes CONCENTRATED. The cells lose water and shrink The intracellular fluid becomes more concentrated. Water and ions move freely from the plasma into the interstitial fluid and the interstitial fluid becomes more concentrated. The increased osmotic potential draws water out of the cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following prolongs Prothrombin time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor V deficiency
Explanation:Prothrombin time is increased in:- Factor V deficiency- Vitamin K deficiency (which affects factors 2,7 and 10)- Warfarin therapy- Severe liver failureProtein C is an anticoagulant and deficiency results in a hyper-coagulable state with tendency towards thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding homeostasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In negative feedback mechanisms, effectors always act to move the variable in the opposite direction to the change that was originally detected.
Explanation:The vast majority of systems within the body work by negative feedback mechanisms. This negative feedback refers to the way that effectors act to move the variable in the opposite direction to the change that was originally detected. Because there is an inherent time delay between detecting a change in a variable and effecting a response, the negative feedback mechanisms cause oscillations in the variable they control. There is a narrow range of values within which a normal physiological function occurs and this is called the ‘set point’. The release of oxytocin in childbirth is an example of positive feedback.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA
Explanation:P53 has many mechanisms of anticancer function and plays a role in apoptosis, genomic stability, and inhibition of angiogenesis. In its anti-cancer role, p53 works through several mechanisms:It can activate DNA repair proteins when DNA has sustained damage. Thus, it may be an important factor in aging.It can arrest growth by holding the cell cycle at the G1/S regulation point on DNA damage recognitionIt can initiate apoptosis (i.e., programmed cell death) if DNA damage proves to be irreparable.It is essential for the senescence response to short telomeres.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces to the tube's sidewalls. This creates a velocity gradient in which the fluid flow is greatest in the tube's centre. Which of the following terms most accurately characterizes this flow pattern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laminar flow
Explanation:The fluid in contact with a tube is dragged by frictional forces at the tube’s sidewalls. This creates a velocity gradient in which the fluid flow is greatest in the tube’s centre. This is known as laminar flow, and it characterizes the flow in most circulatory and respiratory systems when they are at rest. The velocity of the fluid flow can fluctuate erratically at high velocities, particularly within big arteries and airways, disrupting laminar flow. As a result, resistance increases significantly. This is known as turbulent flow, and symptoms include heart murmurs and asthmatic wheeze.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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With regard to cell membrane proteins:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carriers are involved in facilitated diffusion
Explanation:Pumps use a source of free energy such as ATP to transport ions against a gradient and is an example of active transport. Unlike channel proteins which only transport substances through membranes passively, carrier proteins can transport ions and molecules either passively through facilitated diffusion, or via secondary active transport. Channels are either in open state or closed state. When a channel is opened, it is open to both extracellular and intracellular. Pores are continuously open to both environments, because they do not undergo conformational changes. They are always open and active.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is not true regarding ion channels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ion channels provide a charged, hydrophobic pore through which ions can diffuse across the lipid bilayer.
Explanation:Ion channels are pore-forming protein complexes that facilitate the flow of ions across the hydrophobic core of cell membranes. They are present in the plasma membrane and membranes of intracellular organelles of all cells, and perform essential physiological functions. They provide a charged, hydrophilic pore through which ions can move across the lipid bilayer. They are selective for particular ions and their pores may be opened or closed. Because of this ability to open and close, ion channels allow the cell to have the ability to closely control the movement of ions across the membrane. Gating refers to the transition between an open and closed ion channel state, and is brought about by a conformationational change in the protein subunits that open or close the ion-permeable pore. Ion channels can be: 1. voltage-gated these are regulated according to the potential difference across the cell membrane or 2. ligand-gated – these are regulated by the presence of a specific signal molecule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The action potential is generated by excitable tissues, which are specialized tissues that can generate a meaningful electrical signal. Local currents transport action potentials down the axons of neurons. Which of the following claims about the action potential's conduction is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The areas of the membrane that have recently depolarised will not depolarise again due to the refractory period
Explanation:Local currents propagate action potentials down the axons of neurons. Following depolarization, this local current flow depolarizes the next axonal membrane, and when this region crosses the threshold, more action potentials are formed, and so on. Due to the refractory period, portions of the membrane that have recently depolarized will not depolarize again, resulting in the action potential only being able to go in one direction. The square root of axonal diameter determines the velocity of the action potential; the axons with the biggest diameter have the quickest conduction velocities. When a neuron is myelinated, the speed of the action potential rises as well. The myelin sheath is an insulating coating that surrounds certain neural axons. By increasing membrane resistance and decreasing membrane capacitance, the myelin coating increases conduction. This enables faster electrical signal transmission via a neuron, making them more energy-efficient than non-myelinated neuronal axons. Nodes of Ranvier are periodic holes in a myelinate axon when there is no myelin and the axonal membrane is exposed. There are no gated ion channels in the portion of the axon covered by the myelin sheath, but there is a high density of ion channels in the Nodes of Ranvier. Action potentials can only arise at the nodes as a result of this. Electrical impulses are quickly transmitted from one node to the next, causing depolarization of the membrane above the threshold and triggering another action potential, which is then transmitted to the next node. An action potential is rapidly conducted down a neuron in this manner. Saltatory conduction is the term for this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which ion channel is a dimer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cl- channel
Explanation:A dimer is a chemical structure formed from two similar sub-units. Chloride channels or exchangers are composed of two similar subunits—a dimer—each subunit containing one pore.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Pressure across the wall of a flexible tube (the transmural pressure) increases wall tension and extends it. Which law best describes transmural pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laplace’s law
Explanation:The transmural pressure (pressure across the wall of a flexible tube) can be described by Laplace’s law which states that: Transmural pressure = (Tw) / r Where: T = Wall tension w = Wall thickness r = The radius A small bubble with the same wall tension as a larger bubble will contain higher pressure and will collapse into the larger bubble if the two meet and join. Fick’s law describes the rate of diffusion in a solution Poiseuille’s law is used to calculate volume of flow rate in laminar flow Darcy’s law describes the flow of a fluid through a porous medium. Starling’s law describes cardiac haemodynamics as it relates to myocyte contractility and stretch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
