00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except--- ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are consistent with the indicator dilution method except---

      Your Answer: The indicator must have no haemodynamic effects

      Correct Answer: In thermodilution, the indicator used is warm saline

      Explanation:

      In thermodilution, the indicator used is cold saline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles: ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles:

      Your Answer: Terminal bronchioles form part of the respiratory zone

      Correct Answer: Terminal bronchioles form part of the conducting zone

      Explanation:

      Bronchioles divide into even smaller bronchioles, called terminal bronchioles, which are 0.5mm or less in diameter. Terminal bronchioles in turn divide into smaller respiratory bronchioles which divide into alveolar ducts. Terminal bronchioles mark the end of the conducting division of air flow in the respiratory system while respiratory bronchioles are the beginning of the respiratory division where actual gas exchange takes place. Terminal bronchioles are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium containing club cells. Terminal bronchioles contain a limited number of ciliated cells and no goblet cells. Club cells are non-ciliated, rounded protein secreting cells. Their secretions are a non-stick, proteinaceous compound (surfactant) to maintain the airway in the smallest bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The interstitium of the kidney is most hypertonic in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The interstitium of the kidney is most hypertonic in the:

      Your Answer: Outer cortex 

      Correct Answer: Papillary tip of the medulla

      Explanation:

      The medullary interstitium is the tissue surrounding the loop of Henle in the renal medulla. It functions in renal water reabsorption by building up a high hypertonicity, which draws water out of the thin descending limb of the loop of Henle and the collecting duct system. This hypertonicity, in turn, is created by an efflux of urea from the inner medullary collecting duct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The spinal cord receive its blood supply from the following arteries except:

      Your Answer: Segmental radicular arteries

      Correct Answer: Lateral spinal artery

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord (SC) is supplied by the single anterior spinal artery which supplies the anterior two thirds of the SC and paired posterior spinal arteries supplying the posterior one third. Anastomoses between the spinal arteries supply the lateral column. These arteries originate near the cervico-occipital junction and therefore have a smaller calibre and often discontinue. Thus, they require reinforcement by segmental/radicular arteries which are branches of the ascending cervical artery, deep cervical artery, intercostal arteries, lumbar arteries and lateral sacral arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common causative organism in infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Viridans Alpha-haemolytic streptococci, that are present in the mouth are the most frequently isolated microorganisms when the infection is acquired in a community setting. In contrast, Staphylococcus blood stream infections are frequently acquired in a health care setting where they can enter the blood stream through procedures that cause break in the integrity of skin like surgery, catheterisation or during access of long term indwelling catheters or secondary to intravenous injection of recreational drugs.Prosthetic valve endocarditis is commonly caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis as it is capable of growing as a biofilm on plastic surfaces

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is: ...

    Incorrect

    • In humans, the rate of CSF production per day is:

      Your Answer: 100-250 mls

      Correct Answer: 450-600 mls

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced around 20-25 ml per hour or 480-600ml per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting? ...

    Correct

    • Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting?

      Your Answer: 5ht3

      Explanation:

      5ht3 is a receptor strongly associated with vomiting, present in vagal afferents, the solitary tract nucleus (STN), and the area posterior. For this reason, 5ht3 antagonists are commonly used as antiemetic drugs. They include ondansetron, tropisetron, and granisetron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following with regard to DNA mutations does not fit:

      Your Answer: All of them fit

      Correct Answer: All gene mutations cause clinical disease entities

      Explanation:

      All gene mutations do not cause a clinical manifestation of the disease, some gene mutations are silent mutations. They are present but do not cause any disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is admitted for drainage of an abscess in her left forearm. She has revealed that she was regular heroin user and has stopped for the past few days. Clinical signs are pointing towards opioid withdrawal. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give her 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait 60 min to determine its effect

      Explanation:

      The next step in managing this patient is to give 10 mg and continue administering in 10 mg increments each hour until symptoms are under control.Methadone alleviates opioid withdrawal symptoms and reduces cravings. Methadone is useful for detoxification from longer-acting opioids such as morphine or methadone itself.Methadone should be used with caution if the patient has:Respiratory deficiencyAcute alcohol dependenceHead injuryTreatment with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)Ulcerating colitis or Crohn’s diseaseSevere hepatic impairmentThe dose must be reviewed on a daily basis and adjusted based upon how well the symptoms are controlled and the presence of side effects. The greater the dose of opioids used by the patient, the greater the dose of methadone required to control withdrawal symptoms. To avoid the risk of overdose in the first days of treatment The recommended dosing of methadone is 30mg in two doses of 15mg morning and evening.It is important to note that a methadone dose equivalent to what the patient reports they are taking should never be given. It is rare to need more than 40 mg per 24 hours: beware of overdosing which can lead to respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      154.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK): ...

    Correct

    • Select the correct statement regarding cholecystokinin (CCK):

      Your Answer: It causes gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Explanation:

      CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin, resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon. It is released (secreted) by your small intestine during the digestive process. It’s sometimes called pancreozymin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?

      Your Answer: Herpes labialis

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:- Psoriasis- Atopic eczema- Erythema multiforme- Seborrheic dermatitis- Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)- Mycosis fungoides- Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome- Porphyria cutanea tardaAlso, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:- Systemic lupus erythematosus- Sjögren’s syndrome- Sinear Usher syndrome- Rosacea- Dermatomyositis- Darier’s disease- Kindler-Weary syndromeAcute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following is able to move across cell membranes by...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is able to move across cell membranes by passive diffusion?

      Your Answer: CO2

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane is permeable to water molecules and a few other small, uncharged, molecules like oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2). Larger molecules like glucose or charged ions are unable to cross passively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation...

    Incorrect

    • Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation of covalent cross-linkages?

      Your Answer: Factor XIIa

      Correct Answer: Factor XIIIa

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII or fibrin stabilizing factor is an enzyme of the blood coagulation system that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of this factor (FXIIID) affects clot stability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is associated with xerophthalmia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is associated with xerophthalmia?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Explanation:

      Xerophthalmia caused by a severe vitamin A deficiency is described by pathologic dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea. The conjunctiva becomes dry, thick and wrinkled. If untreated, it can lead to corneal ulceration and ultimately to blindness as a result of corneal damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is: ...

    Correct

    • The neurotransmitter utilised by the Purkinje cells is:

      Your Answer: GABA

      Explanation:

      The cerebellar cortex consist of 3 layers: the molecular layer, the granular cell layer and the Purkinje cell layer. Purkinje cells play a fundamental role in controlling motor movement. They release a neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) which exerts inhibitory actions thereby reducing transmission of impulses. These inhibitory functions enable purkinje cells to regulate and coordinate motor movements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Blood from the hepatic veins drains into the? ...

    Incorrect

    • Blood from the hepatic veins drains into the?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The hepatic veins are the veins that drain de-oxygenated blood from the liver into the inferior vena cava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination:BP: 101/74 mmHgRR: 22 breaths/minPR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?

      Your Answer: Impaired hydroxylation of lysine and proline amino acids on collagen

      Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      322.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is: ...

    Correct

    • The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is:

      Your Answer: Multiple connections between afferent and efferent neurons

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that protects the body from harmful stimuli. Spinal reflexes are mostly monosynaptic and are mediated by a simple reflex arc. Withdrawal reflex is mediated by a polysynaptic reflex resulting in stimulation of many motor neurons in order to establish a quick and prolonged response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate. The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).Other treatment modalities include:• Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.• 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)• PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.• Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Correct Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values:Hb 7.9 g/dlPlt 97*109/l WBC 2.7*109/l Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Cholinergic neurons that pass into a retrograde direction activate neurons that release: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholinergic neurons that pass into a retrograde direction activate neurons that release:

      Your Answer: Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

      Correct Answer: Substance P and acetyl choline

      Explanation:

      Serotonin activates sensory neurons that activate the myenteric plexus. Cholinergic neurons passing in a retrograde direction in the myenteric plexus activate neurons that release substance P and acetylcholine, causing smooth muscle contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a regular tachycardia of 190 bpm. He is healthy and has no past medical history. Blood pressure and blood tests are all within normal parameters however the ECG confirms a narrow complex tachycardia. The tachycardia persists after giving IV adenosine 6mg. What should be the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: IV 12mg adenosine

      Explanation:

      For narrow complex tachycardias with no compromise then vagal manoeuvres should be trialled first. The Valsalva manoeuvre should be the first vagal manoeuvre tried and works by increasing intra-thoracic pressure and affecting baroreceptors (pressure sensors) within the arch of the aorta. It is carried out by asking the patient to hold his/her breath while trying to exhale forcibly as if straining during a bowel movement. Adenosine, an ultra-short-acting AV nodal blocking agent, is indicated if vagal manoeuvres are not effective. Adenosine may be safely used during pregnancy. In adults the recommended first dose of intravenous adenosine is 6 mg. The dose is administered rapidly and then followed by a saline flush. Adenosine is only present in the circulation for about 5 seconds, so it is an excellent drug for diagnosis and treatment. If there was a response to adenosine but it was not long lasting, an additional dose of 12 mg of adenosine intravenously can be attempted. Doses greater than 12 mg are not recommended. If adenosine fails then Verapamil or a beta blocker can be used as alternatives. If the patient is hemodynamically unstable or other treatments have not been effective, synchronized electrical cardioversion may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which mechanism of action do Quinolones use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit Protein synthesis

      Correct Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Explanation:

      The quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect. Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile. Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      212.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach ...

    Correct

    • HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - How much bile is secreted in a day? ...

    Incorrect

    • How much bile is secreted in a day?

      Your Answer: 1000ml

      Correct Answer: 500ml

      Explanation:

      Approximately 600 ml of bile salts are synthesized daily to replace bile acids lost in the faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Preload: ...

    Correct

    • Preload:

      Your Answer: Is the degree to which the myocardium is stretched before is contracts

      Explanation:

      Preload is end diastolic volume. It is the degree to which the heart muscle fiber is stretched when it fills up completely just before the heart contracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Release of tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor)

      Correct Answer: Collagen fibers underlying the endothelium

      Explanation:

      The contact activation (intrinsic) pathway begins with formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and FXII (Hageman factor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      103.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms ...

    Incorrect

    • Adrenergic stimulation will lead to myocyte relaxation via the following mechanisms

      Your Answer: Dephosphorylation of troponin l

      Correct Answer: Increased phosphorylation of phosholamban

      Explanation:

      Phosphorylation of phospholamban, which increases calcium ATPase activity and sequestration of calcium in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. An increased rate of relaxation is explained because cAMP also activates the protein phospholamban, situated on the membrane of the SR, that controls the rate of uptake of calcium into the SR. The latter effect explains enhanced relaxation (lusitropic effect).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (3/5) 60%
Medicine (12/30) 40%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Neurology (3/5) 60%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Gastrointestinal (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/3) 33%
Hepatobiliary (0/2) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/3) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Passmed