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  • Question 1 - You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The...

    Incorrect

    • You examine a resuscitated patient who has been diagnosed with ventricular tachycardia. The patient's hemodynamics are normal. You intended to prescribe amiodarone to him, but you can't because he has a contraindication.

      In these circumstances, which of the following is a contraindication to using amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Long QT syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sinus node disease

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is an anti-arrhythmic medication that can be used to treat both ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

      The use of amiodarone is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Conduction disturbances that are severe (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sinus node disease is a condition that affects the lymph nodes in (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Sensitivity to iodine
      Blockage of the Sino-atrial heart valve (except in cardiac arrest)
      Bradycardia in the sinuses (except in cardiac arrest)
      Thyroid disorders

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      37.7
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of hypoglycaemia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical feature of hypoglycaemia:

      Your Answer: Paraesthesia

      Correct Answer: Polyuria

      Explanation:

      Clinical features of hypoglycaemia:
      Autonomic  symptoms: Sweating, feeling hot, anxiety/agitation, palpitations, shaking, paraesthesia, dizziness
      Neuroglycopaenic symptoms: Weakness, blurred vision, difficulty speaking, poor concentration, poor coordination, drowsiness, confusion, seizures, coma
      Other symptoms: Nausea, fatigue, hunger

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      38.5
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Regarding hypernatraemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding hypernatraemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia with an actual increase in total body sodium is rare.

      Correct Answer: In acute severe hypernatraemia, seizures and intracranial vascular haemorrhage can occur as a result of brain cell lysis.

      Explanation:

      Acute severe hypernatraemia is a medical emergency and requires inpatient management in a high dependency setting. Seizures and intracranial vascular haemorrhage as a result of brain cell crenation can occur. The cause is most commonly excessive water loss and the key aspect of treatment is aggressive fluid replacement (typically with normal saline as this is relatively hypotonic). If urine osmolality is low, diabetes insipidus (DI )should be considered and a trial of synthetic ADH given. In patients with known DI, it is essential to ensure synthetic ADH is given parenterally and that close fluid balance is observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      41.2
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old presented to a GP with a history of headache, neck stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old presented to a GP with a history of headache, neck stiffness and photophobia. On examination, HR is 122, BP is 87/42, RR is 28, SaO 2 is 95%, temperature is 39.4 o C. There is a recent non-blanching rash on legs and arms. The GP administered a dose of antibiotics before transferring child to the Emergency Department.

      Which of these is the most appropriate antibiotic to administer in this scenario from the choices available?

      Your Answer: Give IV benzylpenicillin 900 mg

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg

      Explanation:

      Meningococcal septicaemia should be suspected in a child with a non-blanching rash especially in the presence of:
      An ill-looking child
      Neck stiffness
      Lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter (purpura)
      Capillary refill time of>3 seconds

      The index child is very sick and shows signs of septic shock. In the prehospital setting, a single dose of benzylpenicillin should be given immediately. The correct dose for this childs age is IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin according to age are:
      Infants <1 year of age: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 300 mg
      Children 1 to 9 years of age: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 600mg
      Children and adults 10 years or older: IM or IV benzylpenicillin 1.2g

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      64.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) is used first line for which of the following infections:...

    Incorrect

    • Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) is used first line for which of the following infections:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blind treatment of suspected bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) are indicated first line in:
      – Blind treatment of meningitis in patients > 3 months (with amoxicillin if patient > 50 years)
      – Meningitis caused by meningococci
      – Meningitis caused by pneumococci
      – Meningitis caused by H. influenzae
      – Severe or invasive salmonellosis
      – Typhoid fever
      – Gonorrhoea
      – Gonococcal arthritis
      – Haemophilus influenzae epiglottitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of a red and painful left eye. Upon physical examination, it was noted that there is the presence of conjunctival erythema. A mucopurulent discharge and crusting of the lid was also evident. A diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis was made.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should NOT be a part of the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      The following are the NICE guidelines on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
      – Infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting illness that usually settles without treatment within 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist for longer than two weeks they should return for review.
      – Seek medical attention urgently if marked eye pain or photophobia, loss of visual acuity, or marked redness of the eye develop.
      – Remove contact lenses, if worn, until all symptoms and signs of infection have completely resolved and any treatment has been completed for 24 hours.
      – Lubricant eye drops may reduce eye discomfort; these are available over the counter, as well as on prescription.
      – Clean away infected secretions from eyelids and lashes with cotton wool soaked in water.
      – Wash hands regularly, particularly after touching the eyes.
      – Avoid sharing pillows and towels.
      – It is not necessary to exclude a child from school or childcare if they have infective conjunctivitis, as mild infectious illnesses should not interrupt school attendance. An exception would be if there is an outbreak of infective conjunctivitis, when advice should be sought from the Health Protection Agency by the school.
      – Adults who work in close contact with others, or with vulnerable patients, should avoid such contact until the discharge has settled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A patient suffers an injury to his thigh that damages the nerve that...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers an injury to his thigh that damages the nerve that innervates pectineus.
      Which of the following nerves has been damaged in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Pectineus is innervated by the femoral nerve. It may also receive a branch from the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding defaecation, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonic mass movement occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum.

      Explanation:

      Colonic mass movement describes the intense contraction that begins halfway along the transverse colon and pushes the intestinal contents in the proximal colon towards the rectum. It occurs shortly after a meal due to distension of the stomach and duodenum as part of the gastrocolic reflex and if faeces is present in the rectum, stimulates the urge to defecate. Distention of the rectum causes firing of afferent cholinergic parasympathetic fibres. The internal sphincter is made up of circular smooth muscle innervated by the autonomic fibres, and the more distal external sphincter is composed of striated muscle innervated by motor fibres from the pudendal nerve. During defaecation, relaxation of pelvic muscles straightens the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - Which of the following microbes is spread by a vector: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microbes is spread by a vector:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector for Plasmodium falciparum transmission. Treponema pallidum is transmitted through sexual transmission or direct skin contact. Clostridium perfringens is spread by direct skin contact or through oral-faecal route. The oral-faecal pathway is how Vibrio cholerae spreads. Mycoplasma tuberculosis is spread via the airborne route.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Regarding beta-thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding beta-thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-thalassaemia trait is associated with a raised HbA2.

      Explanation:

      Beta-thalassaemia major is caused by a complete or almost complete failure of β-globin chain synthesis, severe imbalance of α:β-chains with deposition of α-chains in erythroblasts, ineffective erythropoiesis and extramedullary haemopoiesis. The severe anaemia becomes apparent at 3 – 6 months when the switch from γ-chain to β-chain synthesis normally occurs. Beta-thalassaemia minor is a variable syndrome, milder than thalassaemia major, with later onset and characterised by moderate hypochromic microcytic anaemia with raised haemoglobin A2. Beta-thalassaemia trait is characterised by mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia with raised red cell count and raised haemoglobin A2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old woman is 22-weeks pregnant and is investigated for a possible thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is 22-weeks pregnant and is investigated for a possible thyroid disorder. When her total thyroid hormone levels does not correlate with her thyrometabolic status, her thyroid-binding globulin levels are checked.

      What percentage of circulating thyroid hormones is bound to thyroid-binding globulin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Only a very small fraction of the thyroid hormones circulating in the blood are free. The majority is bound to transport proteins. Only the free thyroid hormones are biologically active, and measurement of total thyroid hormone levels can be misleading.

      The relative percentages of bound and unbound thyroid hormones are:
      Bound to thyroid-binding globulin -70%
      Bound to albumin -15-20%
      Bound to transthyretin -10-15%
      Free T3 -0.3%
      Free T4 -0.03%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A patient suffers from an injury to his hip and thigh. As a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient suffers from an injury to his hip and thigh. As a consequence of his injury, the nerve that was damaged innervates the obturator externus muscle.

      In which of the following nerves is the obturator externus muscle innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior branch of the obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator externus is innervated by the posterior branch of the obturator nerve, L2-L4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A patient presents with a cough, productive of green sputum and fever. He...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a cough, productive of green sputum and fever. He was commenced on antibiotics 4 days earlier, but his condition has worsened. There is a documented history of penicillin allergy, and the GP prescribed erythromycin.

      Erythromycin exert its pharmacological effect by binding to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome

      Explanation:

      Macrolides are bacteriostatic antibiotics. They act by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and inhibit translocation, therefore, inhibiting protein synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding tapeworm, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnosis is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in the stool.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of tapeworm is by direct visualisation of characteristic eggs in stool. Humans may be infected by pork or beef tapeworm. Treatment is with praziquantel or niclosamide. Specialist advice should be sought for the management of neurocysticercosis.Iron-deficiency anaemia is typically seen in hookworm infection. Threadworms migrate from the intestine at night to lay eggs on the perianal skin. Mebendazole is first line treatment for threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - If the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected when it is actually true, this...

    Incorrect

    • If the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected when it is actually true, this is an example of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A test with a type I error

      Explanation:

      A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected when it is actually true and we conclude that there is a difference of effect when in reality there is none (a false positive result).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statement about the microcirculation are correct except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Over the capillary bed, there is a net absorption of fluid.

      Explanation:

      The hydrostatic pressure along the length of the capillary is usually greater than plasma oncotic pressure. As a result, there is a small net filtration of fluid from the capillary into the interstitial space. The regulation of blood flow into the microcirculation is via the vasoconstriction of small arterioles, which is activated by the sympathetic nervous system through numerous nerve endings in their walls. Unlike proteins, most ions and small molecules diffuse easily across capillary walls and thus the crystalloid osmotic pressure they exert is roughly the same on either side of the capillary wall. Because the plasma colloid osmotic pressure is higher than interstitial colloid osmotic, fluid is drawn intravascularly. A reduction of hydrostatic capillary pressure and transient increase in absorption of fluid is a result of arteriolar constriction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Intrinsic factor is vital for gastrointestinal absorption of which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrinsic factor is vital for gastrointestinal absorption of which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption of the small amounts of vitamin B12 normally present in the diet from the terminal ileum. The parietal cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor, and following a gastrectomy, the absorption of vitamin B12 will be markedly reduced, and a deficiency state will exist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - You've been requested to give a discussion to a group of medical students...

    Incorrect

    • You've been requested to give a discussion to a group of medical students about cardiovascular physiology. One of them inquires about cardiac output and asks if you can explain it.

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An average resting cardiac output in a woman is 5 L/min

      Explanation:

      The terminology cardiac output refers to the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. Women’s rates are around 5 L/min, whereas men’s rates are somewhat higher, around 5.5 L/min.
      Cardiac output (CO) is calculated by multiplying stroke volume (SV) by heart rate (HR):
      CO = HR x SV

      As a result, both stroke volume and heart rate are exactly proportional to cardiac output. There will be an increase in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate increases, and a reduction in cardiac output if the stroke volume or heart rate lowers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta...

    Incorrect

    • As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta blocker. He starts having nightmares and has trouble sleeping soon after starting the beta-blocker.

      Which of the beta blockers listed below is the most likely to be in his system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The beta-adrenoceptors in the heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, and liver are blocked by beta-adrenoceptor blocking drugs (beta blockers).

      Beta blockers come in a wide range of strengths, with the choice largely determined by the disease being treated and the patient’s unique circumstances. The intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, lipid solubility, duration of action, and cardioselectivity of beta blockers all differ.

      Some beta blockers are lipid (lipophilic) soluble, while others are water soluble (hydrophilic). Drugs that are more lipid-soluble are absorbed faster from the gut, undergo more first-pass metabolism, and are eliminated faster. They’re also more likely to get into the brain and cause central effects like insomnia and nightmares. Propranolol, pindolol, labetalol, and metoprolol are examples of lipid-soluble beta blockers. Beta blockers that are water-soluble are less likely to enter the brain and are more resistant to first-pass metabolism. They are excreted by the kidneys, and in renal impairment, dosage reduction is frequently required. Atenolol, nadolol, celiprolol, and sotalol are examples of water-soluble beta blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old female with a swollen red finger presents to your clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female with a swollen red finger presents to your clinic and you suspect that the underlying process is of acute inflammation. You request for some bloods investigations.

      Which statement about histamine as a chemical mediator of the acute inflammatory response is TRUE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It increases vascular permeability

      Explanation:

      Histamine increases vascular permeability in the acute inflammatory response.

      Histamine causes vasodilation.

      It is released from Mast cells and basophils, eosinophils and platelets.

      Mast cells and basophils are its primary source

      Nitric oxide (not histamine) is a major factor in endotoxic shock

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman with mild dyspepsia seeks advice from her pharmacist on how...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with mild dyspepsia seeks advice from her pharmacist on how to deal with her symptoms. In the first instance, the pharmacist advises her to take an over-the-counter antacid. She buys an antacid that contains aluminium hydroxide, which relieves her symptoms but has a negative side effect.

      She's most likely to have developed which of the following side effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Aluminium hydroxide is a common antacid that is used to treat ulcer dyspepsia and non-erosive gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      When antacids containing aluminium salts are given to patients with renal impairment, there is a risk of accumulation and aluminium toxicity. If renal function is normal, aluminium accumulation does not appear to be a risk.

      Because it reduces gastrointestinal phosphate absorption, aluminium hydroxide can also be used to treat hyperphosphatemia in patients with renal failure.

      Magnesium-based antacids are generally laxative, whereas aluminium-based antacids can be constipating. Renal impairment, angioedema, and anaphylaxis are not significantly increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old footballer develops pain and stiffness in his thigh. A diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old footballer develops pain and stiffness in his thigh. A diagnosis of iliopsoas syndrome is made.
      Iliacus is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Iliacus is innervated by the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dietary insufficiency is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men and postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The transport of oxygen from maternal to fetal circulation is made possible by...

    Incorrect

    • The transport of oxygen from maternal to fetal circulation is made possible by fetal haemoglobin. Which of the statements about fetal haemoglobin (HbF) is also correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The oxygen dissociation curve for foetal haemoglobin is shifted to the left of that of adult haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin is the most common type of haemoglobin found in the foetus during pregnancy. It transports oxygen from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation. It can easily bind to oxygen from the maternal circulation because it has a high affinity for oxygen. From 10 to 12 weeks of pregnancy to the first six months after birth, the erythroid precursor cells produce fetal haemoglobin. In comparison to adult haemoglobin, fetal haemoglobin has two alpha and two gamma subunits, whereas adult haemoglobin has two alpha and two beta subunits in its major form.

      And, unlike adult haemoglobin, the oxygen dissociation curve of fetal haemoglobin is left-shifted. Myoglobin is an oxygen storage molecule with a very high affinity for oxygen. Only when the partial pressure of oxygen is exceeded does it release oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Gastric emptying is increased by all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gastric emptying is increased by all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Gastric emptying is increased by:
      Distension of the pyloric antrum
      A fall in the pH of chyme in the stomach
      Parasympathetic stimulation (via vagus)
      Gastrin
      The hormones secretin, cholecystokinin and gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP) inhibit gastric emptying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A dermatological examination of a patient who has presented with a lump shows...

    Incorrect

    • A dermatological examination of a patient who has presented with a lump shows a collection of boils clustered together.

      Which one of these best describes the lump you have found on examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbuncle

      Explanation:

      A furuncle, or boil, is a pyogenic infection of the hair follicle commonly caused by infection with Staphylococcus aureus.

      A carbuncle is a collection of individual boils clustered together.

      A bulla is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring greater than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A vesicle is a visible collection of clear fluid measuring less than 0.5 cm in diameter.

      A pustule is a small visible skin elevation containing an accumulation of pus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Pathology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Loop diuretics primarily act on which Na+ transporter? ...

    Incorrect

    • Loop diuretics primarily act on which Na+ transporter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na + /K + /2Cl - symporter

      Explanation:

      The most potent diuretics are loop diuretics e.g. furosemide. They work by inhibiting the Na+/K+/2Cl-symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which inhibits sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption. As a result, there is diuresis with loss of these electrolytes. There is a reduction in transcellular voltage difference, paracellular calcium and magnesium reabsorption.
      The medullary interstitium becomes more concentrated by salt reabsorption in the ascending limb. Loop diuretics block this process and reduce the ability of the kidney to concentrate urine. In the collecting duct, there is increased sodium delivery to the principal cells, which increases potassium secretion in return for sodium reabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man with multiple myeloma presents with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with multiple myeloma presents with complaints of abdominal pain and malaise. A series of blood tests is done and his calcium level is 2.96 mmol/l.

      What effect will this blood test result have on gastric secretions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulate the release of gastrin

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia stimulates the release of gastrin from the G-cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, the duodenum and the pancreas.

      Gastrin is also released in response to:
      Stomach distension
      Vagal stimulation
      The presence of amino acids.

      Gastrin release is inhibited by the presence of acid and somatostatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.

      Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.

      The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:

      Arrhythmias
      Corneal microdeposits
      Hepatic disorders
      Hyperthyroidism
      Hypothyroidism
      Hepatic disorders and jaundice
      Nausea
      Peripheral neuropathy
      Respiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)
      Sleep disturbance
      Skin reactions
      QT prolongation

      Amiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.

      Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - In which of the following would you NOT typically see a neutropaenia: ...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following would you NOT typically see a neutropaenia:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asplenism

      Explanation:

      Causes of neutropaenia:
      Drug-induced (e.g. chemotherapy, chloramphenicol, co-trimoxazole, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, furosemide, chloroquine, clozapine, some DMARDs)
      Benign (racial or familial)
      Cyclical
      Immune (e.g. SLE, Felty’s syndrome, hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis)
      Leukaemia
      Infections (e.g. HIV, hepatitis, fulminant bacterial infection)
      General Pancytopaenia
      Hypersplenism, aplastic anaemia, malignant infiltration of bone marrow, megaloblastic anaemia, chemotherapy, myelodysplasia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune Responses
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Endocrine (0/2) 0%
Physiology (0/2) 0%
Infections (0/1) 0%
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