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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presented with a mass in his right groin. On examination there was a pulsatile mass just below the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Femoral aneurysm
Correct Answer: Femoral hernia
Explanation:Midpoint of the inguinal ligament is halfway between the pubic tubercle and the anterior superior iliac spine (the two attachments of the inguinal ligament). The opening to the inguinal canal is located just above this point. The femoral artery is at the mid-inguinal point which is halfway between the pubic symphysis and the anterior superior iliac spine. As the mass is at the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, the most probable answer is a femoral hernia. A femoral aneurysm is also a possibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
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Question 3
Correct
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From the given responses what is the most characteristic clinical feature of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?
Your Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis
Explanation:Scurvy is a state of dietary deficiency of vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Although scurvy is uncommon, it still occurs and can affect adults and children who have chronic dietary vitamin C deficiency. The most common cutaneous findings are follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymosis, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.
Cheilosis and beefy red tongue are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency and iron deficiency.
Diarrhoea and delusions are associated with pellagra which is caused by vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency.
Ocular muscle paralysis and dementia are associated with vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease.
Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l.
You advise him to start fibrate therapy.
Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?Your Answer: They are inhibitors of CETP cholesterol ester transferase protein activity
Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis
Explanation:Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 5
Correct
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A 52-year-old female who was a smoker, with a history of asymptomatic atrial septal defect (ASD) presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion and ankle oedema for the past 2 weeks. She has defaulted on her follow up for ASD. On examination she was cyanosed and clubbing was noted. Her pulse rate was 92 and blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. Echocardiography revealed a dilated right ventricle of the heart. The right ventricular pressure was 90 mmHg. Significant tricuspid and pulmonary regurgitation were also noted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Eisenmenger's syndrome
Explanation:According to echocardiography findings pulmonary pressure is closer to systemic blood pressure and it is evidence of pulmonary hypertension. Because of the reversal of shunt due to pulmonary hypertension, cyanosis and clubbing have developed. So the most probable diagnosis is Eisenmenger’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Regarding cranial nerves, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: The facial nerve supplies the parotid salivary gland
Correct Answer: The vagus nerve supplies the palatal muscles
Explanation:In addition to the pharynx and larynx, the vagus nerve also innervates the palatoglossus of the tongue, and the majority of the muscles of the soft palate.
The lacrimal gland is supplied by the facial nerve.
The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the parotid salivary gland controlling salivary secretions.
The oculomotor nerve carries parasympathetic efferents to the sphincter pupillae muscle and innervates the superior rectus.
The optic nerve carries sympathetic postganglionic fibres to the dilator pupillae muscle.
The trochlear nerve supplies the superior oblique muscle. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following parameters is increased as a result of asthma?
Your Answer: None of these options
Correct Answer: Residual volume
Explanation:In asthma, a reversible increase in residual volume (RV), functional residual capacity (FRC), and total lung capacity (TLC) may occur. There is a fall in FEV1, FVC and gas transfer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Correct
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A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?
Your Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
Explanation:PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents with progressive central abdominal pain and vomiting associated with significant weight loss (five stone in 3 months).He gives a history of binge drinking and depression, and smokes twenty cigarettes per day. Because eating provokes abdominal pain and vomiting, he has eaten virtually nothing for a month. CT scanning of his abdomen showed a normal pancreas but dilated loops of small bowel with a possible terminal ileal stricture. His albumin level was 20 and C-reactive protein level was 50. Which statement is NOT true?
Your Answer: Infliximab should be prescribed as soon as possible
Explanation:Stricturing is associated with Crohn’s disease, and elevated CRP supports this diagnosis in this patient, as well. Infliximab should not yet be started. Acute treatment is steroids (of a flare) however this man needs surgery. Although surgery should be avoided if at all possible in Crohn’s disease, and minimal surgery should occur (resecting as little as possible, given possible need for future resections), including possible stricturoplasty instead of resection. Chronic pancreatitis is unlikely given it would not cause stricture. Patients undergoing surgery should always have informed consent, which always includes risk of a stoma for any bowel surgery. Given the amount of weight he has lost he is at significant risk for refeeding syndrome, which can cause hypokalaemia, hypophosphatemia and hypomagnesemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 30-year-old male was brought in with a history of a stab injury to left chest. He was complaining of chest pain. On examination he was tachycardic, hypotensive and had an elevated JVP, pulsus paradoxus and muffled heart sounds. Respiratory examination was unremarkable. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Becks triad (hypotension, elevated systemic venous pressure, often with jugular venous distention and muffled heart sounds) is a characteristic collection of clinical findings found in cardiac tamponade. Pulsus paradoxus is also associated with it. The history and clinical findings in this scenario are compatible with the diagnosis of cardica tamponade. The normal respiratory examination excludes tension pneumothorax.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad; patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.
The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Correct
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A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:
HBsAg Positive
HBeAg Positive
What is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?Your Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Explanation:The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: TB adenitis
Explanation:Tuberculous lymphadenitis is a chronic, specific granulomatous inflammation of the lymph node with caseation necrosis, caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The characteristic morphological element is the tuberculous granuloma (caseating tubercle).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?
Your Answer: 680/880
Correct Answer: 680/780
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 32-year-old female who is 37 weeks pregnant presents with a swollen, painful right calf. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is confirmed on Doppler scan.
What should be the preferred anticoagulant?Your Answer: Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Explanation:Subcutaneous (S/C) low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is a preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy. Warfarin is contraindicated due to its teratogenic effects, especially in the first trimester and at term.
Pregnancy is a hypercoagulable state with the majority of VTE incidents occurring in the last trimester.
Hypercoagulability in pregnancy is caused by:
1. Increase in factors VII, VIII, X, and fibrinogen
2. Decrease in protein S
3. Uterus pressing on IVC causing venous stasis in legsManagement options include:
1. S/C LMWH preferred to IV heparin (less bleeding and thrombocytopaenia)
2. Warfarin contraindicated -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 0.15
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presents with severe pain in his right big toe which is erythematous and swollen. He recently had an appendicectomy. Personal history reveals that he consumes 30 units of alcohol per week. Choose the most likely diagnosis.
Your Answer: Gout
Explanation:Chronic alcoholism leads to increased levels of uric acid in the blood. Gout is caused by high levels of uric acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis.
Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?Your Answer: Pupil of affected eye larger than the unaffected eye
Correct Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected
Explanation:Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 69-year-old diabetic female presents for a regular outpatient visit. Her BMI is calculated to be 33. Lab results: GFR=29, Urea=13, Creatinine=390 mmol/L. Which of the following drugs should ideally be used by this patient?
Your Answer: Insulin
Explanation:The management of patients with diabetes and nephropathy necessitates attention to several aspects of care. Importantly, glycaemic control should be optimized for the patient, attaining the necessary control to reduce complications but done in a safe, monitored manner. Screening for development of nephropathy should be performed on a regular basis to identify microalbuminuria or reductions in GFR and if identified, the diabetes regimen should be tailored accordingly. Prevention and treatment of diabetic nephropathy and other complications necessitates a multifactorial approach. From the options provided insulin is the most suitable as sulfonylureas and biguanides are contraindicated in renal failure. Glitazones are known to cause many side effects including fluid retention and oedema. Hence, insulin will be the best option in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 20
Correct
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A woman suffering from severe psoriasis has been undergoing treatment for it for the last 3 years. She now presents with lethargy and dizziness. Her blood film shows large red blood cells. What is the cause of these symptoms in this woman?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate is also known as a DMARD (Disease Modifying Anti Rheumatic Drug). It reduces inflammation and suppresses the immune system, and is thought to cause folic acid deficiency leading to megaloblastic anaemia.
NSAIDS and Sulfasalazine are known to cause haemolytic but not megaloblastic anaemia.
Chronic disease might be accompanied with normocytic or microcytic anaemia as opposed to the macrocytic anaemia this patient is suffering from.
Steroids are not known to cause anaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a height of 5010 metres. Despite having the headache and feeling nauseous, she continues to hike but becomes progressively worse. She is seen staggering, complains of feeling dizzy and has an ataxic gait.
Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?Your Answer: Descent + phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor
Correct Answer: Descent + dexamethasone
Explanation:High Altitude Cerebral Oedema (HACE) is a severe and potentially fatal manifestation of high altitude illness and is often characterized by ataxia, fatigue, and altered mental status. HACE is often thought of as an extreme form/end-stage of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). Although HACE represents the least common form of altitude illness, it may progress rapidly to coma and death as a result of brain herniation within 24 hours, if not promptly diagnosed and treated.
HACE generally occurs after 2 days above 4000m but can occur at lower elevations (2500m) and with faster onset. Some, but not all, individuals will suffer from symptoms of AMS such as headache, insomnia, anorexia, nausea prior to transitioning to HACE. Some may also have concomitant High Altitude Pulmonary Oedema (HAPE). HACE in isolation is rare, but the absence of concomitant HAPE or symptoms of AMS prior to deterioration does not rule-out the presence of HACE.
Most cases develop as a progression of AMS and will include a history of recent ascent to altitude and prior complaints/findings of AMS including a headache, fatigue, nausea, insomnia, and/or light-headedness. Some may also have signs/symptoms of HAPE. Transition to HACE is heralded by signs of encephalopathy including ataxia (usually the earliest clinical finding) and altered mentation which may range from mild to severe. Other symptoms may include a more severe headache, difficulty speaking, lassitude, a decline in the level of consciousness, and/or focal neurological deficits or seizures.
The mainstay of treatment is the immediate descent of at least 1000m or until symptoms improve. If descent is not an option, one may use a portable hyperbaric chamber and/or supplemental oxygen to temporize illness, but this should never replace or delay evaluation/descent when possible. If available, dexamethasone 8mg for one dose, followed by 4mg every 6 hours should be given to adults via PO, IM, or IV routes.
Acetazolamide has proven to be beneficial in only a single clinical study. The suggested dosing regimen for Acetazolamide is 250 mg PO, given twice daily. Though effective in alleviating or temporizing symptoms, none of the adjunct treatment modalities are definitive or a replacement for an immediate descent. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which she is managed with low dose prednisolone, diclofenac and codeine phosphate.
On examination in the Emergency ward her BP is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 100/min. You fluid resuscitate her and her BP improves to 115/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 80/min.
Investigations;
Hb 10.4 g/dl
WCC 6.1 x109/l
PLT 145 x109/l
Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 4.9 mmol/l
Creatinine 180 μmol/l
ECG - Lateral ST depression , Upper GI endoscopy reveals a large bleeding ulcer on the posterior aspect of the duodenum. It cannot be easily reached with the endoscope, and you decide to attempt embolization.
Which of the following is the artery that should be targeted?Your Answer: Anterior Superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Correct Answer: Posterior Superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Explanation:The most common location for a duodenal ulcer bleed is the posterior duodenum (remember: posterior bleeds, anterior perforates). The perfusion to this area is most specifically from the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the anterior region. The gastroepiploic artery supplies mostly the stomach. The splenic artery goes, obviously, toward the spleen, in the other direction. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the celiac artery, and it’s branches are the anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents with a five month history of worsening breathlessness and daily productive cough. As a young child, she had occasional wheezing with viral illnesses and she currently works in a shipyard and also smokes one pack of cigarettes daily for the past three years. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis is a long-term condition where the airways of the lungs become abnormally widened, leading to a build-up of excess mucus that can make the lungs more vulnerable to infection. The most common symptoms of bronchiectasis include:
– a persistent productive cough
– breathlessness.The 3 most common causes in the UK are:
– a lung infection in the past, such as pneumonia or whooping cough, that damages the bronchi
– underlying problems with the immune system (the body’s defence against infection) that make the bronchi more vulnerable to damage from an infection
– allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) – an allergy to a certain type of fungi that can cause the bronchi to become inflamed if spores from the fungi are inhaled -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient presented with a cough, wheezing and difficulty in breathing which wakes him up in the night. He also has a itchy, dry and scaly skin rash. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eczema
Explanation:The skin lesion is most probably eczema. It is common among atopic people. Asthma is a common association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pinprick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion.
Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1
Explanation:The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.Trunk:
– Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
– Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
– Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
Upper arm:
– Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
Forearm
– Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
– Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
– Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
Hand
– Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
– Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male presented with ventricular tachycardia which was successfully cardioverted. To check whether he had prolonged QT interval, which of the following is the most appropriate method to measure the QT interval in ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave
Explanation:The QT interval is the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave. It represents the time taken for ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation. The QT interval should be measured in either lead II or V5-6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained a direct blow to his lower chest. His blood pressure is 83/48, HR 113 bpm. On examination, there are multiple bruises on the chest with bowel sounds heard on auscultation of his chest. The single most likely diagnosis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diaphragmatic rupture
Explanation:Ruptured diaphragm is a serious condition that is very difficult to diagnose and requires rapid intervention. The presence of bowel sounds on chest auscultation is highly suggestive of this.
Ruptured oesophagus is excluded by the absence of haematemesis and normal intestinal sounds.
Fractured ribs could be life threatening if associated with a tension pneumothorax which is excluded by a normal chest auscultation.
Flail chest is characterised by paradoxical breathing and respiratory failure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male presents with a history of fever and pain in the right lower thigh for one month. On examination the lower one third of the thigh is red, hot and tender. Radiological examination reveals new bone formation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomyelitis
Explanation:Osteomyelitis (OM) is an infection of bone. Symptoms may include pain in a specific bone with overlying redness, fever, and weakness. The long bones of the arms and legs are most commonly involved in children, while the feet, spine, and hips are most commonly involved in adults. Diagnosis of osteomyelitis is often based on radiologic results showing a lytic centre with a ring of sclerosis. Osteomyelitis, a bone infection, may leave the adjacent bone with exostosis formation. An exostosis, also known as bone spur, is the formation of new bone on the surface of a bone.[
Malignant bone tumours can be classified as primary (arising from abnormal bone or cartilage cells) or secondary (bone metastases of other tumours). The most common primary bone tumours are osteosarcomas, Ewing sarcomas, and chondrosarcomas. These tumours differ with regard to primary localization, radiographic characteristics, and the patient age at which they usually develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A study is developed to assess a new mandibular advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:
1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
4 Calculate:
R+ = sum of all positive ranks
R- = sum of all negative ranks
R = smaller of R+ and R-
5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. She admits to 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting blood. The GP feels an epigastric mass.
There is both a microcytic anaemia and abnormal liver enzymes. Her past history, which may be of importance, includes excess consumption of sherry and spirits, and a 30 pack-year smoking history.
Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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