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  • Question 1 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: Decreased post-prandial acid production

      Correct Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:

      Your Answer: Na+ dependent peptide transporter 2

      Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1

      Explanation:

      Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal] ...

    Incorrect

    • Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal]

      Your Answer: QRS lengthened

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes the formation of tall tented T waves due to altered repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      106.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - B1 adrenergic stimulation produces: ...

    Correct

    • B1 adrenergic stimulation produces:

      Your Answer: Increase in calcium cytosolic concentration

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine secreted by the sympathetic endings binds to B1 receptors, and the resulting increase in intracellular cAMP facilitates the opening of L channels, increasing Ica and the rapidity of the depolarization phase of the impulse and activates PKA which leads to phosphorylation of the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, causing them to spend more time in the open state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications.Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show:Na+: 133 mmol/lK+: 3.3 mmol/lUrea: 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine: 90 μmol/lWhich among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy

      Explanation:

      The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances. Note:- Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.- Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.- Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      476.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Café-au-lait spots are seen in each of the following, except:

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Café-au-lait spots are hyperpigmented lesions that vary in colour from light brown to dark brown, with borders that may be smooth or irregular.

      Causes include:

      • Neurofibromatosis type I
      • McCune–Albright syndrome
      • Legius syndrome
      • Tuberous sclerosis
      • Fanconi anaemia
      • Idiopathic
      • Ataxia-telangiectasia
      • Basal cell nevus syndrome
      • Benign congenital skin lesion
      • Bloom syndrome
      • Chediak-Higashi syndrome
      • Congenital nevus
      • Gaucher disease
      • Hunter syndrome
      • Maffucci syndrome
      • Multiple mucosal neuroma syndrome
      • Noonan syndrome
      • Pulmonary Stenosis
      • Silver–Russell syndrome
      • Watson syndrome
      • Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds more closely with: ...

    Correct

    • The ‘c’ wave in JVP corresponds more closely with:

      Your Answer: Isovolumetric contraction

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP, sometimes referred to as jugular venous pulse) is the indirectly observed pressure over the venous system via visualization of the internal jugular vein. It can be useful in the differentiation of different forms of heart and lung disease. Classically three upward deflections (peaks) and two downward deflections (troughs) have been described:The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling.The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Select the correct statement regarding the portal vein. ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the correct statement regarding the portal vein.

      Your Answer: It is a branch of the celiac axis.

      Correct Answer: It drains most of the gastrointestinal tract and the spleen.

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of total blood flow to the liver and enters the liver centrally via the porta hepatis. Portal venous flow increases after meals. The portal vein receives blood from the intestines via the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, from the stomach via gastric veins and from the spleen and pancreas via the splenic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer: CN 5

      Correct Answer: CN 2

      Explanation:

      Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion...

    Correct

    • Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion of fat begin in a normal human being?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The enzyme lipase which is responsible for digestion of fat is secreted by the exocrine pancreas in the 2nd part of the duodenum at the point where the pancreatic duct opens. It opens together with the common bile duct which contains bile that emulsify fat aiding in digestion. The oesophagus, stomach and mouth do not contain enzymes related to fat digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      177.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule? ...

    Correct

    • The Na-K-2Cl co-transporter occurs in which part of the renal tubule?

      Your Answer: Apical surface of thick ascending limb

      Explanation:

      The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) is a protein that aids in the active transport of sodium, potassium, and chloride into cells. In humans there are two isoforms of this membrane transport protein, NKCC1 and NKCC2. NKCC2 is specifically found in cells of the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the macula densa in nephrons, the basic functional units of the kidney. Within these cells, NKCC2 resides in the apical membrane abutting the nephron’s lumen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Telomeres are best described as: ...

    Correct

    • Telomeres are best described as:

      Your Answer: A repetitive DNA sequence at the end of a DNA molecule.

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of ...

    Incorrect

    • The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of

      Your Answer: Both the oblique and the circular muscle layers

      Correct Answer: The circular muscle layer

      Explanation:

      The pyloric sphincter, or valve, is a strong ring of smooth muscle (circular muscle layer) at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It controls the outflow of gastric contents into the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      93.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length...

    Correct

    • In RFLP (restriction fragment length polymorphism), the DNA fragments are separated by length through a process known as:

      Your Answer: Agarose gel electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Samples of DNA from individuals are broken into pieces by restriction enzymes and the fragments are separated according to their lengths via gel electrophoresis. Although now largely obsolete due to the rise of inexpensive DNA sequencing technologies, RFLP analysis was the first DNA profiling technique inexpensive enough to see widespread application.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a method for measurement of cardiac output?

      Your Answer: Swan-ganz catheterization

      Correct Answer: Indicator dilution method

      Explanation:

      There are two methods of calculating the cardiac output in humans other than doppler with echocardiography: The direct Fick’s method and the indicator dilution method. In the indicator dilution technique, a known amount of a substance such as a dye or, more commonly, a radioactive isotope is injected into an arm vein and the concentration of the indicator in serial samples of arterial blood is determined. The output of the heart is equal to the amount of indicator injected divided by its average concentration in arterial blood after a single circulation through the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain? ...

    Correct

    • The reticular formation occupies which area of the brain?

      Your Answer: Medulla and midbrain

      Explanation:

      The reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei that are located along the brainstem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via: ...

    Correct

    • Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via:

      Your Answer: Cadherins

      Explanation:

      Cadherins are calcium dependant molecules that mediate cell to cell adhesions in epithelial and endothelial cells among others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Correct

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following stimuli increase growth hormone secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following stimuli increase growth hormone secretion?

      Your Answer: Insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I)

      Correct Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Ghrelin is a hormone which serves as an endogenous ligand for the growth hormone secretagogue receptor. It acts on the pituitary and the hypothalamus by affecting the vagus nerve. It acts on the somatotrophs of the anterior pituitary, GHRH-secreting neurons, and on GHIH-secreting neurons in the hypothalamus, causing a time-dependent and pulsatile stimulation over the secretion of growth hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced...

    Incorrect

    • H+ ions used in the production of acid by parietal cells is produced with the help of which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Carbonic anhydrase ii

      Explanation:

      Carbonic anhydrase enzyme catalyses the rapid interconversion of carbon dioxide and water to bicarbonate and protons (or vice versa). This is a reversible reaction that takes place in the gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical...

    Correct

    • Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical attack in the city. The patients are extremely unwell, with symptoms of excessive salivation, lacrimation, diarrhoea, and emesis. Sarin gas was suspected as the most likely agent used in the attack. What is the mechanism of action of this chemical agent?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Sarin acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesteraseSarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).The effects of excessive ACh can be remembered by the mnemonic DUMBELLS:DiarrhoeaUrinationMiosis/muscle weaknessBronchorrhea/BradycardiaEmesisLacrimationSalivation/sweatingOrganophosphate insecticide poisoning:One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesteraseFeatures can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)SalivationLacrimationUrinationDefecation/diarrhoeacardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardiamiosis, muscle fasciculation.Organophosphate poisoning is treated with the anti-muscarinic atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Iron absorption occurs primarily in which part of the GIT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Iron absorption occurs primarily in which part of the GIT?

      Your Answer: Terminal ileum

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Like most mineral nutrients, the majority of the iron absorbed from digested food or supplements is absorbed in the duodenum by enterocytes of the duodenal lining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Correct

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality seen in an adult patient with Marfan’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan’s tend to be tall, and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ventral (motor) root is responsible for triceps?

      Your Answer: C8

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      Of the nerve fibers that make up the brachial plexus, C7 mainly forms the radial nerve to innervate the triceps muscle, thus innervating the shoulders, elbow, wrist and hand. C7 is responsible for the triceps reflex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers

      Explanation:

      The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal jointsHeliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swellingShawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light. Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead. Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness of his limbs over 2 months. He noticed that it was particularly difficult for him to get up from the toilet seat and to get out of his car. He also felt some tingling and numbness of his toes at night, which was distressing. He was taking several medications which included Ibuprofen, perindopril, colchicine, vitamin supplements, and indapamide.On examination his pulse was 85/min, blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and fundi revealed arteriovenous nipping. He had proximal lower limb weakness of 4/5 and absent ankle reflexes. Plantar reflexes were upgoing on both sides. His serum creatinine phosphokinase level was normal.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Limb girdle muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Colchicine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity. It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice. Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities. Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The enzyme that catalyses the final step in glycogen synthesis is: ...

    Correct

    • The enzyme that catalyses the final step in glycogen synthesis is:

      Your Answer: Glycogen synthase

      Explanation:

      Glycogen synthase is a key enzyme in glycogenesis, the conversion of glucose into glycogen. This enzyme combines excess glucose residues one by one into a polymeric chain for storage as glycogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous...

    Correct

    • There is normally an inverse relationship between the hepatic artery and portal venous blood flow. This is maintained by:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      There is an inverse relationship between the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein. It is maintained by several factors such as chemicals like adenosine, neurohumoral substances, the morphology of the hepatic portal system (especially the ability of hepatic sinusoids to collapse) and myogenic control which causes vasoconstriction or vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (16/30) 53%
Pharmacology (3/5) 60%
Gastrointestinal (2/5) 40%
Cardiovascular (3/6) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Genetics (4/4) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Passmed