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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in the stomach?

      Your Answer: Gastrin and pepsin

      Correct Answer: Acid pH and pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once secreted, it comes in contact with hydrochloric acid and pepsin, previously formed, and undergoes cleavage to form active pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted when mixed with Type A antibodies. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer: A +ve

      Correct Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      There are two stages to determine the blood group, known as ABO typing. The first stage is called forward typing. In this method, RBCs are mixed with two separate solutions of type A or type B antibodies to see if they agglutinate. If this blood clumps, this indicates the presence of antigens within the blood sample. For example, a sample of type B blood will clump when tested with type A antibodies as it contains type B antigens. Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man was admitted to the surgical ICU following a hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. A full blood count revealed: haematocrit = 30%, erythrocytes = 4 × 106/μ, haemoglobin level = 8 g/dl. To determine the likely cause of his anaemia, red blood cell indices were calculated. Which RBC indices are correct?

      Your Answer: MCHC = haemoglobin concentration × 10/erythrocyte number

      Correct Answer: MCHC = haemoglobin concentration/haematocrit

      Explanation:

      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is calculated simply by dividing the haemoglobin concentration (8 g/dl) by the haematocrit (0.3). The normal range is 31–36 g/dl. This patient has a hypochromic anaemia (MCHC = 8/0.3 = 26.7 g/dl). Dividing the haemoglobin concentration × 10 by erythrocyte number yields mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Normal range is 25.4–34.6 pg/cell and this patient has a significantly reduced cellular haemoglobin content (MCH = 8 × 10/4 = 20 pg/cell). Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is calculated by dividing haematocrit × 1000 by erythrocyte number (4 × 106/μl). Normal range is 80–100 fl and this patient has a microcytic anaemia (MCV = 0.3 × 1000/4 = 75 fl). Microcytic, hypochromic anaemia is characteristic for iron-deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following structures is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium of the stomach during the development of the gut?

      Your Answer: Hepatogastric ligament

      Correct Answer: Greater omentum

      Explanation:

      In a developing foetus, the stomach has two mesogastria from which most of the abdominal ligaments develop. These two mesogastria are the; ventral mesogastrium and the dorsal mesogastrium. During the embryological development of the gut, different organs develop in each mesogastrium; the spleen and pancreas in the dorsal mesogastrium while the liver in the ventral mesogastrium (with their associated ligaments). In the dorsal mesogastrium the following structures develop; the greater omentum (containing the gastrophrenic ligament and the gastrocolic ligament), gastrosplenic ligament, mesentery, splenorenal ligament and phrenicocolic ligament. The structures that develop from the ventral mesogastrium include the; lesser omentum (containing the hepatoduodenal ligament and the hepatogastric ligament) in association with the liver; the coronary ligament (left triangular ligament, right triangular ligament and hepatorenal ligament) and the falciform ligament (round ligament of liver and ligamentum venosum within).

      There are also folds that develop from the dorsal mesogastrium which include; umbilical folds, supravesical fossa, medial inguinal fossa, lateral umbilical fold, lateral inguinal fossa and Ileocecal fold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock? ...

    Correct

    • Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock?

      Your Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      At rest, the brain receives 15% cardiac output, muscles 15%, gastrointestinal tract 30% and kidneys receive 20%. However, if normalised by weight, the largest specific blood flow is received by the kidneys at rest (400 ml/min x 100g), making them highly vulnerable in the case of a haemorrhagic shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Iliohypogastric nerve

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).

      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.

      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.

      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.

      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg...

    Correct

    • What is the likely course of a pulmonary embolism arising from the leg veins and ending in the apical segmental pulmonary artery that supplies the superior lobe of left lung?.

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava – right atrium – tricuspid valve – right ventricle – pulmonary trunk – left pulmonary artery – left superior lobar artery – left apical segmental artery

      Explanation:

      A clot originating in the leg vein will go to the inferior vena cava, into the right atrium, through the tricuspid valve, into the right ventricle, through the pulmonary trunk, into the left pulmonary artery, into the left superior lobar artery and then finally reach the left apical segmental artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus....

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon trainee is assisting in an operation to ligate the ductus arteriosus. The consultant supervising explains that caution is required when placing a clamp on the ductus to avoid injury to an important structure immediately dorsal to it. To which structure is the consultant referring?

      Your Answer: Accessory Hemiazygous vein

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The left recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus and wraps around the aorta, posterior to the ductus arteriosus/ligamentum arteriosum from whence it courses superiorly to innervate the laryngeal muscles.

      Accessory Hemiazygous vein is on the left side of the body draining the posterolateral chest wall and emptying blood into the azygos vein.

      The left internal thoracic artery is branch of the left subclavian artery supplying blood to the anterior wall of the thorax.

      Left phrenic nerve is lateral to the vagus nerve.

      Thoracic duct: is behind the oesophagus, coursing between the aorta and the azygos vein in the posterior chest.

      Right recurrent laryngeal nerve: loops around the right subclavian artery and is not in danger in this procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:

      Your Answer: Amyloidosis

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Touch

      Correct Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/5) 20%
General (0/2) 0%
Abdomen (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (1/4) 25%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Thorax (1/2) 50%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Passmed