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  • Question 1 - Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is true about standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

      SEM = SD / square root (n)

      where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size

      Therefore, the SEM gets smaller as the sample size (n) increases.

      If we want to depict how widely scattered some measurements are, we use the standard deviation. For indicating the uncertainty around the estimate of the mean, we use the standard error of the mean. The standard error is most useful as a means of calculating a confidence interval. For a large sample, a 95% confidence interval is obtained as the values 1.96Ă—SE either side of the mean.

      A 95% confidence interval:

      lower limit = mean – (1.96 * SEM)

      upper limit = mean + (1.96 * SEM)

      Results such as mean value are often presented along with a confidence interval. For example, in a study the mean height in a sample taken from a population is 183cm. You know that the standard error (SE) (the standard deviation of the mean) is 2cm. This gives a 95% confidence interval of 179-187cm (+/- 2 SE).

      Hence, it would be wrong to say that confidence levels do not apply to standard error of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when...

    Correct

    • The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when at rest?

      Your Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Approximately 70% of the heart’s ATP requirement is met by cardiac mitochondria through beta-oxidation of fatty acids at rest. The remaining 30% is supplied by glucose.

      Amino acids and ketones, in the presence of ketoacidosis, may supply at most 10% of the ATP requirement. And, when in high levels, lactate may also contribute to the ATP requirement of the heart, particularly during moments of high muscular activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?

      Your Answer: 68.30%

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

      For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:

      1. Multiply the standard error by 3.

      2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.

      3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.

      For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?

      Your Answer: Tryptase

      Explanation:

      Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is undergoing investigations for coeliac disease. Tissue biopsies were taken from both the small and large intestinal linings.

      Which of the following is found in the small intestine lining but not in that of the large intestine in a normal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Villi

      Explanation:

      The small and large intestinal walls are composed of the following common layers:
      1. Mucosa
      2. Submucosa
      3. Muscularis Externa
      4. Adventitia

      Intestinal villi are highly vascular projections of the mucosal surface that cover the entire small intestinal mucosa. They increase the lumen’s surface area, which aids in absorption and digestion, the primary functions of the small intestine. Villi are large and most abundant in the duodenum and jejunum.

      In both the small and large intestines, the muscularis mucosae are found within the mucosa. The myenteric nerve plexus is found innervating the muscularis externa. The mucosa is lined with columnar epithelial cells, and goblet cells may be present to secrete mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man is being operated on for a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man is being operated on for a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach.

      Which structure needs to be divided to gain access to the coeliac axis?

      Your Answer: Lesser omentum

      Explanation:

      The lesser omentum will need to be divided. This forms one of the nodal stations that will need to be taken during a radical gastrectomy.

      The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
      1. Left gastric
      2. Common hepatic
      3. Splenic arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The most abundant intracellular ion is? ...

    Correct

    • The most abundant intracellular ion is?

      Your Answer: Phosphate

      Explanation:

      Phosphate is the principal anion of the intracellular fluid, most of which is bound to either lipids or proteins. They dissociate or associate with different compounds, depending on the enzymatic reaction, thus forming a constantly shifting pool.

      Calcium and magnesium are also present intracellularly, however in lesser amounts than phosphate.

      Sodium is the most abundant extracellular cation, and Chloride and is the most abundant extracellular anion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which...

    Correct

    • General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C.

      Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?

      Your Answer: Density of the gas

      Explanation:

      Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.

      At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.

      Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.

      Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.

      Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      59
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?

      Your Answer: The tip of a Miller blade is designed to be placed into the vallecula

      Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes

      Explanation:

      Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.

      Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.

      The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.

      The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.

      The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.

      Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and has gone into a cardiogenic shock. As part of her treatment, she is prescribed a dobutamine infusion and placed on full haemodynamic monitoring.

      Over the next four days, her measurement are:

      Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4
      Infusion rate of dobutamine (mcg/kg/min): 5 10 15 25
      Cardiac output (L/min): 3.4 3.2 3.1 3.2
      Pulse rate (beats/min): 110 112 105 100
      Blood pressure (mmHg): 80/60 75/61 83/60 81/56

      Haemodynamic changes are noted as a result of response to treatment. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis secondary to depletion of neurotransmitters

      Correct Answer: Tolerance by down-regulation of beta1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.

      Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.

      Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:

      1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell

      2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.

      In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      92.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Explanation:

      Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.

      Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.

      Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.

      Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been stabbed in an area of the groin that contains the femoral triangle. He will undergo explorative surgery.

      Which of the following makes the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Adductor longus

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.

      Superior: Inguinal ligament
      Medial: Adductor longus
      Lateral: Sartorius
      Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineus

      The contents include: (medial to lateral)
      Femoral vein
      Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
      Femoral nerve
      Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
      Lateral cutaneous nerve
      Great saphenous vein
      Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance...

    Correct

    • Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?

      Your Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      90.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.

    Glucose...

    Correct

    • Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy.

      Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?



      Your Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.

      Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.

      Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.

      In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures? ...

    Correct

    • Prophylactic antibiotics are required for which of the following procedures?

      Your Answer: Appendicectomy

      Explanation:

      Correctly used, antibiotic prophylaxis can reduce
      the total use of antibiotics.
      There is strong scientific support that antibiotic
      prophylaxis reduces the development of infection after:

      • Operations and endoscopic procedures in the large intestine,
        the rectum, and the stomach (including appendectomies and
        penetrating abdominal trauma), and after percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)
      • Cardiovascular surgery, and insertion of pacemakers
      • Breast cancer surgery
      • Hysterectomy
      • Reduction of simple fractures and prosthetic limb surgery
      • Complicated surgery for cancer in the ear, nose, and throat
        regions
      • Transrectal biopsy and resection of the prostate (febrile urinary
        tract infection and blood poisoning).

      In most cases the scientific evidence is inadequate to determine
      which type of antibiotic is most effective for antibiotic prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?

      Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.

      The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).

      The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription.
      He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery.
      The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa.

      What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      71.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old male has Von Willebrand's disease and attends the hospital to get an infusion of desmopressin acetate. The way this works is by stimulating the release of von Willebrand factor from cells, which in turn increases factor VIII and platelet plug formation in clotting.

      In patients that have no clotting abnormalities, the substance that keeps the blood soluble and prevents platelet activation normally is which of these?

      Your Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Even though aprotinin reduces fibrinolysis and therefore bleeding, there is an associated increased risk of death. It was withdrawn in 2007.
      Protein C is dependent upon vitamin K and this may paradoxically increase the risk of thrombosis during the early phases of warfarin treatment.

      The coagulation cascade include two pathways which lead to fibrin formation:
      1. Intrinsic pathway – these components are already present in the blood
      Minor role in clotting
      Subendothelial damage e.g. collagen
      Formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12
      Prekallikrein is converted to kallikrein and Factor 12 becomes activated
      Factor 12 activates Factor 11
      Factor 11 activates Factor 9, which with its co-factor Factor 8a form the tenase complex which activates Factor 10

      2. Extrinsic pathway – needs tissue factor that is released by damaged tissue)
      In tissue damage:
      Factor 7 binds to Tissue factor – this complex activates Factor 9
      Activated Factor 9 works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10

      3. Common pathway
      Activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin and this hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin. It also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      4. Fibrinolysis
      Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate clot resorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:...

    Correct

    • The plateau phase of the myocardial action potential is as a result of:

      Your Answer: Slow influx of calcium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.

      What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?

      Your Answer: L3

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?

      Your Answer: It is the continuation of the sigmoid sinus

      Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.

      It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
      It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.

      The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.

      The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for...

    Incorrect

    • An elective left colectomy is being performed on a 60-year old male for left-sided colon cancer. The upper and lower parts of the descending colon are supplied by the left colic artery.

      Which of the following arteries gives rise to the left colic artery?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta. The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery, arising close to its origin from the abdominal aorta. Other branches of IMA include the three sigmoid arteries that supply the sigmoid colon.

      The left colic artery branches off from IMA to supply the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon and the descending colon. It moves upwards posterior to the left colic mesentery and then travels anteriorly to the psoas major muscle, left ureter, and left internal spermatic vessels, before dividing into ascending and descending branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer: (R)-norketamine

      Correct Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:...

    Correct

    • Compared to the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) has:

      Your Answer: Nicotinic receptors in pre and post ganglionic synapses

      Explanation:

      With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)

      1. It is not under voluntary control
      2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
      3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.

      With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
      1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
      ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
      2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.

      Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.

      The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.

      There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
      Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
      However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.

      The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.

      There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.

      Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.

      The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.

      The cranial outflow consists of
      1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
      2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
      3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
      4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries Âľ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreas

      The sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.

      The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
      Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
      Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.

      Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
      There are:
      M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
      M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
      M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
      M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
      M5 = brain

      The lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      95.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the contents of the porta hepatis?

      Your Answer: Lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Cystic duct

      Explanation:

      The porta hepatis is a fissure in the inferior surface of the liver. All the neurovascular structures that enter and leave the porta hepatis are:
      1. hepatic portal vein
      2. hepatic artery
      3. hepatic ducts
      4. hepatic nerve plexus (It contains the sympathetic branch to the liver and gallbladder and the parasympathetic, hepatic branch of the vagus nerve.)

      These structures supply and drain the liver. Only the hepatic vein is not part of the porta hepatis.
      The porta hepatis is also surrounded by lymph nodes, that may enlarge to produce obstructive jaundice.
      These structures divide immediately after or within the porta hepatis to supply the functional left and right lobes of the liver.

      The cystic duct lies outside the porta hepatis and is an important landmark in laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?

      Your Answer: It has an extensive first pass metabolism when given orally

      Correct Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow

      Explanation:

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
      When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

      Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

      When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

      Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?

      Your Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide

      Explanation:

      Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

      CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
      Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

      When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

      Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

      The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An...

    Correct

    • A 63-year old man has palpitations and goes to the emergency room. An ECG shows tall tented T waves, which corresponds to phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
      The shape of the T wave is as a result of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Repolarisation due to efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure, the ileocolic artery is ligated. Which vessel does this artery originate from?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
      1. terminal ileum
      2. proximal right colon
      3. cecum
      4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)

      As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections—the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).

    Which of the following PTH actions is...

    Correct

    • Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).

      Which of the following PTH actions is most likely to cause calcium to be released from bone?

      Your Answer: Indirect stimulation of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      The hormone parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the receptor parathyroid hormone type 1 (PTH1-Rc) are important regulators of blood calcium homeostasis.

      PTH can cause a rapid release of calcium from the matrix in bone, but it also affects long-term calcium metabolism by acting directly on bone-forming osteoblasts (by binding to PTH1-Rc) and indirectly on bone-resorbing osteoclasts.

      PTH causes changes in the synthesis and/or activity of several proteins, including osteoclast-differentiating factor, also known as TRANCE or RANKL, when it acts on osteoblasts.

      RANK receptors are found on the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursors. The osteoclasts are activated when RANKL binds to the RANK receptors. Osteoclasts lack PTH receptors, whereas osteoblasts do. Osteoclasts are activated indirectly when the RANK receptor binds to the RANKL secreted by osteoblasts, resulting in bone resorption. PTH1 receptors are found in osteoclasts, but they are few.

      PTH activates G-protein coupled receptors in all target cells via adenylate cyclase.

      The PTH2 receptor is most abundant in the nervous system and pancreas, but it is not a calcium metabolism regulator. It is abundant in the septum, midline thalamic nuclei, several hypothalamic nuclei, and the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, as well as the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. Expression in pancreatic islet somatostatin cells is the most prominent on the periphery.

      The distribution of the receptor is being used to test functional hypotheses. It may play a role in pain modulation and hypothalamic releasing-factor secretion control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      58.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Pathophysiology (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (3/9) 33%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/1) 0%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (5/5) 100%
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