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  • Question 1 - Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Defects in chromosomal structure (and examples) include those mentioned below except:

      Your Answer: Inversion

      Correct Answer: Lyonization (x-linked disorders)

      Explanation:

      All are true except for A) Lyonization which is the inactivation of the X chromosomes in a female. It is not a chromosomal abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together...

    Incorrect

    • In DNA cloning and sequencing, the bases in nucleotides chains are bound together by:

      Your Answer: Histones

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen bonding.

      Explanation:

      Nucleotides will always bind together via hydrogen bonds. There are two hydrogen bonds present between thymine and adenine and three hydrogen bonds present between guanine and cytosine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto-...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto- oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes in the following ways.

      Your Answer: Mutations in the genomic DNA

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of P53

      Explanation:

      Proto oncogenes cannot be transformed into oncogenes due to inhibition of P53 gene. There has to be a mutation in the proto oncogene. All the other options are true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • At the end of which phase will P53 halt the cell cycle?

      Your Answer: G2 phase

      Correct Answer: G1 phase

      Explanation:

      P53 regulates the cell cycle. It regulates the progression from G1 to S phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?...

    Incorrect

    • In which phase do chromosomes in the nucleus become condensed into well-defined chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Prophase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto...

    Correct

    • The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed...

    Incorrect

    • The mitochondrial chromosome is a circular DNA molecule. They encode for proteins needed for ATP production. These proteins are also essential for:

      Your Answer: Krebs cycle

      Correct Answer: Apoptotic cell death

      Explanation:

      The intrinsic pathway or the mitochondrial pathway of apoptosis is activated due to the loss of BCL-2 and other antiapoptotic proteins. This loss results in the increased membrane permeability and release of cytochrome C which activates caspases downstream resulting in apoptosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which statement is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Poly a tail is not translated and is preceded by a stop codon, UAA, UAG, UGA.

      Correct Answer: Translation begins when the triplet (UGA) encoding for methionine is encountered.

      Explanation:

      Translation being when the codon for methionine is encountered which is AUG not UGA. This process is known as initiation. All the other options are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrial chromosome defects are inherited from one’s mother

      Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other disease attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects

      Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) does indeed lack introns, meaning that its genes are closely packed with coding sequences. This actually means that any point mutation in the mtDNA is more likely to have an effect, not less. The lack of introns means there are fewer non-coding regions where mutations can occur without affecting gene function. Thus, mutations in mtDNA often have significant consequences because they are more likely to alter essential coding sequences.

      The other statements are true:

      • Most mitochondrial diseases are myopathies and neuropathies with a maternal pattern of inheritance: This is correct because mtDNA is inherited maternally, and many mitochondrial disorders affect muscle and nerve function.
      • Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus, and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other diseases attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects: These are indeed conditions associated with mitochondrial defects.
      • Mitochondrial chromosome defects are inherited from one’s mother: This is correct, as mtDNA is passed from mother to offspring.
      • Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON), the commonest cause of blindness in young men, is an example of a mitochondrial chromosome defect: This is true; LHON is a well-known mitochondrial disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The process by which RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred...

    Incorrect

    • The process by which RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Southern blotting

      Correct Answer: Northern blotting

      Explanation:

      Blots of the gel can be made from using nitrocellulose paper. Northern blots are produced when a fragment of radioactive DNA hybridize with RNA on a nitrocellulose blot of a gel and southern blots are produced when DNA hybrize with DNA on a nitrocellulose blot of the gel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 0n

      Correct Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      5437.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and...

    Correct

    • Which part of the chromosome plays a role in preserving its integrity and stability?

      Your Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur? ...

    Correct

    • During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis occur?

      Your Answer: S

      Explanation:

      DNA synthesis occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle. In the G1 phase the cell prepares to divide. In G2 the cellular organelles divide and in the M phase mitosis occur. In the G0 phase the cell becomes quiescent and does not divide further

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent? ...

    Correct

    • In which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes most obvious or prominent?

      Your Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      Prophase begins when the nucleus envelope disintegrates and the chromosomes start to condense. The chromosomes consist of two sister chromatids that are joined at a constriction known as centromere. When the cell reaches the metaphase the chromosomes are completely condensed and ready to align on the equatorial plate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and...

    Incorrect

    • When one of the two copies of the autosomes has a mutation and the protein produced by the normal form of the gene cannot compensate. The affected individual has an:

      Your Answer: Mitochondrial disease

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant disorder

      Explanation:

      An autosomal dominant trait will be expressed no matter the consequence. If one chromosome has a mutation the other will not be able to compensate for the mutation hence the protein formed will be mutated and will not function properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true:

      Your Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 25% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Correct Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Explanation:

      50% of the children will be effected from parents who are heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder. An allele can be dominant or recessive. Individuals, meanwhile, can be homozygous or heterozygous: individuals who are homozygous for a certain gene carry two copies of the same allele. individuals who are heterozygous for a certain gene carry two different alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons....

    Incorrect

    • Three adjacent nucleotides code for a particular amino acid. These are called codons. How many common amino acids are there and how many potential codon combinations make up the genetic code?

      Your Answer: 12 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Correct Answer: 20 amino acids, 64 codon combinations

      Explanation:

      There are around 20 amino acids and 61 out of the 64 combinations of codon code for these 20 common amino acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as: ...

    Correct

    • In most somatic cells telomeres progressively shorten as:

      Your Answer: The cell divides

      Explanation:

      Telomere length shortens with age. Progressive shortening of telomeres leads to senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells, affecting the health and lifespan of an individual. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely. During replication telomeres may be lost resulting in cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the protective hexametric sequence at the ends of chromosomes called?

      Your Answer: Intron

      Correct Answer: Telomere

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non coding DNA plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for...

    Correct

    • During which phase of meiosis does exchange of genetic material occur accounting for genetic diversity between individuals:

      Your Answer: Prophase 1

      Explanation:

      Prophase 1 has been divided into five different stages ( laptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene ans diakinesis). In prophase 1 chromosomes are going to condense to become visible, each chromosome will contain two chromatids that are joined at the centromere. the nucleolus and nuclear envelope are going to disintegrate. the homologous chromosomes will form tetrad and crossing over will occur between the chromosomes (random exchange of genes), the point of exchange is known as the chiasmata, this increases genetic diversity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Telomerase is active in the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Telomerase is active in the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Stem cells

      Correct Answer: Certain osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Some cells have the ability to reverse telomere shortening by expressing telomerase, an enzyme that extends the telomeres of chromosomes. Telomerase is an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase, meaning an enzyme that can make DNA using RNA as a template.

      Telomerase is not usually active in most somatic cells (cells of the body), but it’s active in germ cells (the cells that make sperm and eggs) and some adult stem cells. These are cell types that need to undergo many divisions, or, in the case of germ cells, give rise to a new organism with its telomeric “clock” reset.
      Interestingly, many cancer cells have shortened telomeres, and telomerase is active in these cells. If telomerase could be inhibited by drugs as part of cancer therapy, their excess division (and thus, the growth of the cancerous tumor) could potentially be stopped.
       A subset of liver cells with high levels of telomerase renews the organ during normal cell turnover and after injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLP) and Gene Knockout Mouse Models. All are true except:

      Your Answer: RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete

      Correct Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In RFLP, polymorphism occurs in 98% of the non coding genome, resulting in no phenotypical change in the organism. A gene is not turned on by a mutation, rather the mutation at the restriction site will alter the DNA and the DNA will now form fragments of different lengths. PCR is a better technique than RFLP.

      A knockout, as related to genomics, refers to the use of genetic engineering to inactivate or remove one or more specific genes from an organism. Scientists create knockout organisms to study the impact of removing a gene from an organism, which often allows them to then learn something about that gene’s function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT X-linked recessive?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia B

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a autosomal recessive disease with an incidence of about 1 in 2500 live births. The most common mutation occurs in the long arm of chromosome 7 which codes for the chloride channel (cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) gene.

      To have CF, a child must inherit two abnormal genes—one from each parent. The recessive CF gene can occur in both boys and girls because it is located on non-sex-linked chromosomes called autosomal chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for telomeres maintaining their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: None of the above telomeres shorten with all cell divisions

      Correct Answer: Telomerase

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is the enzyme responsible for maintenance of the length of telomeres by addition of guanine-rich repetitive sequences. Telomerase activity is exhibited in gametes and stem and tumor cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Gene Knockout Mouse Models, all are true except:

      Your Answer: In knockout mouse models a gene is turned on through targeted mutation

      Explanation:

      In knockout mouse models, a gene is not turned on but rather turned off or “knocked out” through targeted mutation. This involves disrupting or deleting the gene to study the effects of its loss of function. Knockout models are crucial for understanding the roles of specific genes, particularly those with unknown functions.

      The other statements are true:

      • Knockout models are important in studying the roles of sequenced genes with unknown function.
      • RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms) can be subcategorized as SLP (single locus probe) and MLP (multi locus probe).
      • RFLP analysis is slow and cumbersome and is now largely obsolete, having been replaced by more efficient techniques.
      • Sequence changes involved in RFLP can be analyzed more quickly by PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true ...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true

      Your Answer: Females are never affected

      Correct Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders. Dominance rules for sex-linked gene loci are determined by their behaviour in the female: because the male has only one allele (except in the case of certain types of Y chromosome aneuploidy), that allele is always expressed regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true when it comes to tumour suppressor genes:

      Your Answer: Mutation in the Rb gene leads to retinoblastoma

      Correct Answer: All of the options are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding tumour suppressor genes. Tumour suppressor genes generally follow the two-hit hypothesis, which implies that both alleles that code for a particular protein must be affected before an effect is manifested.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Are structures containing one linear molecule of DNA that is wound around histones into small units called nucleosomes, which are further wound up to make the chromosome.

      Correct Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All of the above mentioned statements are true regarding chromosomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which...

    Correct

    • The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which end of the guanosine rich region.

      Your Answer: 3rd end

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5th-3rd direction resulting in extension of the 3rd end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (8/30) 27%
Medicine (8/30) 27%
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