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Question 1
Incorrect
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When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer: Dexmedetomidine
Correct Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve passes through which anatomic structure?
Your Answer: Foramen lacerum
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen ovale. Other structures that pass through this foramen are the accessory meningeal artery, and occasionally, the lesser petrosal nerve.
These are the structures that pass through the other openings in the cranial fossa:
Foramen rotundum – Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve
Foramen lacerum – Greater petrosal nerve, traversed by the internal carotid artery
Superior orbital fissure – Oculomotor nerve; trochlear nerve; lacrimal, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve; abducens nerve, superior ophthalmic vein
Stylomastoid foramen – facial nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?
Your Answer: The tip of a Miller blade is designed to be placed into the vallecula
Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes
Explanation:Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.
Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.
The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.
The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.
The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.
Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.
Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.Your Answer: Specificity
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.
False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).
Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A human's resting oxygen consumption (VO2) is typically 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
Which of the following options is linked to the highest VO2 when a person is at rest?Your Answer: Term pregnancy
Correct Answer: Neonate
Explanation:The oxygen consumption rate (VO2) at rest is 3.5 ml/kg/minute (one metabolic equivalent or 1 MET).
3.86 ml/kg/minute thyrotoxicosisYoung children consume a lot of oxygen: around 7 ml/kg/min when they are born. The metabolic cost of breathing is higher in children than in adults, and it can account for up to 15% of total oxygen consumption. Similarly, an infant’s metabolic rate is nearly twice that of an adult, resulting in a larger alveolar minute volume and a lower FRC.
At term, oxygen consumption at rest can increase by as much as 40% (5 ml/kg/minute) and can rise to 60% during labour.
When compared to normal basal metabolism, sepsis syndrome increases VO2 and resting metabolic rate by 30% (4.55 ml/kg/minute). In septicaemic shock, VO2 decreases.
Dobutamine hydrochloride was infused into 12 healthy male volunteers at a rate of 2 micrograms per minute per kilogramme, gradually increasing to 4 and 6 micrograms per minute per kilogramme. Dobutamine was infused for 20 minutes for each dose. VO2 increased by 10% to 15%. (3.85-4.0 ml/kg/min).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male is diagnosed with superior vena cava obstruction. What is the number of collateral circulations that exist for alternate pathways for venous return?
Your Answer: One
Correct Answer: Four
Explanation:Superior vena cava is the main vein bringing blood back to the heart. It can get partially or completely blocked by various causes, the most common being due to malignant tumours of the mediastinum.
There are collateral pathways that form in long-standing cases with 60% or more stenosis and continue venous drainage in cases of superior vena obstruction. The collaterals are classified into four as follows:
1. The azygos-hemiazygos pathway
Azygos, hemiazygos, intercostal, and lumbar veins.2. The internal and external mammary pathway
internal mammary, superior epigastric, and inferior epigastric veins and superficial veins of the thorax.3. The lateral thoracic pathway
Lateral thoracic, thoracoepigastric, superficial circumflex, long saphenous, and femoral veins to collateralize to the IVC.4. The vertebral pathway
Innominate, vertebral, intercostal, lumbar, and sacral veins to collateralize to the azygos and internal mammary pathways. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.
What is the most significant reason for this?Your Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units
Explanation:In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).
The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.
In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.
PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.
PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.
The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?
Your Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4
Explanation:Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)
Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
Biceps = C5, C6
Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
Triceps = C6, C7
Knee reflex = L3,L4
Ankle reflex = S1Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
Planter response = S1-2
Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
Cremasteric reflex = L1-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding tetracyclines except:
Your Answer: The simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide impedes its absorption
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits (not 50s) which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
They penetrate macrophages and are thus a drug of choice for treating infections due to intracellular organisms.
Tetracycline does not inhibit transpeptidation. Meanwhile, it is chloramphenicol which is responsible for inhibiting transpeptidation.
Tetracycline can get deposited in growing bone and teeth due to its calcium-binding effect and thus causes dental discoloration and dental hypoplasia. Due to this reason, they should be avoided in pregnant or lactating mothers.
Simultaneous administration of aluminium hydroxide can impede the absorption of tetracyclines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:
Your Answer: β2γ2
Correct Answer: α2β2
Explanation:There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
α chains are essential.
δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year old gentleman is in the operating room to have a knee arthroscopy under general anaesthesia.
Induction is done using fentanyl 1mcg/kg and propofol 2mg/kg. A supraglottic airway is inserted and the mixture used to maintain anaesthesia is and air oxygen mixture and 2.5% sevoflurane. Using a Bain circuit, the patient breathes spontaneously and the fresh gas flow is 9L/min. Over the next 30 minutes, the end-tidal CO2 increase from 4.5kPa to 8.4kPa, and the baseline reading on the capnograph is 0kPa.
The most appropriate action that should follow is:Your Answer: Observe the patient for further change
Explanation:Such a high rise of end-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) in a patient who is spontaneously breathing is often encountered.
Close observation should occur for further rises in EtCO2 and other signs of malignant hyperthermia. If this were to rise even more, it might be wise to ensure that ventilatory support is available.
A lot would depend on whether surgery was almost completed. At this stage of anaesthesia, it would be inappropriate to administer opioid antagonists or respiratory stimulants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 72-year-old female is diagnosed with acute mesenteric ischemia.
On CT angiogram, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery is stenosed.
At which vertebra level does the superior mesenteric artery branch from the aorta?Your Answer: L1
Explanation:The superior mesenteric artery branches from the abdominal aorta just 1-2 cm below the origin of the celiac trunk. It lies posterior to the body of the pancreas and splenic vein and is separated from the aorta by the left renal vein. It passes forwards and inferiorly, anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas and the third part of the duodenum, to enter the root of the small bowel mesentery and supply the midgut.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm
T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.
Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?Your Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Where should you insert a needle to obtain a femoral artery sample to be used for an arterial blood gas?
Your Answer: 3cm inferolaterally to the deep inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Mid inguinal point
Explanation:The needle should be inserted just below the skin at the mid inguinal point which is the surface indicator for the femoral artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.
How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?Your Answer: 200
Correct Answer: 150
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (43.9-37.3)
ARR= 6.6
NNT= 1000/6.6
NNT=151.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 16
Correct
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An 80-year-old female suffered a TIA 2 weeks ago. She has been admitted to the vascular ward as she will be undergoing carotid endarterectomy tomorrow morning. To explain the procedure and its complications, the surgeon gives her information about the procedure, telling her the artery will be tied during the operation.
She inquires about the areas supplied by the different arteries. You explain that the internal carotid artery supplies the brain while the external carotid artery ascends the neck and bifurcates into two arteries. One of these arteries is the superficial temporal artery. Which of the following is the second branch?Your Answer: Maxillary artery
Explanation:Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. This procedure is performed to prevent further episodes, especially in patients who have suffered ischemic strokes or transient ischemic attacks.
The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. The maxillary artery is the larger of the two terminal branches and arises posterior to the neck of the mandible.
The other arteries mentioned in the answer options branch off from the following:
Temporal arteries from the maxillary artery
Middle meningeal artery from the maxillary artery
Lingual artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery
Facial artery from the anterior aspect of the external carotid artery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presented to an outpatient clinic with a complaint of a lump in his groin. Physical examination reveals the lumps increase in size while coughing and reduces in size after lying down flat. Based on his age and examination, a diagnosis of direct inguinal hernia was made.
Which structures does the bowel pass through in order to be classed as direct inguinal hernia?Your Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Hesselbach's triangle
Explanation:A hernia is a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall. Inguinal hernias are of two types; Indirect inguinal hernia and Direct inguinal hernia.
– Indirect inguinal hernia is common at young age commonly due to a patent processes vaginalis and bowel passes through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
– Direct hernia forms as a result of the weakening of the posterior wall of the inguinal canal more specifically within a region called ‘Hasselbach triangle. It is defined medially by the rectus abdominis muscle, laterally by the epigastric vessels, and inferiorly by the inguinal ligament.Direct and indirect hernias can be differentiated based on their relation to the inferior epigastric artery. Direct inguinal hernia lies medial to it while indirect inguinal hernia lies lateral to the inferior epigastric artery.
The femoral ring is the site of the femoral hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?
Your Answer: Aminophylline
Correct Answer: Heliox
Explanation:Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:
1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpOâ‚‚ level of 94 98%.
2. Use high-dose inhaled ?â‚‚ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
intravenous ?â‚‚ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.
Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:
Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
CVP 20 mmHg
SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen
What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?Your Answer: An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume
Correct Answer: Biventricular failure
Explanation:The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).
The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).
The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.
120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).
With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.
By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.
Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 46-year old man was taken to the emergency room due to slow, laboured breathing. A relative reported that he's maintained on codeine 60 mg, taken orally every 6 hours for severe pain from oesophageal cancer. His creatinine was elevated, and glomerular filtration rate was severely decreased at 27 ml/minute.
Given the scenario above, which of the metabolites of codeine is the culprit for his clinical findings?Your Answer: Morphine-3-glucuronide
Correct Answer: Morphine-6-glucuronide
Explanation:Accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide is a risk factor for opioid toxicity during morphine treatment. Morphine is metabolized in the liver to morphine-6-glucuronide and morphine-3-glucuronide, both of which are excreted by the kidneys. In the setting of renal failure, these metabolites can accumulate, resulting in a lowering of the seizure threshold. However, it does not occur in all patients with renal insufficiency, which is the most common reason for accumulation of morphine-6-glucuronide; this suggests that other risk factors can contribute to morphine-6-glucuronide toxicity.
The active metabolites of codeine are morphine and the morphine metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide. The enzyme systems responsible for this metabolism are: CYP2D for codeine and UGT2B7 for morphine, codeine-6-gluronide, and morphine-6-glucuronide. Both of these systems are subject to genetic variation. Some patients are ultrarapid metabolizers of codeine and produce higher levels of morphine and active metabolites in a very short period of time after administration. These increased levels will produce increased side effects, especially drowsiness and central nervous system depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.
How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?Your Answer: The systolic pressure and diastolic pressure are lower with a lower mean
Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean
Explanation:Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.
Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.
Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:
Undamped: 0
Critically damped: 1
Optimally damped: 0.64An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.
An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.
Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:
The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair.
What is true regarding the mitral valve?Your Answer: The chordae tendinae anchor the valve directly to the wall of the left ventricle
Correct Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound
Explanation:The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.
The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.
The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricleThe anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).
Which of the following PTH actions is most likely to cause calcium to be released from bone?Your Answer: Interaction with PTH2 receptors
Correct Answer: Indirect stimulation of osteoclasts
Explanation:The hormone parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the receptor parathyroid hormone type 1 (PTH1-Rc) are important regulators of blood calcium homeostasis.
PTH can cause a rapid release of calcium from the matrix in bone, but it also affects long-term calcium metabolism by acting directly on bone-forming osteoblasts (by binding to PTH1-Rc) and indirectly on bone-resorbing osteoclasts.
PTH causes changes in the synthesis and/or activity of several proteins, including osteoclast-differentiating factor, also known as TRANCE or RANKL, when it acts on osteoblasts.
RANK receptors are found on the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursors. The osteoclasts are activated when RANKL binds to the RANK receptors. Osteoclasts lack PTH receptors, whereas osteoblasts do. Osteoclasts are activated indirectly when the RANK receptor binds to the RANKL secreted by osteoblasts, resulting in bone resorption. PTH1 receptors are found in osteoclasts, but they are few.
PTH activates G-protein coupled receptors in all target cells via adenylate cyclase.
The PTH2 receptor is most abundant in the nervous system and pancreas, but it is not a calcium metabolism regulator. It is abundant in the septum, midline thalamic nuclei, several hypothalamic nuclei, and the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, as well as the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. Expression in pancreatic islet somatostatin cells is the most prominent on the periphery.
The distribution of the receptor is being used to test functional hypotheses. It may play a role in pain modulation and hypothalamic releasing-factor secretion control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?
Your Answer: T10
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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All of the following statements about intravenous induction agents are false except:
Your Answer: The action of propofol is terminated by metabolism.
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Thiopental is a new British Approved Name for thiopentone and is thio-barbiturate.
Methohexitone is an oxy- barbiturate. Both thiopental and methohexitone are intravenous induction agents.Ketamine cannot cause loss of consciousness in less than 30 seconds. At least 30 seconds is needed to cause loss of consciousness following intravenous administration.
Etomidate is an imidazole but it is not used in the Intensive Care unit for sedation because it has an antidepressant effect on the steroid axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are preparing to anaesthetize a 27-year-old woman for an acute diagnostic laparoscopy to rule out appendicitis.
She has no medical history and does not take any medications on a regular basis. You're going to do a quick sequence induction.
Which method of preoxygenation is the most effective and efficient?Your Answer: Mapleson D circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg
Correct Answer: Mapleson A circuit with a fresh gas flow of 100 ml/kg
Explanation:Professor Mapleson classified non-rebreathing circuits based on the position of the APL valve, which controls fresh gas flow.
The Mapleson A (Magill) circuit is most effective in spontaneous breathing, requiring only 70-100 ml/kg (the patient’s minute volume) of fresh gas flow. The patient inhales fresh gas from the reservoir bag and tubing during inspiration. During expiration, the patient adds dead space gas (gas that hasn’t been exchanged) to the tubing and reservoir bag in addition to the fresh gas flow. At the patient’s end, alveolar gas is vented through the APL valve. During the expiratory pause, the fresh gas flow causes more gas to be released.
The Mapleson A is inefficient during controlled ventilation. Venting occurs during inspiration rather than during the expiratory phase, as it does during spontaneous ventilation. As a result, unless a high fresh gas flow of >20 L/minute is used, alveolar gas is rebreathed.
During spontaneous ventilation, the Mapleson D circuit is inefficient.
The oxygen concentration in a Hudson mask is insufficient to allow for adequate pre-oxygenation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man complains of severe, central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has a past medical history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
A focused abdominal ultrasonography test (FAST) is performed, revealing diffuse dilatation of the abdominal aorta. The most prominent dilatation is at the bifurcation site of abdominal aorta into the iliac arteries.
What vertebra level corresponds to the site of the most prominent dilatation as evident on the FAST scan?Your Answer: L1
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?
Your Answer: Left subclavian artery
Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery
Explanation:As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.
The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?
Your Answer: Shortening the lengths of tubing has a dampening effect
Correct Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer
Explanation:Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.
It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.
The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).
Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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