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Question 1
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A patient is told to consult a pathologist regarding the stone that was found in his urine. The pathologist describes the stone as laminated, with areas of black staining. Urinalysis indicates hypercalciuria. Which is the most likely type of renal calculus?
Your Answer: Calcium oxylate
Explanation:Hypercalciuria is the most common cause of kidney stone disease. It is an identifiable cause and can be primary (or idiopathic) or secondary. Secondary hypercalciuria might be due to hyperparathyroidism (2-3%), high levels of vitamin D, Cushing’s syndrome, sarcoidosis or milk-alkali syndrome. Hypercalciuria can also be idiopathic and is considered the commonest metabolic abnormality in people with stone disease. Factors favouring stone formation are: abnormal urine constituents, infection and stasis. In these cases, investigations fail to reveal any calcium metabolism disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old infant was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of excessive crying during urination. The urine culture of the infant revealed E.coli. Which of the following investigations should be done next?
Your Answer: MCUG
Correct Answer: US
Explanation:Urine culture confirms a diagnosis of a UTI. A kidney ultrasound will be the next best investigation because it will help us to visualise the bladder, kidneys, and ureters to rule out any congenital obstruction in the urinary tract that might be the actual cause of infection in this 2-month old girl.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the most common problem that can arise in this case?
Your Answer: Protein-calorie malnutrition
Explanation:Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 4
Correct
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Of the following disorders, which one causes acute tubular damage?
Your Answer: Myoglobinuria
Explanation:Myoglobinuria is the condition when there is degeneration of necrosed muscle that it is excreted in the urine. This condition would then cause acute tubular damage leading to renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months' history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea and several episodes of haemoptysis. There is no significant past medical history and he did not take any regular medication. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks 14 units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he is grossly oedematous and has ascites. Cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable and there are no neurological signs or rashes.
Investigation results are below:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dl
White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/l
Platelets 380 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90fl
Na+ 145 mmol/l
K+ 3.7 mmol/l
Urea 8.2 mmol/l
Bilirubin 16 μmol/l
Creatinine 180 μmol/l
Albumin 22 g/l
Aspartate transaminase 32 iu/l
Alkaline phosphatase 120 iu/l
Urinalysis: Protein +++
24 h urinary protein excretion: 5g
Chest radiograph: Enlarged right hilum
Echocardiogram: Mild left ventricular impairment, no valve lesion
Abdominal ultrasound scan: Normal-sized kidneys, no abnormality seen
A renal biopsy was performed. What is it most likely to show?Your Answer: Fusion of podocyte foot processes on electron microscopy
Correct Answer: Thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3
Explanation:Renal biopsy in this patient will most likely show thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3 as a result of membranous glomerulonephritis that has caused the nephrotic syndrome in this patient. Membranous glomerulonephritis in this case is most likely associated with an underlying bronchial carcinoma, consistent with the patient’s smoking history and physical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most common cause for this problem in a child of this age?
Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux
Explanation:Vesicoureteral reflux is the condition when the urine flows backwards from the bladder into the kidneys, which is the most common cause of UTI in patients this age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 37-year-old male patient presented with bilateral kidney stones. He gave a history of sarcoidosis. What is the most probable cause for renal stones?
Your Answer: Hyper calcaemic
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder which may involve the kidneys to a variable degree. Renal calculi have been reported to occur in about 10% of patients with chronic sarcoidosis. Hypercalcaemia due to marked hyperabsorption of dietary calcium, bone resorption and renal tubular calcium reabsorption causes hypercalciuria. Both hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria contribute to nephrolithiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and frank haematuria. He has recently been complaining of generalised malaise and joint pains. Examination reveals jaundice, splenomegaly, and petechiae. His blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg, temperature 37.9oC.
Initial investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl
White cell count 12 × 109/l
Platelets 40 × 109/l
Creatinine 142 μmol/l
Sodium 139 mmol/l
Potassium 4.5 mmol/l
Urea 9.2 mmol/l
Lactate dehydrogenase 495 U/l (10-250)
Urinalysis Protein ++, blood +++
Blood film shows schistocytes
What treatment should NOT be given to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelet transfusion
Explanation:There is a strong suspicion of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) in this patient as he presents with neurological changes (from confusion to convulsions and coma), fever, haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. Additionally, TTP cases may present with jaundice, splenomegaly, and hypertension as seen in this patient. With a diagnosis of TTP, recent studies have shown that platelet transfusion is not recommended in this case because it has been shown to increase the risk for arterial thrombosis and mortality possibly due to increased aggregations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed. When assessing his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which one of the following variables is not required by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum urea
Explanation:A formula for estimating glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is the Modification Diet of Renal Disease (MDRD) equation which takes into account the following variables: serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. Thus, serum urea is not required in this formula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient with hypertension complains of acute urinary retention. He provides a history of urinary frequency for the past 18 months and has been taking Nifedipine and Propranolol for blood pressure control. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his acute presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Calcium channel blockers decrease smooth-muscle contractility in the bladder and this can cause urinary retention.
An enlarged prostate gland could be the reason if he gave a history of obstructive symptoms.
Diabetes presents with polyuria.
Bladder cancer commonly presents with painless haematuria. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency complaining of frank haematuria. There are no associated symptoms. Which of the following would be the most helpful in pointing towards a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic indications for cystoscopy include the following: evaluation of patients with voiding symptoms (storage or obstructive), gross or microscopic haematuria, urologic fistulas, urethral or bladder diverticula and congenital anomalies in paediatric population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant for the purposes of fluid management. Soon after administration he developed hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.
Which diuretic is most likely to have caused this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is known to have significant ototoxicity side-effects although the mechanism is not fully known.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l.
Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy
Explanation:This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old male presented to the emergency with renal colicky pain and a subsequent passage of stone the next day. Radiological examination, however, revealed no signs of calculi. The renal calculus was most likely composed of which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uric acid
Explanation:Calcium-containing stones are relatively radio dense, and they can often be detected by a traditional radiograph of the abdomen that includes the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (KUB film). Some 60% of all renal stones are radiopaque. In general, calcium phosphate stones have the greatest density, followed by calcium oxalate and magnesium ammonium phosphate stones. Cystine calculi are only faintly radio dense, while uric acid stones are usually entirely radiolucent.
Uric acid is the relatively water-insoluble end product of purine nucleotide metabolism. It poses a special problem because of its limited solubility, particularly in the acidic environment of the distal nephron of the kidney. It is problematic because humans do not possess the enzyme uricase, which converts uric acid into the more soluble compound allantoin. Three forms of kidney disease have been attributed to excess uric acid: acute uric acid nephropathy, chronic urate nephropathy, and uric acid nephrolithiasis. These disorders share the common element of excess uric acid or urate deposition, although the clinical features vary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 69-year-old male with a history of Hepatitis C liver cirrhosis presented with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. He had no symptoms of hypovolaemia. Choose the best treatment option to prevent the patient from developing hepatorenal syndrome.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous albumin administration
Explanation:In randomised controlled trials, the administration of albumin has been shown to lower the risk of the hepatorenal syndrome – this is thought to be due to its positive effect on circulatory systems. Diuretics can aid in the prevention of renal failure, but this patient is not showing signs of hypovolaemia. Synthetic disaccharide lactulose is primarily used for the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy, which has no function in preventing hepatorenal syndrome. Limited evidence is available for the use of Neomycin as a treatment for hepatic encephalopathy, but is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a 2 month history of constant abdominal pain and early satiety. He has hypertension for which he takes enalapril.
On examination, he has mild tenderness on both flanks. Well-circumscribed masses are palpable in both the left and right flanks. A soft systolic murmur is heard loudest at the apex.
His observations are heart rate 67/min, blood pressure 152/94 mmHg, temperature 37.2C, respiratory rate 14/min, saturations 97%.
Which additional feature is most likely to be found in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatomegaly
Explanation:This patient shows classic symptoms of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). The abdominal pain and early satiety is caused by the enlarged kidneys that were apparent from the physical examination. Additionally, hypertension is a common symptom along with the systolic murmur that was heard, suggesting mitral valve involvement. In ADPKD cases, the most common extra-renal manifestation is the development of liver cysts which are associated with hepatomegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.
What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infection
Explanation:In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presented with sudden onset severe right sided abdominal pain for the past 30 minutes. The pain radiated to the groin. She vomited once. Her abdomen was non tender. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ureteric colic
Explanation:Characteristic colicky pain and non tender abdomen is characteristic of ureteric colic. Some patients present with urinary symptoms such as haematuria and dysuria, Vomiting is due to activation of sympathetic nervous system due to pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics
Explanation:Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man was admitted with urinary dribbling and incontinence. Upon examination, there is a palpable mass up to the umbilicus. His clothes smell of ammonia and he is known to be a chronic alcoholic. What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urethral catheter
Explanation:It is obvious in this case that chronic alcohol use has contributed to the patient’s urinary incontinence which requires a urethral catheter. Suprapubic catheters are usually preferred in cases of acute urinary retention while condom catheters are indicated in less severe cases of urinary incontinence. We would administer antibiotics if we suspected a urinary infection causing the urinary incontinence, but in this case the cause is obvious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old gentleman with renal cell carcinoma has a haemoglobin of 19 g/dl. Which investigation will conclusively prove that this patient has secondary polycythaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythropoietin level
Explanation:Erythropoietin (EPO) is used to distinguish between primary and secondary polycythaemia. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by tumours in the kidney that may secrete EPO or EPO-like proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response.
His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length.
What would a renal biopsy show?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS
Explanation:HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) show typical findings of scarring called focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and microcystic tubular dilatation, prominent podocytes, and collapsing capillary loops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother due to burning micturition, frequency and urgency. She is also experiencing some suprapubic tenderness. Which of the following investigations should be done initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clean catch of urine for Culture &Sensitivity
Explanation:Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min.
Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function
Explanation:Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old gentleman presents with pain in his right flank and haematuria. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a large 8 × 8 cm solid mass in the right kidney and a 3 × 3 cm solid mass occupying the upper pole of the left kidney.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right radical nephrectomy and left partial nephrectomy
Explanation:This patient presents with the classic triad of renal carcinoma: haematuria, loin pain and a mass in the kidneys. Management will entail right radical nephrectomy because of the 8x8cm solid mass and a left partial nephrectomy of the 3x3cm solid mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which is the most severe form among the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
class I: normal kidney
class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritisClass IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with hypertension:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liddle's syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that presents with hypertension usually in young patients, that do not respond to anti-hypertensive therapy and is later associated with hypokalaemia, low renin plasma, and low aldosterone levels as well. The other conditions listed do not present with hypertension and associated hypokalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 26 year-old gentleman presented with complaints of multiple bruises over his body and reddish urine after a road traffic accident. Labs showed deranged renal function. The best management step would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis occurs after severe muscles injury and the patient presents with myoglobinuria and deranged RFTS. The best initial step in management is fluid resuscitation with normal saline. If initial management fails to treat the patient, we can go to haemodialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female with end-stage renal failure, presented to her doctor with confusion and a flapping tremor. She has not travelled abroad, has not changed her medication, and does not consume alcohol. Which of the following options would explain her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uraemic encephalopathy
Explanation:Uremic encephalopathy is most often associated with a flapping tremor (as observed in this patient) due to the accumulation of urea. A similar kind of ‘flap’ can be observed in decompensated liver disease due to high levels of ammonia, too.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for querying thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after she presented with a temperature of 38.9C. Her subsequent urea and electrolytes showed deteriorating renal function with a creatinine 3 times greater than her baseline.
What is the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally
Explanation:Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterised by the von Willebrand factor (vWF) microthrombi within the vessels of multiple organs. In this condition, the ADAMTS13 metalloprotease enzyme which is responsible for the breakdown of vWF multimer, is deficient, causing its build-up and leading to platelet clots that then decreases the circulating platelets, leading to bleeding in the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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