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Question 1
Correct
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A pregnant patient with a chest infection is worried about the radiation risk of a chest X Ray. How many days of natural background radiation is equivalent to a chest X Ray?
Your Answer: 2.5
Explanation:X-rays carry low levels of risk during pregnancy and are not a significant cause for concern if the total exposure to ionising radiation is less than 5 rads throughout the pregnancy; a chest X-ray is about 0.00007 rads. The amount of radiation generated from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 2.4 days of natural background radiation. Non-urgent radiological tests should, however, be avoided between 10-17 weeks gestation as there is a higher risk of central nervous system teratogenesis during this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.
At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?Your Answer: Days 13-18
Correct Answer: Days 6-12
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days
Correct Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days
Explanation:The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation
Explanation:Radiotherapy works on the principle of ionisation. In particularly that of water leading to the formation of free radicals, these radicals are highly reactive and they react with the DNA leading to damage and cell death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post menopausal uterus?
Your Answer: 14mm
Correct Answer: 4mm
Explanation:In post menopausal women the thickness of the endometrium should be 4mm or less or women on tamoxifen is should be less than 5mm. If it is more than this the patient should be worked up for endometrial carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the maximum normal diameter of the yolk sac on transvaginal ultrasound?
Your Answer: 3mm
Correct Answer: 6mm
Explanation:The yolk sac increases in size up until the 10th week reaching a maximum diameter of 6mm in normal pregnancy. After the 10th week the yolk sac will gradually disappear. It is usually sonographically undetectable by 20 weeks. A yolk sac greater than 6mm diameter is suspicious of failed pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?
Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation
Explanation:Radiotherapy causes ionisation, primarily of water. This leads to hydroxyl and other free radicals being generated. Free radicals are highly reactive and cause DNA damage to cells via their reactions with them. Free radicals are relatively short lived and eventually form stable compounds. The DNA damage leads to cellular death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 8
Correct
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Patients with high risk pregnancy should have a:
Your Answer: Fetal biophysical profile
Explanation:The BPP is performed in an effort to identify babies that may be at risk of poor pregnancy outcome, so that additional assessments of wellbeing may be performed, or labour may be induced or a caesarean section performed to expedite birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles
Explanation:Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:AFI involves measuring the depth of amniotic fluid pockets in all 4 quadrants.
Oligohydramnios AFI< 5cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket < 2cm
Polyhydramnios AFI > 25cm or deepest amniotic fluid pocket > 8cm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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