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  • Question 1 - A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation found on his hands, feet, and mouth. He also saw fresh blood mixed with his stools. Although it has happened before, he doesn't know exactly when it began. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disease. It presents with hyperpigmentation patches on the oral mucosa, lips, palm and soles, and nasal alae. It also presents with hamartomatous polyps in the gut, hence the fresh blood in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is...

    Correct

    • In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?

      Your Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      215.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Normal finding

      Correct Answer: Allergy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic villi is a response to chronic irritation by allergic reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?

      Your Answer: Laxatives

      Explanation:

      Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      63.2
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  • Question 7 - A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?

      Your Answer: Older maternal age

      Correct Answer: Maternal smoking

      Explanation:

      Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P – palpable massP – peristalsisP – projectile vomiting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      30.7
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer: It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium with sheathed flagella

      Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      82.1
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  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      145.8
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  • Question 10 - A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?

      Your Answer: Continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      11.9
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Correct Answer: Xanthomas

      Explanation:

      CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      35.5
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  • Question 12 - A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      35.7
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  • Question 13 - A 3 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of GI...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of GI symptoms whenever she eats cauliflower. Her mother is concerned that she may be allergic, and has kept a food diary and a record of her symptoms. Which of these is LEAST likely to be associated with food allergies?

      Your Answer: Loose, frequent stools

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition in which there is an increased red cell mass and increasing blood viscosity, which decreases its ability to flow. It is not associated with food allergies, but is fundamentally caused by either an overproduction of red blood cells, or a reduction in the volume of plasma. Abdominal pain, constipation, loose and frequent stools, and pallor are all non IGE mediated symptoms of food allergy according to NICE guidelines in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      44.6
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  • Question 14 - A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each...

    Incorrect

    • A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus food poisoning

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      49.5
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  • Question 15 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      88.4
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  • Question 16 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Correct

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      39.5
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  • Question 17 - A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and vomiting. Examination reveals a rigid abdomen and drawing of knees upon palpation. Which is the most appropriate action you should take for this baby?

      Your Answer: Check serum amylase

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is the most suggested case here based on the child’s symptoms. The urgent course of treatment is to bring the child to a paediatric surgical unit. If air reduction attempts fail, surgery will have to be done. Risk factors for intussusception include viral infection and intestinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      96.6
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  • Question 18 - A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?

      Your Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.9
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  • Question 19 - A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He...

    Correct

    • A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He was born at 34 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery and was discharged 4 weeks ago. He is not on any regular medication. Parents said that he brings up small volumes of milk after feeds. This happens approximately twice a day. Observations are all within normal range and examination is unremarkable.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      Gastroesophageal reflux occurs in almost all infants, manifesting as wet burps after feeding. The spit-ups appear effortless and not particularly forceful.Infants in whom reflux has caused GERD have additional symptoms, such as irritability, feeding refusal, and/or respiratory symptoms such as chronic recurrent coughing or wheezing and sometimes stridor. Much less commonly, infants have intermittent apnoea or episodes of arching the back and turning the head to one side (Sandifer syndrome). Infants may fail to gain weight appropriately or, less often, lose weight.Incidence of gastroesophageal reflux increases between 2 months and 6 months of age (likely due to an increased volume of liquid at each feeding) and then starts to decrease after 7 months. Gastroesophageal reflux resolves in about 85% of infants by 12 months and in 95% by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      46.7
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  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      60.5
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  • Question 21 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter infection

      Explanation:

      The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.4
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  • Question 22 - What is the most common position of the appendix? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common position of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Pelvic

      Correct Answer: Retrocecal

      Explanation:

      The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      39.8
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  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      45.3
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  • Question 24 - A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the 50th to the 9th percentile on the growth chart for weight. History reveals the baby vomits after each meal. Gestation and delivery were normal without any perinatal or postnatal complications. The baby was healthy at the new-born examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis affects infants, typically in the second to fourth weeks of life and is caused most commonly by hypertrophy and thickening of the pylorus. It usually presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. The infant usually has a normal appetite. Features include: ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed, constipation and dehydration may also be present and a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      54.4
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  • Question 25 - A 7-month-old baby boy was brought by his parents due to frequently regurgitating...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby boy was brought by his parents due to frequently regurgitating his milk. On examination, he was pale and lethargic. FBC showed a microcytic anaemia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Correct Answer: Hiatus hernia

      Explanation:

      Frequent regurgitation of milk and microcytic anaemia is suggestive of a hiatus hernia. The reflux causes regurgitation of milk and frequent ulceration of the lower oesophageal mucosa potentially resulting in blood loss and anaemia. Duodenal atresia usually presents with bilious vomiting and pyloric stenosis presents with projectile vomiting. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis usually do not present with vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      75.2
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  • Question 26 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:HBsAg PositiveHBeAg PositiveWhat is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer: Give the mother hepatitis B immunoglobulin shortly before birth + the newborn hepatitis B vaccine

      Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18.6
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  • Question 27 - An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stool Culture

      Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      74.4
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  • Question 28 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Correct

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      43.5
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

      Your Answer: The greater curvature of the stomach

      Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum. The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum. The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery. The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      147.2
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  • Question 30 - A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (16/29) 55%
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