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  • Question 1 - A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows: WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7)Platelets: 81Hb: 10.5ESR: 56CRP: 43PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking out to the toilet.Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration.What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pleuritis

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the isolated effect of B2 stimulation on the coronaries? ...

    Correct

    • What is the isolated effect of B2 stimulation on the coronaries?

      Your Answer: Vasodilatation

      Explanation:

      Norepinephrine and epinephrine are agonists for all adrenergic receptor subtypes, although with varying affinities. Based on their physiology and pharmacology, adrenergic receptors have been divided into two principal types: alpha and beta. These types have been further differentiated into alpha-1, alpha-2, b1, and b2 receptors.

      Alpha-1 Receptors are located on postsynaptic cells in smooth muscle and elicit vasoconstriction.

      Alpha-2 receptors are localized on presynaptic membranes of postganglionic nerve terminals that synthesize norepinephrine. When activated by catecholamines, alpha-2 receptors act as negative feedback controllers, inhibiting further norepinephrine release.

      Activation of myocardial b1 receptors stimulates the rate and strength of cardiac contraction, and consequently increases cardiac output. b1 Receptor activation also stimulates renin release from the kidney. Another class of antihypertensive agents acts by inhibiting b1 receptors.

      Activation of b2 receptors by epinephrine relaxes vascular smooth muscle and results in vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol

      Explanation:

      Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreezeFeatures of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertensionStage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme ...

    Correct

    • Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP via which enzyme

      Your Answer: Adenylate cyclase

      Explanation:

      Cyclic AMP is synthesized from ATP by adenylate cyclase located on the inner side of the plasma membrane and anchored at various locations in the interior of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach ...

    Correct

    • HCL is secreted by which cells in the stomach

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What type of intercellular connection found between cardiac muscle fibers allow for the...

    Correct

    • What type of intercellular connection found between cardiac muscle fibers allow for the spread of excitation from one cell to another?

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscles have gap junctions in-between the cells. They form low resistance passages, which allow ions to diffuse through every muscle fiber rapidly and result in the cardiac muscles functioning as a syncytium, without any protoplasmic bridges involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The main source of nutrients in the liver is via the ...

    Correct

    • The main source of nutrients in the liver is via the

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein or hepatic portal vein is a blood vessel that carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver. This blood is rich in nutrients that have been extracted from food, and the liver processes these nutrients; it also filters toxins that may have been ingested with the food. 75% of total liver blood flow is through the portal vein, with the remainder coming from the hepatic artery proper.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

      Explanation:

      In statistical hypothesis testing there are 2 types of errors:- type I: the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true – i.e. Showing a difference between two groups when it doesn’t exist, a false positive. – type II: the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false – i.e. Failing to spot a difference when one really exists, a false negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via: ...

    Correct

    • Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via:

      Your Answer: Cadherins

      Explanation:

      Cadherins are calcium dependant molecules that mediate cell to cell adhesions in epithelial and endothelial cells among others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomere reconstructing enzyme

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain...

    Correct

    • Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain following which environmental conditions?

      Your Answer: Pineal gland, darkness

      Explanation:

      Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland located in the midline attached to the posterior roof of the third ventricle in the brain. Melatonin affects circadian rhythm in the body or the sleep wake cycle. The precursor to melatonin is serotonin and the rate limiting enzyme that converts serotonin to melatonin is low during the day time and reaches its peak during the night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      113.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythropoietin is synthesized by which cells of the nephron?

      Your Answer: Glomerular endothelial cells

      Correct Answer: Tubular interstitial cells

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      416.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure...

    Incorrect

    • What is the effect of catecholamines (i.e. increased heart rate) on the pressure volume loop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shifts the diastolic pressure curve upward and leftward

      Explanation:

      Catecholamines have a positive ionotropic and chronotropic effect on the heart. The ventricles develop greater tension during systole resulting in an increase in the stroke volume. The increase in stroke volume results in a decrease in the end diastolic volume. This pushes the loop towards the left and upwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination shows nasal mucosal ulceration. The doctor suspects Wegener's granulomatosis. Which anatomical area would be most commonly involved in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and medium-sized vessels. Patients typically initially suffer from a limited form that may consist of constitutional symptoms and localized manifestations such as chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, otitis media, ocular conditions. In later stages, more serious manifestations may arise, including pulmonary complications and glomerulonephritis, although the skin, eyes, and heart may also be involved but these lesions are less common. Diagnosis is based on laboratory testing (positive for PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA), imaging, and biopsy of affected organs, which demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. GPA is treated with immunosuppressive drugs, typically consisting of glucocorticoids combined with methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, or rituximab. Relapses are common and the following systems are affected: Lower respiratory tract (95% of cases), renal involvement (80% of cases), skin lesions (45% of cases), ocular involvement (45% of cases) and cardiac involvement (33% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?...

    Incorrect

    • The pontine tegmentum as part of the midbrain, contains which cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN 5 to 8

      Explanation:

      The pontine tegmentum also known as dorsal pons is located within the brain stem. Several cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pontine tegmentum. The nuclei of CN V, CN VI, CN VII and CNVIII are located in the pontine tegmentum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Of the daily production of CSF, the vast majority is produced in the:...

    Incorrect

    • Of the daily production of CSF, the vast majority is produced in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Choroid plexus

      Explanation:

      About 80% of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus. It is also produced by a single layer of column shaped ependymal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage...

    Incorrect

    • During bone growth-the epiphysis are separated from the diaphysis by actively proliferating cartilage known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epiphysial plate

      Explanation:

      The epiphysial plate, physis, or growth plate, is a hyaline cartilage plate located near the ends of long bones; it consists of growing tissue. It is found in children and teenagers; in adults, it is replaced by an epiphysial line or epiphysial closure. The epiphysial plate is divided into zones: zone of reserve, proliferation, maturation and hypertrophy, calcification, and ossification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following refers to the process of decoding messenger RNA into an amino acid sequence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Translation

      Explanation:

      Messenger RNA (mRNA) is decoded in a ribosome, outside the nucleus, to produce a specific amino acid chain, or polypeptide. This is known as translation and follows after the process transcription of DNA to RNA in the cell’s nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The Orthomyxoviruses are a family of RNA viruses that includes six genera: Influenza virus A, Influenza virus B, Influenza virus C, Isavirus, Thogotovirus and Quaranjavirus.The mechanism of the evolutionary force of antigenic shift allows influenza viruses to exchange genes with strains that infect different species. Under this mechanism, a human influenza virus could exchange genes with an avian strain, and that is how pandemic strains arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding transportation of iron in the body, the process in which iron is transported from the enterocyte into the blood occurs using which transporter protein:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferroportin

      Explanation:

      Divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) transport several divalent metals including iron across the enterocyte’s cell membrane into the cell. The cell can then release it into the body via the only known iron exporter in mammals, ferroportin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are true with regard to autosomal recessive disorders:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The T-tubular system in cardiac muscle is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The T-tubular system in cardiac muscle is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transmits action potential from sarcolemma to the SR to allow for Ca2+ release into the cytoplasm

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ from the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors, which are voltage gated calcium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called: ...

    Incorrect

    • An exaggerated response to a noxious stimulus is called:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperalgesia

      Explanation:

      Allodynia is the sensation of pain following non-painful stimulation.

      Hyperalgesia is enhanced intensity of pain sensation.

      Causalgia is a constant burning pain resulting from peripheral nerve injury.

      Hyperesthesia is the abnormal increase in sensitivity to stimuli of sense.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Eosinophils provide immunity against ...

    Incorrect

    • Eosinophils provide immunity against

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multi cellular parasites

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils, are a variety of white blood cells and one of the immune system components responsible for combating multicellular parasites and certain infections in vertebrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is least likely to exhibit the Koebner phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      The Koebner phenomenon refers to skin lesions appearing on lines of trauma, exposure to a causative agents including: molluscum contagiosum, warts and toxicodendron dermatitis or secondary to scratching rather than an infective or chemical cause include vitiligo, psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen nitidus, pityriasis rubra pilaris, and keratosis follicularis (Darier disease).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      1 molecule of myosin binds to actin at any give time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the function of the macula densa, located in the wall of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of the macula densa, located in the wall of the thick ascending limb?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubuloglomerular feedback.

      Explanation:

      Macula densa cells sense changes in sodium chloride level, and will trigger an autoregulatory response to increase or decrease reabsorption of ions and water to the blood (as needed) in order to alter blood volume and return blood pressure to normal. Tubuloglomerular feedback is one of several mechanisms the kidney uses to regulate glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It involves the concept of purinergic signalling, in which an increased distal tubular sodium chloride concentration causes a basolateral release of adenosine from the macula densa cells. This initiates a cascade of events that ultimately brings GFR to an appropriate level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the smallest cell of the nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      Microglia are the smallest of the neuroglial cells in the nervous system. They are scattered throughout the central nervous system and have phagocytic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What catalyses the conversion of adenosine to inosine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What catalyses the conversion of adenosine to inosine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine deaminase

      Explanation:

      Adenosine deaminase (ADA) is an enzyme involved in purine metabolism. It is needed for the breakdown of adenosine from food and for the turnover of nucleic acids in tissues. ADA irreversibly deaminates adenosine, converting it to the related nucleoside inosine by the substitution of the amino group for a keto group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Medicine (11/12) 92%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Research Skills (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Passmed