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  • Question 1 - A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that...

    Correct

    • A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that moves with tongue protrusion. The swelling is present between the thyroid cartilage and the tongue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      The thyroglossal duct cyst is the most common congenital anomaly of the central portion of the neck. The thyroglossal duct cyst is intimately related to the central portion of the hyoid bone and usually elevates along with the larynx during swallowing. Thyroglossal cysts can be defined as an irregular neck mass or a lump which develops from cells and tissues left over after the formation of the thyroid gland during the developmental stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis was initiated on treatment. A month later, he presents with anorexia, malaise, reduced urine output and fever. Laboratory investigations reveal: Hb - 12.6 g/dL WBC Count - 13,000/µL Urea - 30 mmol/L Creatinine - 400 µmol/L| andUrinalysis shows numerous pus cells. What is the probable cause of the presenting symptoms of the patient?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid toxicity

      Correct Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, the most likely cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is acute interstitial nephritis secondary to anti-tubercular therapy (ATT)Drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis can occur following treatment with beta-lactams, sulphonamides, rifampicin, ethambutol, and erythromycin. They can cause an acute allergic reaction with the infiltration of immune cells.Acute interstitial nephritis is said to be the most common renal complication in patients undergoing anti-TB treatment. Rifampicin is the most implicated drug, although ethambutol can also be a cause. The pathogenesis involves an immune-complex mediated acute allergic response, which leads to their deposition on renal vessels, the glomerular endothelium, and the interstitial area. Other options:Isoniazid does not affect the kidneys. Pulmonary-renal syndrome is a feature of Goodpasture’s syndrome. It is characterized by renal failure and lung haemorrhage. Severe cardiac or renal failure ensues and is complicated by pulmonary oedema, systemic lupus erythematosus, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and cryoglobulinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a tree climbing accident in which a small branch gave way, leaving him suspended by one arm. He can move his arm into any position but is unable to use his hand effectively.Which of the following structures has he most likely damaged in the accident?

      Your Answer: The C6 nerve root

      Correct Answer: The T1 nerve root

      Explanation:

      The boy is most likely to have sustained an injury to his brachial plexus as a result of upward traction of his arm for an extended period of time. We can rule out the topmost nerve roots of the brachial plexus, C6 and C7 as these supply the larger muscles of the arm responsible for moving the shoulder, the elbow and the wrist. The anatomical structure affected is therefore the T1 nerve root which is responsible for movement of the muscles in the hand. This type of injury is called a Klumpke’s Palsy, which is the result of a hyper-abducted trauma to the arm, damaging the C8 and T1 nerve roots. While the radial and ulnar nerve also innervate the hand, the history given points to Klumpke’s palsy as the best explanation for this mechanism of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalic inclusion disease is a milder form, resulting in less neurological deficit

      Correct Answer: Petechiae are due to thrombocytopenia

      Explanation:

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most frequent cause of congenital infection worldwide, with an estimated incidence in developed countries of 0.6–0.7% of all live births.The clinical spectrum of congenital CMV infection varies widely, from the complete absence of signs of infection (asymptomatic infection) to potentially life-threatening disseminated disease. At birth, 85–90% of infected infants are asymptomatic, and 10–15% present with clinical apparent infection (symptomatic disease).The presentation in this latter group is a continuum of disease expression whose more common findings are petechiae, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, microcephaly, and other neurologic signs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Haemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with which of the given laboratory findings? ...

    Correct

    • Haemolytic uremic syndrome is associated with which of the given laboratory findings?

      Your Answer: Low platelet count

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic uremic syndrome belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders characterized by a triad of thrombocytopenia, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and acute kidney injury. It is one of the most common causes of renal injury in children. The clinical findings are due to thrombotic microangiopathy, which leads to arterioles and capillary wall thickening along with endothelial swelling and detachment. The significant laboratory findings include increased white cell count, raised serum urea and creatinine, increased serum LDH, decreased platelet count, haematuria, and proteinuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      98.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male was just hit by a car and brought by a helicopter to the emergency department. He is intubated and you want to avoid secondary brain injury. Which of the following measures is not indicated to prevent secondary brain injury?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Low oxygen delivery in hypotension, hypoxia, oedema, intracranial hypertension or changes in cerebral blood flow should all be prevented to avoid secondary brain injury. There is no evidence to suggest that hypothermia prevents secondary brain injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old girl complains of a paravaginal mass. Biopsy was taken which confirmed...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl complains of a paravaginal mass. Biopsy was taken which confirmed a diagnosis of rhabdomyosarcoma. The likely cell of origin is a?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle cell

      Explanation:

      Rhabdomyosarcoma originates from skeletal muscle cells. A biopsy is needed for grading according to microscopy. Most patients are adult females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?...

    Incorrect

    • Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Left upper zone

      Correct Answer: Right upper zone

      Explanation:

      The azygos lobe is usually well seen on the chest radiograph, where it is limited by the azygos fissure, a fine, convex (relative to the mediastinum) line that crosses the apex of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity

      Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer: CT of the neck

      Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and...

    Correct

    • A 12 hour old baby is seen to be cyanotic whilst feeding and crying. A diagnosis of congenital heart disease is suspected by the team of doctors. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Answer: Transposition of the great arteriesTransposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion that presents in neonates. The hallmark of transposition of the great arteries is ventriculoarterial discordance, in which the aorta arises from the morphologic right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the morphologic left ventricle.Infants with transposition of the great arteries (TGA) are usually born at term, with cyanosis apparent within hours of birth.The clinical course and manifestations depend on the extent of intercirculatory mixing and the presence of associated anatomic lesions. Note the following:Transposition of the great arteries with intact ventricular septum: Prominent and progressive cyanosis within the first 24 hours of life is the usual finding in infants if no significant mixing at the atrial level is evident.Transposition of the great arteries with large ventricular septal defect: Infants may not initially manifest symptoms of heart disease, although mild cyanosis (particularly when crying) is often noted. Signs of congestive heart failure (tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and failure to gain weight) may become evident over the first 3-6 weeks as pulmonary blood flow increases.Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction: Infants often present with extreme cyanosis at birth, proportional to the degree of left ventricular (pulmonary) outflow tract obstruction. The clinical history may be similar to that of an infant with tetralogy of Fallot.Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary vascular obstructive disease: Progressively advancing pulmonary vascular obstructive disease can prevent this rare subgroup of patients from developing symptoms of congestive heart failure, despite a large ventricular septal defect. Most often, patients present with progressive cyanosis, despite an early successful palliative procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?

      Your Answer: Surveillance colonoscopy every 1–2 years from the age of 16 years onwards

      Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years

      Explanation:

      Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a 38.4°C fever and 15 minute tonic clonic seizure episode at home. However, he is conscious now, his temperature is normal and the fit has stopped. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Febrile seizures are convulsions that can happen when a child, most often between the ages of six months and three years, has a fever. They usually last for less than five minutes and although the child may lose consciousness, they are relatively harmless. However, sometimes they can last for up to 15 minutes and when they are termed complex febrile seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Down syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal...

    Correct

    • A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?

      Your Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      93.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21?

      Your Answer: Atlantoaxial instability

      Correct Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 in all the body cells, mostly due to non-disjunction during gametogenesis. Robertsonian translocation occurs only in about 2-4% of the cases. A variety of clinical features are found in trisomy 21 due to multi-system involvement but the hallmark is hypotonia, which is present in almost all the cases of trisomy 21. Different types of leukemias are also found in association with down’s syndrome, but they are not the hallmark. Atlantoaxial subluxation is secondary to hypotonia, which induces joint and ligament laxity. Other clinical findings are hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, Hirschsprung’s disease, and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur...

    Incorrect

    • Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Fatty liver

      Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an...

    Correct

    • A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an X-ray, a pelvic U/S and a brain MRI. Which of the following reasons would result in an advanced bone age?

      Your Answer: Androgen excess

      Explanation:

      Androgen excess is one of the most common causes of advanced bone age. It usually occurs in precocious puberty or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Maternal weight gain is maximum during mid-pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Teenagers may have poor eating habits and neglect to take their vitamin supplements. They are less likely than older women to be of adequate pre-pregnancy weight or to gain an adequate amount of weight during pregnancy. Low weight gain increases the risk of having a low birthweight baby. Weight gain is maximal during the 2nd trimester.aPTT and gallbladder emptying is decreased during pregnancy whereas d-dimers is increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Correct

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6 year old child presents with clinical features of nephrotic syndrome and...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with clinical features of nephrotic syndrome and a history of hypertension. He has normal serum cholesterol levels, however, his urine microscopy reveals oval fat bodies. Which of the following most likely represents the cause of the nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis presents with mild or benign urinalysis findings. However, proteinuria together with the presence of oval fat bodies are typical.Minimal change glomerulonephritis (nephropathy) accounts for most cases of childhood nephrotic syndrome and 20–25% of adult nephrotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following cell types makes a significant contribution to the blood...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cell types makes a significant contribution to the blood brain barrier?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Explanation:

      The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is a term used to describe the unique properties of the microvasculature of the central nervous system (CNS). CNS vessels are continuous nonfenestrated vessels, but also contain a series of additional properties that allow them to tightly regulate the movement of molecules, ions, and cells between the blood and the CNS.Blood vessels are made up of two main cell types: Endothelial Cells (ECs) that form the walls of the blood vessels, and mural cells that sit on the abluminal surface of the EC layer. The properties of the BBB are largely manifested within the ECs, but are induced and maintained by critical interactions with mural cells, immune cells, glial cells, and neural cells, which interact in the neurovascular unit.Astrocytes are a major glial cell type, which extends polarized cellular processes that ensheath either neuronal processes or blood vessels.This includes regulating the contraction/dilation of vascular smooth muscle cells surrounding arterioles as well as PCs surrounding capillaries. Astrocytes have been identified as important mediators of BBB formation and function because of the ability of purified astrocytes to induce barrier properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress syndrome (SDLD)?

      Your Answer: Caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypertension

      Explanation:

      Insufficient surfactant production in premature infants leads to respiratory distress syndrome or surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), characterized by structurally immature lungs. There are many risk factors of this disease, some of them include male gender, caesarean section, infants of diabetic mothers, being the second born of the premature twins, perinatal asphyxia, sepsis, and hypothermia. Maternal hypertension is not a recognized risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome| instead, pregnancy-induced hypertension and chronic maternal hypertension are the protective factors against this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This...

    Correct

    • A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Gastrocolic reflex

      Explanation:

      The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost...

    Correct

    • An infant born at 34 weeks was kept in the incubator for almost a month. Physical examination revealed a heart murmur, which however was not present at discharge. What is the most probable cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer: PDA

      Explanation:

      PDA is particularly common in premature babies and it is managed by indomethacin administration. However, if PDA is not the only defect, prostaglandin E1 can be administered in order to keep the ductus open until the surgery takes place.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in his left ear. Which of the following can be considered as the most appropriate method to remove the insect?

      Your Answer: Syringe the ear with warm water

      Explanation:

      Removal of foreign bodies from the ear is indicated whenever a well-visualized foreign body is identified in the external auditory canal. Insects are better extracted with suction than with forceps or hooks. From the given answers, irrigation with warm water is the most suitable answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait and dysarthria. On examination, he is found to have ataxia, absent tendon reflexes, and nystagmus. His intelligence is well preserved. Additionally, distal muscle weakness was noted in hands and feet. He is also diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ataxia telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be Friedreich’s ataxia.Friedreich’s ataxia is also called spinocerebellar degeneration. It is an autosomal recessive condition. The onset of ataxia is around ten years of age. Intelligence is preserved. Cerebellar impairment, distal muscle weakness, pes cavus, hammer-toes and progressive kyphoscoliosis are present. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, particularly the ankle jerk. Loss of vibration and position sense occurs because of degeneration of the posterior columns. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can occur with progression to congestive cardiac failure.Other options:- Ataxia Telangiectasia: ataxia develops earlier, around two years of age, with loss of ambulation by adolescence. Nystagmus is present. Telangiectasia becomes evident by mid-childhood and is found on bulbar conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose and on the ears. These children have an increased risk of developing lymphoreticular malignancies.- Abetalipoproteinemia: begins in childhood with steatorrhea and failure to thrive. Neurological symptoms appear in late childhood. These include ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuritis, abnormalities in position and vibration sense, muscle weakness and mental retardation. Vitamin E is undetectable in serum in these patients.- Acute cerebellar ataxia: occurs in children of 1-3 years of age and is a diagnosis of exclusion. It often follows acute viral infections like varicella, coxsackievirus or echovirus by 2-3 weeks. It is an autoimmune response to a viral agent affecting the cerebellum. Prognosis is excellent with complete recovery present. Very small numbers have long term sequelae like ataxia, incoordination, speech disorder and behavioural problems.- Acute labyrinthitis: It is difficult to differentiate acute labyrinthitis from acute cerebellar ataxia in a toddler. It is associated with middle ear infections, vertigo and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      73.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presents to the clinic with weight loss and bloody diarrhoea. Examination of the abdomen is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Answer: Inflammatory bowel diseaseThe inflammatory bowel diseases (IBDs), including ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease, are chronic inflammatory disorders of the gastrointestinal tract most often diagnosed in adolescence and young adulthood, with a rising incidence in paediatric populations. Inflammatory bowel disease is caused by a dysregulated mucosal immune response to the intestinal microflora in genetically predisposed hosts. Although children can present with the classic symptoms of weight loss, abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhoea, many present with nonclassical symptoms of isolated poor growth, anaemia, or other extraintestinal manifestations.Colorectal Carcinoma (CRC) is rare in patients less than 20 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      8.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (2/3) 67%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Neonatology (1/3) 33%
Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/4) 25%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Passmed