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  • Question 1 - Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Communicating hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Prominent maxilla

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is one of the commonest forms of skeletal dysplasias that lead to dwarfism. Multiple skeletal deformities are associated with it but the common cranial abnormalities are macrocephaly, frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, narrowed foramen magnum, and the presence of communicating hydrocephalus. A prominent maxilla is not associated with achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives,...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?

      Your Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Correct

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      94.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?

      Your Answer: Splitting of the capillary basement membrane

      Correct Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells

      Explanation:

      The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A new-born has a reduced red reflex in his left eye. Which of...

    Correct

    • A new-born has a reduced red reflex in his left eye. Which of the following should be the main differential diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital cataract

      Explanation:

      Cataracts in infants are most commonly identified by an abnormal red reflex. Due to the high risk of amblyopia in unilateral cataracts, prompt referral to a paediatric ophthalmologist is indicated. Bilateral cataracts may occur in association with several syndromes or diseases, and these children require evaluation for these systemic disorders.Retinoblastoma is rare, but it is the most common primary intraocular tumour in children. About 80% of cases are diagnosed before age 4, with a median age at diagnosis of 2 years. It most frequently presents due to an abnormal red reflex. It is one of the few life-threatening disorders encountered in paediatric ophthalmology. Intraocular retinoblastoma is very treatable, but the mortality for metastatic disease is high. Identification of tumours before systemic spread is critical. Most children with large unilateral tumours will require enucleation (surgical removal of the eye), but the eye and vision may sometimes be preserved if the tumours are identified when they are small.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement? ...

    Incorrect

    • Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?

      Your Answer: Raised free T3

      Correct Answer: Low serum creatinine

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factors is the most likely etiological factor for abnormally short stature amongst children?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial/inherited short stature is the most likely and commonest factor resulting in short stature among the children. Klinefelter syndrome is characterised by tall stature, widely spaces nipples and infertility. Other factors include congenital heart disease, maternal deprivation and diabetes mellitus but these are the rare causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?

      Your Answer: Student's t-test (paired)

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
      Parametric tests:
      Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
      Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlation

      Non-parametric tests:
      Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
      Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
      chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
      Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.

      The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
      This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally,...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl’s twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?

      Your Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype

      Explanation:

      HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Hypoplastic left heart

      Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation| – Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc. Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD| rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      61.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the...

    Incorrect

    • Two boys were playing when one of them brought the forearm of the other behind his back. This resulted in a stretching of the lateral rotator of the arm. Which of the following muscles was most likely to have been involved?

      Your Answer: Supraspinatus

      Correct Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      There are two lateral rotators of the arm, the infraspinatus and the teres minor muscles. The infraspinatus muscle receives nerve supply from C5 and C6 via the suprascapular nerve, whilst the teres minor is supplied by C5 via the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder?

      Your Answer: WT-1 mutation (Denys-Drash syndrome)

      Correct Answer: XXX (Triple X Syndrome)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is triple X syndrome with a genotype of XXX and an almost normal female phenotype. The extra X chromosome is inactive. The final phenotype of an individual is determined after normal sexual and gonadal differentiation, a process that involves several genes located on chromosomes X and Y. Disorders of sexual differentiation result in cases of ambiguous genitalia and are caused by a number of genetic abnormalities. Among these disorders is the turner syndrome with a genotype of 45X0, characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and ovarian failure. DAX-1 gene mutation leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which results in virilization of female external genitalia. Campomelic dysplasia results from mutation of the SOX-9 gene, leading to 46XY sex reversal. Danys-Drash syndrome is characterized by disordered sexual development in affected males due to the mutated WT-1 gene, which also causes Wilm’s tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria| proteinuria (10g/24h)| creat60umol/l| and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old female is brought by her parents who are concerned regarding her development. Which of the following is expected of developmental milestones at this age?

      Your Answer: They enjoy playing with their parents

      Explanation:

      6 month old babies that go through normal developmental milestones, should enjoy playing with others and especially their parents.The other milestones are expected of a 9-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female arrives at the clinic complaining of a facial rash and stiffness in her joints. On examination, she has +1 oedema, slightly swollen metacarpophalangeal joints and ulceration of her buccal mucosa. Her BP is 145/95. Serum creatinine is 92 x 10^12/l. Urinalysis is significant for blood and protein, both +3. High titres of anti-dsDNA are detected in her serum. Which of the following histological changes would be observed in the renal tissue?

      Your Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with deposits of IgG, IgM and C3

      Explanation:

      Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is a term used to describe a distinct histologic form of glomerulonephritis common to various types of systemic inflammatory diseases, including autoimmune disorders (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]), vasculitis syndromes (e.g., granulomatosis with polyangiitis), and infectious processes. In DPGN, more than 50% of the glomeruli (diffuse) show an increase in mesangial, epithelial, endothelial (proliferative), and inflammatory cells (i.e., glomerulonephritis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      56.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy was admitted with a burn that looks third or fourth degree upon inspection. He has not stopped crying. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: IV fluid start

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration due to his full thickness burn so IV fluids is the next most appropriate step. The greatest loss of plasma occurs in the first 12 hours after burn injury. The plasma loss then slowly decreases during the second 12 hours of the post-burn phase, although extensive leakage can continue for up to three days (Ahrns, 2004). Optimal fluid replacement during this period is essential to ensure cardiac output and renal and tissue perfusion. Usually, 36 hours post-burn, capillary permeability returns to normal and fluid is drawn back into the circulation. Burns of more than 15% of surface body area in adults and of over 10% in children warrant formal resuscitation.The Parkland formula for the total fluid requirement in 24 hours is as follows:4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg)|50% given in first eight hours|50% given in next 16 hours.Children receive maintenance fluid in addition, at an hourly rate of:4ml/kg for the first 10kg of body weight plus|2ml/kg for the second 10kg of body weight plus|1ml/kg for >20kg of body weight.End pointUrine – adults: 0.5–1.0 ml/kg/hour|Urine – children: 1.0–1.5ml/kg/hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is hit by a car at a speed of 40 mph. He sustained a head injury and was intubated at the scene due to reduced GCS. In the emergency department, he is stable with no chest abnormalities on examination. Some bruising was noted in the lower abdomen. Which of the following would be the most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child?

      Your Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis

      Correct Answer: CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate imaging modalities to be used in this child would be CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis and chest X-ray (CXR).The C-spine cannot be cleared, this alongside a multi-trauma presentation means a CT C-spine is indicated rather than X-rays alone. The imaging modality for blunt trauma to the chest is CXR| if this shows significant thoracic trauma, a CT chest should be considered. Other options:- CT Head and Abdomen/Pelvis with CXR and X-ray C-spine: This child is at risk of C-Spine injury following the mechanism of trauma. He had a reduced GCS, has undergone a multi-region trauma and is now intubated. NICE head injury guidelines, therefore, recommend using CT.- CT Head, C-spine and Abdomen/Pelvis X-rays: Imaging of the chest is required following blunt trauma and for endotracheal tube position.- MRI Head: If there were concerns of abnormal neurology, then spinal MRI could be considered.- Whole-body CT: It is not recommended in children in view of the high radiation doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      78.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not having opened his bowels. On examination, the anus is not visible, and meconium is coming out of the urethra. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is most accurate?

      Your Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with recto-urethral fistula and urgent micturating cystourethrogram needed

      Correct Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto urethral fistula, urgent defunctioning colostomy needed

      Explanation:

      Anorectal malformations (ARMS) are also known as imperforate anus (IA). This is an umbrella term for a group of birth defects which affect the anorectal area.During a normal bowel movement, solid waste passes from the colon (large intestine) to the rectum (the final section the colon) and through the anus. When a child has an ARM, the rectum and the anus do not develop properly.Some types of ARM can cause constipation, faecal and / or urinary incontinence, infections and other problems. Some of these problems are very minor and easy to treat, with great long-term prognosis. Others are complex and affect multiple areas of life, such as sexual function and urinary and bowel control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      60.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      87.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy diagnosed for the first time with nephrotic syndrome presents with oedema, low serum albumin and proteinuria. In which of the following circumstances is albumin infusion indicated?

      Your Answer: Capillary refill time of 5 seconds

      Explanation:

      In nephrotic syndrome, one of the main pathological processes is the excretion of protein by the kidneys. The resultant signs including| low serum albumin, oedema and hypovolemia all occur as a result of fluid escaping into the extracellular space due to a low oncotic pressure. While an albumin infusion may help to increase oncotic pressure, its indications specifically include hypovolemia, which is assessed by a capillary refill time more than 5 seconds, an elevated haematocrit, or severe symptomatic oedema, such as scrotal oedema. Hypertension not an indication for an infusion, and most patients needing an albumin infusion have oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the best study design to use when trying to determine a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the best study design to use when trying to determine a causal relationship between a certain factor and the onset of a rare disease?

      Your Answer: Cohort

      Correct Answer: Case–control

      Explanation:

      Case control studies are used to determine the relationship between exposure to a risk factor and the resultant outcomes. It finds patients in the general population who have a certain condition and retrospectively searches for past exposure to possible risk factors for the disease. Controls are people who do not have the disease found in the general population. This type of study is useful for rare diseases, and is less time consuming to conduct. While cohort studies can be used to study rare diseases they measure the relative risk of developing the disease over time based on exposure. Ecological or cross-sectional studies attempt take a snapshot of a whole population, and thus are inappropriate for rare diseases as larger sample numbers are needed. A randomised control trial is better suited to determine the effect of an intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Correct Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Peeling skin

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is true of miliaria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of miliaria?

      Your Answer: Miliaria rubra produces subtle asymptomatic flesh coloured papules

      Correct Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles

      Explanation:

      Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Tetanus vaccine + antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Cleansing and debridement is paramount in dealing with tetanus-prone wounds (severe crushing injuries, piercing wounds, blisters and burns are outstanding examples, particularly if contaminated with dirt, grass or other debris).Prophylaxis then is relatively easy in persons who have been actively immunized by toxoid injections. For them, a “booster” injection is indicated. There is experimental evidence that antibiotics of the tetracycline group, given soon after injury, may have prophylactic effect against tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Sub dural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      24.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (0/3) 0%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/3) 33%
Nephro-urology (2/3) 67%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (2/4) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Passmed