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Question 1
Correct
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A healthy 12-month-old infant should be able to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Wave bye -bye
Explanation:Milestones of 12-month-old child are as follows:Social and Emotional- Is shy or nervous with strangers- Cries when mom or dad leaves- Has favourite things and people camera- Shows fear in some situations- Hands you a book when he wants to hear a story- Repeats sounds or actions to get attention- Puts out arm or leg to help with dressing – Plays games such as “peek-a-boo” and “pat-a-cake” Language/Communication- Responds to simple spoken requests- Uses simple gestures, like shaking head “no” or waving “bye-bye”- Makes sounds with changes in tone (sounds more like speech)- Says “mama” and “dada” and exclamations like “uh-oh!”- Tries to say words you sayCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Explores things in different ways, like shaking, banging, throwing- Finds hidden things easily- Looks at the right picture or thing when it’s named- Copies gestures- Starts to use things correctly| for example, drinks from a cup, brushes hair- Bangs two things together- Puts things in a container, takes things out of a container- Lets things go without help- Pokes with index (pointer) finger – Follows simple directions like “pick up the toy”Movement/Physical Development- Gets to a sitting position without help – Pulls up to stand, walks holding on to furniture (“cruising”)- May take a few steps without holding on- May stand alone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 2
Correct
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A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gilbert’s disease
Explanation:People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 3
Correct
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In which of the following ethnic backgrounds are Mongolian blue spots most likely to be found?
Your Answer: White European
Explanation:Mongolian spots are, hyper-pigmented, non-blanching patches present on the back and gluteal region at birth. They are commonly found in African and Asian ethnic groups, and can also present in infants of Mediterranean and middle eastern descent. Though the spots usually disappear by puberty, some may persist into adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?
Your Answer: Urethral valves
Explanation:The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl presents to the clinic with sore throat and a small painful ulcer in her mouth since yesterday and small painful ulcers on palms and soles that are not itchy. She is febrile (38.5 degree Celsius) and is refusing to eat for the past two days. Which of the following will be the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Herpes Simplex virus
Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus
Explanation:Coxsackie viruses are a group of RNA viruses with over 20 serotypes| depending on specific viral characteristics, these serotypes are further divided into groups A and B. Infection is associated with a wide range of symptoms, which are dependent on the exact serotype. Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD) and herpangina are commonly caused by group A coxsackie viruses, while pleurodynia and myocarditis are caused by group B coxsackie viruses. Both groups may cause viral meningitis, conjunctivitis, or flu‑like symptoms. Diagnostic procedures and treatment should be tailored to the specific disease manifestation. Coxsackie A :HerpanginaHand, foot, and mouth diseaseCharacteristics: highly contagiousClinical presentationGeneral symptoms: fever, reduced general conditionSkin/mucosaMaculopapular and partially vesicular rash on the hands and feetOral ulcersDiagnosis: clinicalTreatment: symptomaticPrognosis: almost always self‑limiting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A term infant delivered via C-section develops tachypnoea, grunting, flaring, and intercostal retractions 10 minutes after birth. A chest radiograph reveals well-aerated lungs with fluid in the fissure on the right, prominent pulmonary vascular markings, and flattening of the diaphragm. His oxygen saturation is 90%. He improves within a few hours and requires no oxygen. What condition is this infant most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the new-born is a condition associated with the delayed clearance of amniotic fluid from the new-born. The X-ray findings are typical of this condition. As the name implies and was noted in this patient, it is not a lasting condition and resolves within 24-72 hours after birth. The differential diagnoses usually present with different chest X-ray findings:- Aspiration pneumonia shows infiltrates in the lower lobes of the lungs- Congenitally acquired pneumonia shows patchy, asymmetrical densities- Meconium aspiration shows hyperinflation and patchy asymmetric airspace disease- Pulmonary oedema shows cephalization of pulmonary veins and indistinctness of the vascular margins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 8
Correct
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A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?
Your Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally
Explanation:Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 17 year old patient, who reports to the clinic following an apparent transient ischaemic attack, is demonstrated to have a small right homonymous hemianopia with partial sparing of central vision.Where is the lesion most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Optic tract
Correct Answer: Occipital cortex
Explanation:The most common cause of homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a stroke. In this condition there is bitemporal field loss. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm, in the brain parenchyma are most likely to be the cause of the HH. In this case the retention of central vision indicates that the area of injury may be in the occipital cortex, sparing the occipital pole. The occipital pole receives sensory fibres from the macular, and has a dual blood supply protecting it from total infarction. Lesions of the optic tract can be ruled out as these cause total vision loss in the affected eye. Parietal or temporal nerve lesions cause affect the inferior and superior parts of the visual field respectively causing homonymous quadrantinopias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Correct
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A boy with atopic eczema presents with a flare up. In which of the following situations would you suspect herpes simplex virus versus a bacterial infection?
Your Answer: Lesions were present at different stages
Explanation:Lesions caused by herpes simplex virus may appear in various clinical stages. They are usually the result of an HSV-1 infection and they may appear on the face and neck. They start as fluid-filled blisters which eventually erupt into small painful ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks
Explanation:The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?
Your Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case
Explanation:There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the ED, with coughing and wheezing. Chest examination reveals reduced breath sounds on one side. Radiological examination shows occlusion of the airway by an aspirated foreign body. The foreign body is most likely lodged in which of the following locations?
Your Answer: Right mainstem bronchus
Explanation:Foreign body aspiration (FBA) commonly occurs in children aged 1–3 years. FBA typically presents with sudden onset of coughing and choking, followed by stridor and dyspnoea. Obstruction of the larynx or trachea is a potentially life-threatening situation that causes severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and suffocation. Most commonly, the foreign body (FB) becomes lodged in the main and intermediate bronchi| approx. 60% of FB are located in the right main bronchus due to the more vertical orientation compared to the left main bronchus. Reduced breath sounds on the one side only would not be explained by a tracheal obstruction as it would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally and a more severe clinical picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?
Your Answer: Cholesterol crystals
Explanation:Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Low serum complement levels
Explanation:Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?
Your Answer: Ecstasy
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Drug withdrawal symptoms after a period of substance abuse can lead to a range of symptoms. Amphetamines are known to cause hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability, as well as vivid dreams as a result of withdrawal. Similar symptoms are found in cocaine withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal presents with symptoms such as insomnia, tremulousness and delirium. Ecstasy withdrawal includes irritation, mood swings, fatigue and insomnia. Heroin withdrawal presents with symptoms which include dilated pupils, insomnia, abdominal cramps and muscle aches. Withdrawal from prolonged cannabis use can cause depression, anxiety restlessness and insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone| however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 5 week old boy with pyloric stenosis is vomiting forcefully. Which of the following findings would you expect to be in his blood results?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Progressive vomiting due to pyloric stenosis leads to hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic, metabolic alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be able to do, considering normal development?
Your Answer: Smile
Explanation:Among the options provided, an 8-week-old full-term infant with normal developmental milestones will smile in response to appropriate stimuli.Rationale:Smiles in response to appropriate stimuli are seen from around 6 weeks of age. A social smile, where the infant has an awareness that a smile attracts attention, is not observed until around 3 months of age.Other options:- At 6 weeks an infant is able to follow objects in the horizontal plane through 90 deg| fixing and following an object through 180 deg in the horizontal plane is a milestone achieved at 3 months, as is pushing up onto forearms. – Pushing up onto hands occurs by around 5 months.- Infants of 3 months should startle to a 60 dB sound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the given conditions is an X-linked recessive disease?
Your Answer: Vitamin D resistant rickets
Correct Answer: Hunter's syndrome
Explanation:Hereditary diseases follow specific inheritance patterns according to the type of gene involved. Mutations in the genes which are on the sex chromosome, chromosome X are called X-linked diseases. X-linked recessive conditions result when both the copies of X-chromosomes are defective, which happens in the case of females since males have only one X- chromosome. Thus, these conditions are more common among males, and examples include colour blindness, haemophilia, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and hunter’s syndrome, etc. Hunter’s syndrome is a type of lysosomal storage disease which is also known as mucopolysaccharidosis II. Vitamin D resistant rickets is a X-linked dominant disease. Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2 are autosomal dominant conditions while Wilson’s disease is autosomal recessive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?
Your Answer: Increase in testicular volume
Explanation:In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement| the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer: Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Correct Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?
Your Answer: 8
Explanation:The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1| Verbal response – 3| Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?
Your Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A neonate has been observed, by his parents, twitching and jerking in his sleep. Which one of the following is not a cause of neonatal seizures?
Your Answer: Neonatal myoclonus
Explanation:Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus (BNSM) is a disorder commonly mistaken for seizures during the new-born period. It is characterized by myoclonic lightninglike jerks of the extremities that exclusively occur during sleep| it is not correlated with epilepsy.Causes of neonatal seizures:Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy: Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy disrupts the ATP-dependent sodium-potassium pump and appears to cause excessive depolarization.Intracranial haemorrhage: occurs more frequently in premature than in term infants. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is more common in term infants. This type of haemorrhage occurs frequently and is not clinically significant. Typically, infants with subarachnoid haemorrhage appear remarkably well. Metabolic disturbances include hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia. Less frequent metabolic disorders, such as inborn errors of metabolism, are seen more commonly in infants who are older than 72 hours. Typically, they may be seen after the infant starts feeding.Intracranial infections (which should be ruled out vigorously) that are important causes of neonatal seizures include meningitis, encephalitis (including herpes encephalitis), toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. The common bacterial pathogens include Escherichia coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae.Cerebral malformationsBenign neonatal seizures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl has a 5-day history of fever, general malaise and headache and has developed diffuse raised oedematous papules. These lesions are typical of erythema multiforme. Which one of the following is true?
Your Answer: The lesions will heal without scarring
Explanation:Erythema multiforme lesions typically heal without scarring. Other options:- In erythema multiforme, lesions are typically symmetrical and acral, i.e. on the hands, feet and limbs. – HSV is a common cause of erythema multiforme in children, accounting for at least 50% of cases| the lesions typically have damaged skin in the centre and are dusky and bullous (in contrast to urticaria, where the centre of the lesion is normal).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the patterns of secretion of hormones?
Your Answer: FSH, LH, GH and thyroxine are secreted in pulsatile pattern
Correct Answer: Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern
Explanation:Cortisol is secreted in a circadian pattern.The secretion of cortisol is regulated by the suprachiasmatic nucleus located in the hypothalamus.Other options:- FSH, LH, GH and prolactin are secreted in a pulsatile pattern, i.e. these hormones are secreted in an episodic manner rather than continuously.- Thyroxine is secreted in a continuous pattern, not pulsatile.- The secretion of ACTH is in response to stress.Secondary to stress, the hypothalamus secretes corticotrophin releasing hormones, which are transported to the pituitary gland via the hypophyseal–portal system. ACTH is then released by the pituitary gland and binds to its receptor on the adrenal gland, which releases cortisol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Gastroenteritis
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp
Explanation:Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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