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  • Question 1 - A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally.
      What would be your advice?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition

      Explanation:

      From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
      The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
      Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
      Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the emergency department of your hospital complaining of fever, she had given birth to a healthy male baby four days ago. During vaginal delivery, she sustained small vaginal laceration, suture repair was not done as the lesion were small. Presently she is breastfeeding her baby.

      Physical examination shows no uterine tenderness and the rest of the examinations were unremarkable.

      Which of the following can be the most likely cause of this Patient's fever?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Correct Answer: Infection of the unrepaired vaginal laceration

      Explanation:

      As the time of onset of fever is the 4th day of postpartum and absence of uterine tenderness on exam makes infection of vaginal laceration the most likely cause of this presentation.

      Exquisite uterine tenderness will be experienced in case of endometritis and symptoms are expected to start much earlier like by 2-3 days of postpartum.

      UTI is often expected on days one or two of postpartum, also there are no urinary symptoms suggestive of UTI

      Breast engorgement usually develops by 7th -2st day of postpartum and in the given case it’s too soon for it to occur.

      As it is expected during the first 2 hours postpartum, Atelectasis is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms in the given case.

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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit.  She is feeling well and has no concerns.  The patient had daily episodes of nausea and vomiting for the first few weeks of her pregnancy and those symptoms resolved 2 weeks ago.  She has had no pelvic pain or vaginal bleeding, and is yet to feel any fetal movements. 

      Her first pregnancy ended in a cesarean delivery at 30 weeks of gestation due to breech presentation, complicated with severe features of preeclampsia.  Patient has no other significant chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and have not reported of any medication allergies. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 112/74 mm of Hg and BMI is 24 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is found to be 155/min. The uterus is gravid and nontender and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. 

      Which of the following is considered to be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Preeclampsia prevention
      Preeclampsia is defined as a new-onset hypertension along with other features like proteinuria &/or end-organ damage at >20 weeks of gestation.
      Patients with the following histories are at high risk for preeclampsia:
      – Those with prior history of preeclampsia
      – Those with chronic kidney disease
      – Those with chronic hypertension
      – Those with diabetes mellitus
      – Multiple gestation
      – Autoimmune disease
      Patients belonging in the following criteria are at moderate risk for preeclampsia:
      – Obesity
      – Advanced maternal age
      – Nulliparity

      Preeclampsia is considered as the leading cause for maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. This is due to its increased risk for complications such as stroke, placental abruption and disseminated intravascular coagulation. It is most likely caused due to abnormal vasoconstriction and increased platelet aggregation, which thereby results in placental infarction and ischemia. The condition can be effectively prevented by the administration of low-doses of aspirin at 12 weeks of gestation.

      Patients with predisposing factors, such as chronic kidney disease, chronic hypertension and a history of preeclampsia, particularly with severe features or at <37 weeks gestation as in this patient, are at higher risk for developing preeclampsia.
      In high risk patients, the only therapy proven to decrease the risk of preeclampsia is a daily administration of low-dose aspirin, as it inhibits platelet aggregation and helps in preventing placental ischemia. Treatment is initiated at 12 – 28 weeks of gestation, optimally before 16 weeks and is continued till delivery.

      Betamethasone is a drug used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in patients who are prone to imminent risk of preterm delivery before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, if the patient develops pre-eclampsia requiring an urgent preterm delivery betamethasone will be indicated.

      High-doses (4 mg) of folic acid is indicated in patients with high risk for a fetus with neural tube defects, as in those who have a history of any prior pregnancies affected or those patients who use any folate antagonist medications. In the given case patient is at average risk and requires only a regular dose of 0.4 mg which is found in most prenatal vitamins.

      Intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone is indicated in pregnant patients with prior spontaneous preterm delivery due to preterm prelabor rupture of membranes, preterm labor, etc to decrease the possible risk for any recurrence. In patients who underwent preterm delivery due to other indications like preeclampsia with severe features, fetal growth restriction, etc it is not indicated.

      Vaginal progesterone is administered to decrease the risk of preterm delivery in patients diagnosed with a shortened cervix, which is usually identified incidentally on anatomy ultrasound scan done between 16 and 24 weeks of gestation. This patient is currently at her 14 weeks, so this is not advisable.

      Patients at high risk for pre-eclampsia, like those with preeclampsia in a prior pregnancy, are advised to start taking a daily low-dose aspirin as prophylaxis for prevention of pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old primigravida who is at 41 weeks has been pushing for the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old primigravida who is at 41 weeks has been pushing for the past 2 and a half ours. The fetal head is at the introitus and is beginning to crown already. An episiotomy was seen to be necessary. The tear was observed to extend through the sphincter of the rectum but her rectal mucosa remains intact.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate type of episiotomy to be performed?

      Your Answer: Third-degree

      Explanation:

      The episiotomy is a technique originally designed to reduce the incidence of severe perineal tears (third and fourth-degree) during labour. The general idea is to make a controlled incision in the perineum, for enlargement of the vaginal orifice, to facilitate difficult deliveries.

      Below is the classification scale for the definitions of vaginal tears:
      First degree involves the vaginal mucosa and perineal skin with no underlying tissue involvement.
      Second degree includes underlying subcutaneous tissue and perineal muscles.
      Third degree is where the anal sphincter musculature is involved in the tear. The third-degree tear can be further broken down based on the total area of anal sphincter involvement.
      Fourth degree is where the tear extends through the rectal muscle into rectal mucosa.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a positive group B Streptococcus vaginal swab.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: No treatment needed before labour

      Explanation:

      About 1 in 4 pregnant women carry GBS bacteria in their body. Doctors should test pregnant woman for GBS bacteria when they are 36 through 37 weeks pregnant.

      Giving pregnant women antibiotics through the vein (IV) during labour can prevent most early-onset GBS disease in newborns. A pregnant woman who tests positive for GBS bacteria and gets antibiotics during labour has only a 1 in 4,000 chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease. If she does not receive antibiotics during labour, her chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease is 1 in 200.

      Pregnant women cannot take antibiotics to prevent early-onset GBS disease in newborns before labour. The bacteria can grow back quickly. The antibiotics only help during labour.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the medical clinic because she developed a rash characteristic of chickenpox after 2 days of low-grade fever and mild malaise. Serological test was performed and revealed positive anti-varicella lgM.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate course of action for the patient?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox or varicella is a contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The virus is responsible for chickenpox (usually primary infection in non-immune hosts) and herpes zoster or shingles (following reactivation of latent infection). Chickenpox results in a skin rash that forms small, itchy blisters, which scabs over. It typically starts on the chest, back, and face then spreads. It is accompanied by fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and headaches which usually last five to seven days. Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, and bacterial skin infections. The disease is more severe in adults than in children.

      Primary varicella infection during pregnancy can also affect the foetus, who may present later with chickenpox. In pregnant women, antibodies produced as a result of immunization or previous infection are transferred via the placenta to the foetus. Varicella infection in pregnant women could spread via the placenta and infect the foetus. If infection occurs during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, congenital varicella syndrome may develop. Effects on the foetus can include underdeveloped toes and fingers, structural eye damage, neurological disorder, and anal and bladder malformation.

      Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised.

      Antivirals are typically indicated in adults, including pregnant women because this group is more prone to complications.

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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with presentation of chicken pox rashes which started 2 days ago. Varicella IgM came back positive with negative IgG.

      What is the most appropriate management in this patient?

      Your Answer: Antiviral therapy

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and arranged a detailed fetal ultrasound 5 weeks later

      Explanation:

      Varicella or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by primary infection with varicella-zoster virus (VZV) which can result in maternal mortality or serious morbidity. The virus which remains dormant in the sensory nerve root ganglia following a primary infection can get reactivated to cause a vesicular erythematous skin rash along the dermatomal distribution known as herpes zoster, ‘zoster’ or ‘shingles’. Though rare the risk of acquiring infection from an immunocompetent individual with herpes zoster in non-exposed sites like thoracolumbar regions can also occur. As the viral shedding will be greater, a disseminated zoster or exposed zoster (e.g. ophthalmic) in an individual or localised zoster in an immunosuppressed patient should be considered very infectious.

      In industrialised countries, over 85 % of women in childbearing age are immune to varicella zoster virus (VZV), however, women from tropical and subtropical areas are more susceptible to chickenpox in pregnancy as they are more likely to be seronegative for VZV IgG. Up to 10% cases of VZV in pregnancy are complicated with Varicella pneumonia, whereas perinatal varicella/ chickenpox carries a 20 to 30 % risk of transmitting infection to the neonate. Studies on maternal varicella infection from 12-28 weeks gestation suggests a 1.4% risk of fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) whose subsequent abnormalities include:
      – Skin scarring (78%)
      – Eye abnormalities (60%)
      – Limb abnormalities (68%)
      – Prematurity and low birthweight (50%)
      – Cortical atrophy, intellectual disability (46%)
      – Poor sphincter control (32%)
      – Early death (29%)

      In the case mentioned above, patient had developed chickenpox rashes in her 2nd trimester and presented to you at day 2 of illness. Her varicella IgM came back positive along with a negative IgG indicating that she is not being immunized and that she is currently having active varicella infection. The best management in this case will be to reassured and allowed patient to be monitored at home. As there is no underlying lung disease, she is not immunocompromised and she is a non-smoker, so antiviral therapy is not required.

      Generally, for pregnant women with chickenpox if they present within 24 hours of onset of rash and are in 20+0 weeks of gestation or beyond oral aciclovir should be prescribed. However, the use of acyclovir before 20+0 weeks should be considered carefully as Aciclovir is rated category B3 (Pregnancy and Breastfeeding, eTG, January 2003, ISSN 1447-1868) and should only be prescribed if its potential benefits outweigh the potential risks caused to the fetus, with informed consent in pregnant women who present within 24 hours of onset of varicella rash. If the patient is immunocompromised or if there are respiratory symptoms, a haemorrhagic rash or persistent fever for more than six days it is advisable to use intravenous acyclovir. On the other hand, to prevent secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, symptomatic treatment and hygiene should also be advised and unless there is significant superimposed bacterial infection antibiotics are not required.

      If the pregnant woman has had a significant exposure to chickenpox or shingles, and is not immune to VZV , she should be offered VZIG as soon as possible or at the very latest within 10 days of the exposure. However, since Varicella zoster immunoglobulins (VZIG) has no therapeutic benefit in already developed cases of chickenpox, it should not be given to the context patient who have already developed active rashes of chickenpox with serology showing positive IgM positive and negative IgG indicating primary infection.

      At least five weeks after primary infection a detailed fetal ultrasound must be done checking for any anomalies and ultrasounds should be repeated until delivery; and consider a fetal MRI if any abnormalities are found. In cases were if ultrasound is found to be normal, VZV fetal serology and amniocentesis are not useful and is not routinely advised.

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  • Question 8 - Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing...

    Correct

    • Which ONE among the following factors does not increase the risk for developing postpartum endometritis?

      Your Answer: Advanced maternal age

      Explanation:

      The most common clinical findings in a postpartum women with endometritis are postpartum fever, with tachycardia relative to the rise in temperature, midline lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness from the 2nd to 10th day of postpartum.

      Most common risk factors for the development of postpartum endometritis are:
      – Cesarean deliveries are considered as the most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis, especially those performed after the onset of labour.
      – Young maternal age.
      – Multiple digital cervical examinations.
      – Prolonged rupture of membranes.
      – Retention of placental products.
      – Prolonged labour.
      – Chorioamnionitis.
      Advanced maternal age is not considered as a risk factor for development of postpartum endometritis.

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  • Question 9 - A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old primigravida was in labour for 24 hours and delivered after an induction. She developed postpartum haemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause for PPH?

      Your Answer: Atonic uterus

      Explanation:

      Uterine atony and failure of contraction and retraction of myometrial muscle fibres can lead to rapid and severe haemorrhage and hypovolemic shock. Poor myometrial contraction can result from fatigue due to prolonged labour or rapid forceful labour, especially if stimulated.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman came to your clinic in a small rural town of New South Wales. She is 34 weeks pregnant and all her past 3 pregnancy has been uncomplicated.

      On examination her blood pressure is 140/95 mm of Hg today which is higher than her usual blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. Urinalysis shows protein 2+ and the patient feels well generally.

      Among the following, which is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Send her to the local hospital for urgent review

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed clinical features like hypertension and proteinuria consistent with Pre-eclampsia. So the patient should be sent to an obstetrician for urgent review, it is not appropriate in such cases to postpone urgent specialist reviews as it could lead to serious complications.

      Labetalol though is safe in pregnancy and is considered as an option to treat hypertension, it could be given in the emergency department.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous...

    Correct

    • A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks’ duration.

      Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.

      Explanation:

      It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).

      The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
      In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.

      Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.

      In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.

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  • Question 12 - A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Atonic uterus

      Correct Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma

      Explanation:

      A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.

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  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman at her 37 weeks of gestation is diagnosed with primary genital herpetic lesions at multiple sites in the genital area.

      What is the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer: Give acyclovir to the neonate after delivery

      Correct Answer: Prophylactic antiviral before 4 days before delivery

      Explanation:

      This woman at her 37 weeks of gestation, has developed multiple herpetic lesions over her genitals. In every case were the mother develops herpes simplex infection after 28 weeks of pregnancy, chances for intrapartum and vertical transmission of the infection to the neonate is considered to be very high.

      Risk factors of intrapartum herpes simplex infection of the child includes premature labour, premature rupture of membrane, primary herpes simplex infection and multiple lesion in the genital area.

      The most appropriate methods for managing this case includes:
      – checking for herpes simplex infection using PCR testing of a cervical swab.
      – starting prophylactic antiviral therapy for the mother from 38 weeks of gestation until delivery.
      – preferring a cesarean section delivery if there are active lesions present in the cervix and/or vulva.

      Cesarean delivery is advised in this case along with maternal antiviral therapy before delivery to minimise the risk of vertical transmission.

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  • Question 14 - Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal diagnosis in pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      CVS has decreased in frequency with the recent increased uptake of cell-free DNA screening. It remains the only diagnostic test available in the first trimester and allows for diagnostic analyses, including fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), karyotype, microarray, molecular testing, and gene sequencing. CVS is performed between 10 and 14 weeks’ gestation. CVS has been performed before 9 weeks in the past, though this has shown to increase the risk of limb deformities and, therefore, is no longer recommended.

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  • Question 15 - A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office to establish prenatal care at 14 weeks gestation. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping, no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin. Patient follows a vegan diet and drinks 2 cups of coffee in the morning, also she is an avid runner who runs 5 miles most days. Patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or any other illicit drugs. 

      On physical examination her vital signs are normal, with a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 kg/m2.
      Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine gestation with a heart rate of 155/min. 

      Among the following possible lifestyle modifications needed during pregnancy, which is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Limit total pregnancy weight gain to 10 kg (22 lb)

      Correct Answer: Increase caloric intake by about 350 kcal/day

      Explanation:

      Nutrition in pregnancy
      Weight gain must be:
      – In patients <18.5 kg/m2, there should be an increase of 12.7 - 18 kg (28-40 lb)
      – In patients 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb)
      – In patients 25 – 29.9 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 6.8 – 11.4 kg (15-25 lb)
      – In patients ≥30 kg/m2 there should be an increase of 5 – 9 kg (11-20 lb)

      Supplementation required:
      – Intake of daily prenatal vitamin
      – Additional specific supplements as indicated
      – Avoidance of harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, etc
      – Substance abuse counseling
      – Avoidance of fish with high mercury levels
      – Moderating caffeine intake

      Food safety:
      – Avoid undercooked meat, fish & eggs
      – Clean raw fruits & vegetables before consuming
      – Avoid unpasteurized dairy products

      Nutrition in pregnancy is addressed at the initial prenatal visit based on pre-pregnancy BMI. Appropriate weight gain for a women with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2 should be 11.4 – 15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy. This weight gain is equivalent to the increasing caloric intake of 350 kcal/day during the second and 450 kcal/day during the third trimesters.  Patients following any specific diets like veganism can continue their usual diet throughout pregnancy as long as it contains a well-balanced quantity of protein, carbohydrates and fats.

      Vitamin and mineral supplementation during pregnancy is a single, daily prenatal vitamin recommended for majority of pregnant women as it helps to fulfill most of the daily vitamin and mineral supplementation requirements. In case of patients with vitamin or mineral deficiencies like iron, calcium, etc, a specific supplementation of the deficit vitamin/mineral only is required rather than multiple prenatal vitamins to avoid consuming harmful amounts of other vitamins like vitamin A.  Vegans, who are at risk for some vitamin and mineral deficiencies like vitamin B12, calcium, iron, etc, secondary to lack of meat consumption, may require supplementation.

      Pregnant women are counselled on avoidance of harmful substances like alcohol, drugs, etc and substances like fish with high mercury levels.  Although high caffeine intake during pregnancy can be harmful, a moderate intake ie, 1 or 2 cups of coffee a day is thought to be safe.

      Safe handling of food is important because some food products are found to result in congenital infection and intrauterine fetal demise. Patients are also counselled to avoid undercooked meat, fish, and eggs; to thoroughly clean raw fruits and vegetables and to avoid consumption of unpasteurized dairy products.

      By maintaining a proper maternal nutrition during pregnancy, patients are provide appropriate nutrition to the fetal and thereby reducing the risk of pregnancy related complications like low birth weight, preterm delivery, etc.

      Pregnant patients are counseled to avoid exercises like contact sports, downhill skiing, etc which increases the risk of abdominal trauma resulting in increased risk of placental abruption. But those patients with an uncomplicated pregnancy, who are already accustomed with long-duration, high-intensity exercise like running 5 miles/day, as in the given case, can continue with their regimen if tolerated.

      Proper nutrition in pregnancy includes appropriate weight gain, supplementation of vitamins and minerals, avoidance of any harmful substances, and safe handling of food. Patients with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI should gain around 11.4-15.9 kg (25-35 lb) during pregnancy by increasing their caloric intake by 350 kcal/day in the second and 450 kcal/day in the third trimesters.

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  • Question 16 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

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  • Question 17 - A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
      In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.

      Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
      Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
      Fundal height measures only 25 cm

      Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?

      Your Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Explanation:

      A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.

      A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
      – Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
      – A multiple pregnancy
      – A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
      – Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
      – Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios).

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  • Question 18 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A fetal scalp blood sampling in labour should be avoided

      Correct Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation.
      She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation.

      Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending.

      From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
      As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.

      Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.

      In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.

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  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.

      Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists

      Explanation:

      Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.

      There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.

      The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.

      Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.

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  • Question 21 - A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to the ER with severe hypertension (210/100) and proteinuria (+++). Soon after admission, she developed generalized tonic clonic fits. What is the first line of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of choice in eclamptic patients. A loading dose of 4g magnesium sulphate in 100mL 0.9% saline IVI over 5min followed by maintenance IVI of 1g/h for 24h. Signs of toxicity include respiratory depression and jerky tendon reflexes. In recurrent fits additional 2g can be given. Magnesium should be stopped when the respiratory rate is <14/min, absent tendon reflexes, or urine output is <20mL/h.

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  • Question 22 - The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined...

    Correct

    • The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?

      Your Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses

      Explanation:

      Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.

      There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.

      An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.

      Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.

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  • Question 23 - In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around...

    Correct

    • In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had come into touch with a youngster who had been diagnosed with rubella two weeks prior. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management career?

      Your Answer: Serial blood samples for rubella antibody assessment.

      Explanation:

      If the patient already has immunity (IgG positive) and if maternal rubella infection is the cause of the current symptoms (initial lgG and IgM negative, but IgM positive on a second sample 2-3 weeks later), amniocentesis may be required to confirm fetal infection.
      Ultrasound may reveal growth limitation in late pregnancy, but a fetal congenital defect is rare when the infection begins at 10 weeks of pregnancy, and ultrasound testing at 12 weeks of pregnancy is unlikely to detect abnormalities, while it may discover one from 18-20 weeks. Given the well-known deleterious fetal effects of rubella infection in early pregnancy, gamma-globulin is unlikely to be beneficial at this point in the infective process, and pregnancy termination would certainly be considered by some individuals.
      On the basis of prenatal rubella infection, this would not be recommended unless the infection was shown to have occurred.

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  • Question 24 - The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most...

    Correct

    • The fetal head may undergo changes in shape during normal delivery. The most common aetiology listed is:

      Your Answer: Molding

      Explanation:

      With the help of molding, the fetal head changes its shape as the skull bones overlap. This helps in smooth delivery of the foetus through the birth canal.

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  • Question 25 - A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-woman, gravida 2 para 1, 37 weeks of gestation, was admitted due to spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her previous pregnancy was uncomplicated and delivered at term via vaginal delivery. 24 hours since rupture of her membranes, no spontaneous labour was noted, hence a syntocinon/oxytocin infusion (10 units in 1L of Hartmann solution) was started at 3DmL/hour and increased to 120 mL over 9 hours. After 10 hours of infusion, during which Syntocinon dosage was increased to 30 units per litre, contractions were noted. Which is the most common complication of Syntocinon infusion?

      Your Answer: Fetal distress.

      Explanation:

      In this case, induction of labour at 37 weeks of gestation was necessary due to the absence of spontaneous of labour 24 hours after rupture of membranes. High doses of Syntocin and large volume of fluids may be required particularly when induction is done before term.

      Syntocin infusion can lead to uterine hypertonus and tetany which can result in fetal distress at any dosage. This is a common reason to decrease or stop the infusion and an indication for Caesarean delivery due to fetal distress

      Uterine rupture can occur as a result of Syntocin infusion especially when the accompanying fluids do not contain electrolytes, which puts the patient at risk for water intoxication.

      Maternal hypotension results from Syntocin infusion, not hypertension.

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  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa after delivery

      Correct Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now

      Explanation:

      To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.

      Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
      If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.

      Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
      Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period.

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  • Question 27 - All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy,...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.

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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman gave birth to a baby of normal weight through vaginal delivery, which was complicated by a small perianal tear that was taken care of without stitching. On the fifth day of postpartum patient presents with heavy bright red vaginal bleeding and mentions that lochia was in scant amounts compared to her previous pregnancy.

      On examination, her temperature was 38.8°C and uterus is mildly tender to palpation.

      Which one of the following would most likely be her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Correct Answer: Retained products of conception

      Explanation:

      Secondary postpartum hemorrhage of bright red character accompanied with fever, between 24 hours to 12 weeks of postpartum is suggestive of retained products of conception (RPOC).
      The basal portion of the decidua may remain after separation of placenta in many cases. This decidua will then divides into two layers, the superficial layer which will be shed spontaneously and the deep layer which will regenerates and covers the entire endometrial cavity with in 16 days of postpartum.
      Normal shedding of blood and decidua is referred to as lochia rubra, which is red / reddish brown in colour and it lasts for few days following delivery. This vaginal discharge gradually becomes watery and pinkish brown in colour, lasting for 2 to 3 weeks and is called as lochia serosa. Ultimately, this discharge becomes yellowish-white called as lochia alba.

      Scanty lochia in the first few days after delivery is suggestive of the placental site not undergoing involution, which occurs mostly due to RPOC. Later these retained products will undergo necrosis resulting in fibrin deposition which will eventually form a placental polyp. Detachment of this scar of polyp will result in brisk hemorrhage and the remaining necrotic products will get infected resulting in uterine infection which will present with fever, lower abdominal pain and uterine tenderness.

      Endometritis can lead to fever, offensive lochia and abdominal pain with tenderness. It is the most common cause of postpartum fever, but occurs within the first 5 days of postpartum with the peak incidence between days 2 and 3. Though vaginal bleeding is a presenting feature, bright red bleeding is unlikely of endometritis.

      Another cause of postpartum fever is genital lacerations which have a peak incidence of wound infection between 4th and 5th days. Although fever as a temporal symptom favours wound infection, this diagnosis is less likely in the given case as wound infection will not affect the normal course of lochia, also it does not present as heavy bright red bleeding. Moreover, there are no symptoms like erythema, tenderness or discharge in history suggestive of wound infection.

      Another cause of bleeding and fever can be cervical tear but this tends to present as primary postpartum hemorrhage rather than secondary, which occurs after 24 hours of postpartum. An overlooked and infected minor cervical laceration can cause fever but ii will not result in bright red bleeding, also genital tract lacerations do not affect lochia.

      It is very unlikely for uterine rupture to occur 24 hours after delivery.

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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes to you for advice as she is planning to conceive in next three months. Her blood sugar levels are under control with a HBA1C value of 6%.

      Among the following which is an essential supplement for her?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned above is a known case of type 2 diabetes which makes her at high risk of having neural tube defects. She should be advised to start taking a high dose of (5mg) folic acid supplement daily for at least 1-month prior to conception and it should be continued upto 12 weeks of her pregnancy.

      Folate, which is a water-soluble B vitamin, is usually obtained from diet or through supplementation. For those patients with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are planning for pregnancy, high doses are recommended to prevent any possible neural tube defects.

      Vitamin A is not safe and should be avoided in pregnancy due to chances for toxicity.

      Vitamin C and iron are not considered as essential vitamins to be taken during pregnancy.

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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman has been stable on medicating with lamotrigine after developing epilepsy 2 years ago. She is planning to conceive but is concerned about what her medications may do to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: High dose folic acid for one month before conception and during first trimester

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      The use of lamotrigine during pregnancy has not been associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects; however, the recommendation regarding higher doses of folic acid supplementation is often, but not always, broadened to include women taking any anticonvulsant, including lamotrigine.

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  • Question 31 - A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.

      On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.

      Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.

      A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.

      Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption

      Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.

      The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.

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  • Question 32 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer: Retained POC

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

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  • Question 33 - A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission, her cervix was 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced. She received epidural anesthesia and proceeded to complete cervical dilation with fetal head at +3 station within a few hours. Patient who has been pushing for 4 hours is exhausted now and says she cannot feel her contractions, nor knows when to push because of the epidural anesthesia. Patient had no complications during the pregnancy and has no chronic medical conditions. 
      Estimated fetal weight by Leopold maneuvers is 3.4 kg (7.5 lb), patient's vital signs are normal and fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Tocodynamometer indicates contractions every 2-3 minutes and a repeat cervical examination shows complete cervical dilation with the fetal head at +3 station, in the left occiput anterior position with no molding or caput. 

      Among the following, which is considered the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery

      Explanation:

      The period from attaining a complete cervical dilation of 10 cm to fetal delivery is considered as the second stage of labor. In the given case patient have achieved an excellent fetal descent to +3 due to her average-sized infant of 3.4 kg, suitable pelvis (no fetal molding or caput, suggesting no resistance against the bony maternal pelvis), and a favorable fetal position of left occiput anterior. 
      But with no further fetal descent the patient fulfills the following criterias suggestive of second-stage arrest like:
      ≥3 hours of pushing in a primigravida without an epidural or ≥4 hours pushing with an epidural, as in this patient
      OR
      ≥2 hours of pushing in a multigravida without an epidural or ≥3 hours pushing with an epidural.

      As continued pushing without any effect will lead to complications like postpartum hemorrhage, limiting the chances of spontaneous vaginal delivery, it is better to manage this case by operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery, to expedite delivery. maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, in which the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended are the other indications for performing an operative vaginal delivery.

      Fundal pressure is the technique were external pressure is applied to the most cephalad portion of the uterus, were the applied force is directed toward the maternal pelvis. The maneuver was not found to be useful in improving the rate of spontaneous vaginal deliveries.

      Epidurals will not arrest or affect spontaneous vaginal delivery rates, instead they just lengthen the second stage of labor. Also an appropriate analgesia is a prerequisite to use in operative vaginal delivery.

      Manual rotation of an infant to a breech presentation for breech vaginal delivery is called as internal podalic version. It is contraindicated in singleton deliveries due to the high risk associated with breech vaginal delivery in regards to neonatal mortality and morbidity.

      The ideal fetal head position in vaginal delivery is occiput anterior (OA) as the flexed head in this provides a smaller diameter and facilitates the cardinal movements of labor. The occiput posterior (OP) position, in contrast to OA, presents with a larger-diameter head due to the deflexed position. So the chance for spontaneous vaginal delivery will be decreased if fetal head is rotated to OP position.

      A lack of fetal descent after ≥4 hours of pushing in a primigravida with an epidural (≥3 hours without) or ≥3 hours in a multigravida with an epidural (≥2 hours without) is defined as second stage arrest of labor.  The condition is effectively managed with operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery. Other common indications for operative vaginal delivery are maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions where the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended.

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  • Question 34 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Correct

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

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  • Question 35 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

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  • Question 36 - A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen

      Explanation:

      This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.

      This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
      → Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
      → Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
      → Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
      → Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration.

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  • Question 37 - Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.

      E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.

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  • Question 38 - A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)

      Explanation:

      Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.

      Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.

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  • Question 39 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

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  • Question 40 - A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins.

      Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.

      Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.

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  • Question 41 - A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman arrives at the hospital at eight weeks of her first pregnancy, anxious that her kid may have Down syndrome. Which of the following best reflects the risk of spontaneous abortion after an amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks?

      Your Answer: 8%

      Correct Answer: 18%

      Explanation:

      This question assesses critical clinical knowledge, as this information must be presented to a patient prior to an amniocentesis to ensure that she has given her informed permission for the treatment.
      Amniocentesis is most typically used for genetic counselling in the second trimester of pregnancy. Another option is to do a chorion-villus biopsy (CVB) between 10 and 11 weeks of pregnancy.
      The chances of miscarriage after both operations are roughly 1 in 200 for amniocentesis and 1 in 100 for CVB, according to most experts.
      The significance of this question is that professionals must be able to weigh the procedure’s danger against the risk of the sickness they are trying to identify.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 42 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 75 percent

      Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 43 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer: Most of neonates with neonatal herpes present with mucocutaneous lesions

      Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

    A...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding.

      A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery.

      Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?

      Your Answer: Increase risk of adhesions

      Explanation:

      Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
      -Increased risk of maternal mortality.
      -Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
      -Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
      -Increased risk of infections.

      Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.

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  • Question 45 - Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?

      Your Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
      Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
      Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery.

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  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal visit. Upon history-taking, it was noted that this was her first pregnancy and based on her last menstrual period, she is pregnant for 11 weeks already. There was also no mention of a history of medical problems.

      Upon further observation, the uterus was palpable midway between her pubic symphysis and the umbilicus. There was also no audible fetal heart tones using the Doppler stethoscope.

      Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step given the case above?

      Your Answer: Schedule an ultrasound as soon as possible to determine the gestational age and viability of the foetus.

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, the uterus increases in size to accommodate the developing foetus. At 16 weeks gestation, the fundus of the uterus must be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis but the patient’s uterus was already palpable at just 11 weeks.

      If less than seven weeks pregnant, it’s unlikely to find a heartbeat by ultrasound. Using transvaginal ultrasound, a developing baby’s heartbeat should be clearly visible by the time a woman is seven weeks pregnant. Abdominal ultrasound is considerably less sensitive, so it can take longer for the heartbeat to become visible. If past seven weeks pregnant, seeing no heartbeat may be a sign of miscarriage.

      Fetal viability is confirmed by the presence of an embryo that has cardiac activity. Cardiac activity is often present when the embryo itself measures 2 mm or greater during the 6th week of gestation. If cardiac activity is not evident, other sonographic features of early pregnancy can predict viability.

      It is recommended that all pregnant women undergo a routine ultrasound at 10 to 13 weeks of gestation to determine an accurate gestational age. Getting an accurate gestational age is highly important and pertinent for the optimal assessment of fetal growth later in pregnancy. Ultrasound is the most reliable method for establishing a true gestational age by measurement of crown-rump length, which can be measured either transabdominally or transvaginally.

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  • Question 47 - A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old, 10-weeks pregnant woman comes to you complaining of right iliac fossa pain, which is more when she tries to stand up or cough. She also had a history of appendectomy, done 12 years ago.

      Physical examination reveals mild tenderness in right iliac fossa, without any rebound tenderness or guarding.

      Among the following options which will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Round ligament pain

      Explanation:

      The given case can be diagnosed as round ligament pain, which is common during pregnancy. This happens as a result to the stretching of round ligament in pelvis to occupy the growing uterus. The round ligament pain usually gets worse with movements or straining and will be relieved by rest or warm application.

      As the abdominal examination of patient is unremarkable, conditions like ovarian cyst rupture, ectopic pregnancy and intestinal obstruction are a very unlikely to be the diagnosis.

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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman at her 26 weeks of gestation visits your office after she has noticed intermittent leakage of watery liquor per vagina for the past eight hours, especially after straining, coughing or  sneezing.

      Speculum vaginal exam reveals clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix, with flow of liquid through the cervical os. Further evaluation establishes preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM) as the diagnosis. No uterine contraction is felt and there is a tertiary hospital 50 km away.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Administration of corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The case above gives a classic presentation of preterm premature rupture of membranes(PPROM). In term or near term women rupture of membrane harbingers labor, so if ROM does not end up in established labor in 4 hours, is called as premature ROM (PROM). In other words, PROM is defined as ROM before the onset of labor and if it occurs before 37 weeks, the preferred term is PPROM. In both these scenarios treatment approach will be different.
      A sudden gush of watery fluid per vagina, continuous or intermittent leakage of fluid, a sensation of wetness within the vagina or perineum are the classic presentation of rupture of the membranes(ROM), regardless of the gestational age. Pathognomonic symptoms symptoms of ROM are presence of liquor flowing from the cervical os or pooling in the posterior vaginal fornix.
      PPROM is associated with many risk factors and some of them are as follows:
      – Preterm labor
      – Cord prolapse
      – Placental abruption
      – Chorioamnionitis
      – Fetal pulmonary hypoplasia and other features of prematurity
      – Limb positioning defects
      – Perinatal mortality
      Once the diagnosis is confirmed the following measures should be considered in the management plan:
      a) Maternal corticosteroids
      Adverse perinatal outcomes like respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular hemorrhage, and necrotizing enterocolitis can be effectively reduced using corticosteroids. The duration of using neonatal respiratory support, in case of respiratory distress, can be significantly reduced by the administration of corticosteroids. If preterm labor is a concern in cases were gestational age is between 23•0d and 34•6d weeks or if preterm birth is planned or expected within the next 7 days corticosteroids are indicated.
      Recommended regimens to the woman are IM betamethasone in two doses of 11.4 mg, given 24 hours apart and if betamethasone is unavailable, IM dexamethasone given 24 hours apart in two doses of 12 mg.
      A single repeat dose of corticosteroid given seven days or more after the first dose is suggestive in cases were the gestational age is less than 32• 6d, if the woman is still considered to be at risk of preterm labor, up to 3 repeated doses can be considered.
      Another option is Tocolysis using nifedipine and is indicated if the woman is in labor. This helps in cessation of labor for at least 48 hours, providing a window for corticosteroid to establish its effects. Tocolysis is not indicated in cases with absence of uterine contractions suggestive of labor.
      It is appropriate to transfer this woman to a tertiary hospital after administering the first doses of corticosteroid and antibiotics. This ensures optimal neonatal care in case of premature delivery.
      As the patient needs investigations and fetal monitoring along with close observation for development of any signs of infection and preterm labor, it is not appropriate to discharge this patient on oral antibiotics
      Admitting to a primary care center without neonatal ICU (NICU) does no good to the outcome of this patient.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 49 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

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  • Question 50 - A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.

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  • Question 51 - A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B....

    Correct

    • A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B. Which of the following additional tests should she be screened for?

      Your Answer: Rubella, Toxoplasma and Syphilis

      Explanation:

      A screening blood test for the infectious diseases HIV, Syphilis, Rubella, Toxoplasmosis and Hepatitis B is offered to all pregnant females so as to reduce the chances of transmission to the neonate.

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  • Question 52 - A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old woman had a C-section two hours ago. However, she has not urinated since then and claims she had no urinary complaints before the operation. Upon inspection she appears unwell and her abdomen is distended and tender suprapubically and in the left flank. Auscultation reveals no bowel sounds. Further examination reveals the following: Temp=37.5C, BP=94/73mmHg, Pulse=116bpm, Sat=97%. What's the most likely complication?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract injury

      Explanation:

      Urologic injury is the most common injury at the time of either obstetric or gynaecologic surgery, with the bladder being the most frequent organ damaged. Risk factors for bladder injury during caesarean section include previous caesarean delivery, adhesions, emergency caesarean delivery, and caesarean section performed during the second stage of labour.

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  • Question 53 - A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%.

      Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant

      Explanation:

      Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.

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  • Question 54 - A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Abnormal liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria.

      Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.

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  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily.

      On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg.

      From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa

      Explanation:

      In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
      Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
      Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
      Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
      Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
      Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
      All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
      Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia.

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  • Question 56 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Correct

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

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  • Question 57 - Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications: ...

    Correct

    • Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:

      Your Answer: Coagulopathy

      Explanation:

      A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.

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  • Question 58 - The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines? ...

    Correct

    • The relation of different fetal parts to each other determines?

      Your Answer: Attitude of the foetus

      Explanation:

      Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.

      Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.

      Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.

      Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.

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  • Question 59 - Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis is required in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean Section

      Correct Answer: A previous infant with Group B streptococcus disease regardless of present culture

      Explanation:

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) or Streptococcus agalactiae is a Gram-positive bacteria which colonizes the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract. In the United States of America, GBS is known to be the most common infectious cause of morbidity and mortality in neonates. GBS is known to cause both early onset and late onset infections in neonates, but current interventions are only effective in the prevention of early-onset disease.

      The main risk factor for early-onset GBS infection is colonization of the maternal genital tract with Group B Streptococcus during labour. GBS is a normal flora of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, which is thought to be the main source for maternal colonization.

      The principal route of neonatal early onset GBS infection is vertical transmission from colonized mothers during passage through the vagina during labour and delivery.

      Intravenous penicillin G is the treatment of choice for intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis against Group B Streptococcus.

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  • Question 60 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Thyroxine dose should be increased by 30% at the beginning of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroid disease is the second most common endocrine disorder after diabetes in pregnancy. Thyroid disease poses a substantial challenge on the physiology of pregnant women and has significant maternal and fetal implications. Research shows during pregnancy, the size of the thyroid gland increases by 10% in countries with adequate iodine stores and by approximately 20% to 40% in countries with iodine deficiency. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone production increases by around 50% along with a similar increase in total daily iodine requirements.

      The different changes occurring in thyroid physiology are as follow:
      – An increase in serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) leading to an increase in the total T4 and total T3 concentrations
      – Stimulation of the thyrotropin (TSH) receptor by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which increases thyroid hormone production and subsequently reduces serum TSH concentration.

      Therefore, compared to the non-pregnant state, women tend to have lower serum TSH concentrations during pregnancy.
      The need to adjust levothyroxine dose manifests itself as early as at 4-8 weeks of gestation, therefore justifying the adjustment of levothyroxine replacement to ensure that maternal euthyroidism is maintained during early gestation. Most of well-controlled hypothyroid pregnant women need increased dosage of thyroid hormone after pregnancy.

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  • Question 61 - A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. What is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?

      Your Answer: Methyldopa

      Explanation:

      Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).

      Non-severe Hypertension and asymptomatic at ≥ 20w
      (BP ≥ 140/90 and < 160/110mmHg)
      • Urine dipstick analysis
      • Quantify 24hr urine protein excretion/U-PCR
      • Start Methyldopa 500mg 8hrly
      • Do Hb, Platelet count, s-Cr, AST/ALT, Urine specimen for MC&S
      • If gestational hypertension is diagnosed and BP is well controlled, continue antihypertensive therapy and plan delivery at 38 weeks if all remains well in the interim

      Hypertension with symptoms or severe features
      • Admit in High care unit and nurse in left lateral
      • Insert urinary catheter and IV line
      • Administer IV Ringers lactate (total volume of IV fluid administered should not exceed
      80mls/hr)
      • Start Magnesium Sulphate
      • Control BP
      • Perform an ultrasound (if indicated) or assess clinically to determine fetal viability,
      EFW (Estimated Fetal Weight) and liquor volume and, if possible
      • If GA ≥ 34/40 or EFW ≥ 2200g expedite delivery
      • If GA ≥ 26/40 and < 34/40, administer course of steroids to enhance fetal lung maturity
      • If patient is stabilised, offer expectant management if < 34 weeks and eligible

      Acute severe hypertension (DBP ≥ 110mmHg and or SBP ≥ 160mmHg)
      • Administer Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg per os immediately
      • Start maintenance therapy with Nifedipine (Adalat XL®) 30-60mg BD orally (maximum
      120mg/day)
      • Aim for DBP ≤ 110 and SBP ≤ 160mmHg
      • If BP is still high after 30 minutes, repeat Nifedipine (Adalat®) 10mg orally every 30
      minutes, for a maximum of three dosages or until BP < 160/110mmHg (contraindication:
      tachycardia > 120 bpm, unable to swallow, cardiac lesion).
      • If after 30 minutes BP is still high then give Labetalol 20, 40, 80, 80 and
      80mg (max 300mg) as bolus doses at 10 minute intervals, checking BP every 10
      minutes until BP < 160/110mmHg. Contra-indications: patients with asthma and
      ischaemic heart disease. If BP monitoring is not achievable at 10 minute intervals then
      patient should be transferred to ICU for a Labetalol infusion.

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  • Question 62 - A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visited your clinic at her 30th week of gestation, complaining of left lower limb pain.
      The doppler ultrasound findings had confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis and she was treated with low molecular weight heparin.

      Now she is at her 34 weeks of gestation, and is expecting delivery in next four weeks. What would be your advice for her today?

      Your Answer: Continue low molecular weight heparin until delivery

      Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed deep vein thrombosis during pregnancy and required anti-coagulation as part of treatment for up to 3-6 months. Enoxaparin, which is a low molecular weight heparin, is preferred over heparin due to the once or twice a day therapeutic dosing. Also monitoring of aPTT is not required in this case.

      There is an association between Enoxaparin and an increased risk for epidural hematoma in women receiving epidural anaesthesia during labour. Considering that the patient mentioned is expected to go for delivery in 4 weeks and the possibility of her needing an epidural anaesthesia or general anaesthesia in case of undergoing a cesarean section, enoxaparin should be switched to unfractionated heparin, four weeks prior to the anticipated delivery. This is because of the fact that heparin can be antidoted with protamine sulphate.

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  • Question 63 - A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old G2P2 who is on her 7th day postpartum called her physician due to her concern of bleeding from the vagina. Upon interview, she described the bleeding to be light pink to bright red and compared with the first few days post-delivery, the bleeding was less heavy. There was also no fever or cramping pain reported by the patient.
      Upon examination, it was observed that she is afebrile and her uterus is appropriately sized and non-tender. There was also the presence of about 10cc old, dark blood in her vagina and her cervix was closed.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      The postpartum period begins soon after the baby’s delivery and usually lasts six to eight weeks and ends when the mother’s body has nearly returned to its pre-pregnant state.

      Bloody vaginal discharge (lochia rubra) is heavy for the first 3-4 days, and slowly it becomes watery in consistency and colour changes to pinkish-brown (lochia serosa). After the next 10-12 days, it changes to yellowish-white (lochia alba). Advise women to seek medical attention if heavy vaginal bleeding persists (soaking a pad or more in less than an hour). Women with heavy, persistent postpartum bleeding should be evaluated for complications such as retained placenta, uterine atony, rarely invasive placenta, or coagulation disorders. Endometritis may also occur, presenting as fever with no source, maybe accompanied by uterine tenderness and vaginal discharge. This usually requires intravenous antibiotics. This also should be explained and advise the mother to seek immediate medical attention.

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  • Question 64 - Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of...

    Correct

    • Among the following which will not be elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Serum free T4

      Explanation:

      Normally, there will be a slight raise in prolactin level throughout pregnancy even despite estrogen stimulating and progesterone inhibiting prolactin secretion.

      Serum alkaline phosphatase levels will be increased in pregnancy due to placental ALP.

      During the first trimester of pregnancy there is a physiological mechanism by hCG causing cross-stimulation of the TSH receptors and as a result of this the concentration of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) normally decreases. During second trimester TSH concentration will again return back to its pre-pregnancy levels and then rises slightly by the third trimester. However, most of the changes still occur within the normal non-pregnant range, and the serum free T3 and T4 concentrations remain unchanged throughout pregnancy. But the total concentrations, which include both free and protein-bound fractions, elevates significantly due to an increase in the circulating binding globulins.

      Iron binding capacity reflects transferrin, a protein used for iron transportation, which is a globulin found in the beta band on electrophoresis. To counteract the reduction of plasma iron during pregnancy both transferrin and iron binding capacity are elevated during this period.

      When compared to the non-pregnant level, cortisol levels are been elevated up to three times than normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 65 - A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms.

      You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy.

      What is the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.

      Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.

      As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.

      If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.

      Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 66 - A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, who is 18 weeks pregnant, is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and positive anticardiolipin antibodies. She has a history of three miscarriages, each one during the first trimester. What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin & heparin

      Explanation:

      The syndrome with which the woman was diagnosed is an autoimmune, hypercoagulable state which most possibly was the reason of her previous miscarriages. This is the reason why she should be on aspirin and heparin in order to prevent any future miscarriage.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 67 - Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now...

    Correct

    • Screening for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) at around 36 weeks of gestation now is common practice as up to 20% of women carry the organism in the vagina.

      If a pregnant woman is found to have GBS at this stage, which treatment would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Parenteral penicillin given six-hourly in labour.

      Explanation:

      Up to 20% of women have been found to have Group B streptococcus (GBS). GBS is considered a normal flora of the gastrointestinal tract. GBS infection is generally asymptomatic although some women might end up having a UTI. Infants born to mothers who are colonised with GBS during labour are at a higher risk of developing early-onset GBS infection. If a pregnant woman develops a UTI due to GBS, it is suggestive of significant GBS colonisation. IV penicillin would be the drug of choice and is to be administered to the mother during labour which would provide sufficient protection for the foetus and would be effective enough. If penicillin is unavailable, ampicillin is a reasonable alternative. If a patient has penicillin allergy, vancomycin can be used. If not for penicillin, roughly 50% of babies delivered vaginally to women who are GBS positive would be colonised with the organism and out of this percentage, 1-2% can go on to develop a severe infection such as septicaemia and meningitis which could often be fatal.

      IM penicillin can be administered to the newborn immediately post-delivery would be an effective prophylaxis in most cases but one should not wait until signs of infection are present to give the injection. Many newborns would still have an immature immune system which could cause some to die. Hence, it is more suitable to treat all women who tested positive during labour and the newborn as well if any signs of infection do appear. The majority of babies don’t need antibiotic treatment if their mother has been treated.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 68 - A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.

      Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.

      Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.

      Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.

      Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.

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  • Question 69 - A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old female presents to the ob-gyn for a regular antenatal visit. Her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia and later eclampsia. What are the chances of her pre-eclampsia recurring in a later pregnancy?

      Your Answer: The risk is 1 in 4 (25%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Research suggests the risk of having preeclampsia again is approximately 20%, however experts cite a range from 5% to 80% depending on when you had it in a prior pregnancy, how severe it was, and additional risk factors you may have. If you had preeclampsia during your first pregnancy, you may get it again. HELLP is related to preeclampsia and about 4 to 12 percent of women diagnosed with preeclampsia develop HELLP. HELLP syndrome can also cause complications in pregnancy, and if you had HELLP in a previous pregnancy, regardless of the time of onset, you have a greater risk for developing it in future pregnancies.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 70 - A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks of gestation, presented with a history of vaginal pressure, vaginal spotting and lower back pain.

      Transvaginal ultrasound finding shows cervical shortening to 2 cm, cervical dilation, and protrusion of fetal membranes into the cervical canal.

      Which among the following risk factors is not related to the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      This woman has developed non-specific symptoms of cervical insufficiency, is a painless dilation of cervix resulting in the delivery of a live fetus during the 2nd trimester or premature delivery.

      The following has been identified as the risk factors associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency:
      – Congenital disorders of collagen synthesis like Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
      – Prior cone biopsies.
      – Prior deep cervical lacerations, which is secondary to vaginal or cesarean delivery.
      -Müllerian duct defects like bicornuate or septate uterus.
      – More than three prior fetal losses during the 2nd trimester

      From the given options, alcohol abuse is the only one not associated with increased incidence of cervical insufficiency.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation.

      Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.

      For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.

      Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 72 - A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.

      Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.

      Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Induce labour now

      Explanation:

      Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.

      A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.

      Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.

      The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
      – Admitting the patient to hospital.
      – Take a vaginal
      ervical smears.
      – Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
      – Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
      – In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
      – Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
      – Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 73 - The chance of multiple pregnancy increases: ...

    Incorrect

    • The chance of multiple pregnancy increases:

      Your Answer: After ovarian diathermy for polycystic ovary syndrome

      Correct Answer: With advancing maternal age

      Explanation:

      Dizygotic twin pregnancies are known to increase with age of the mother. Naturally conceived twins are thought to occur in a 0.3% rate in women under 25 years, 1.4% between 25 and 34, 3% between 34 and 39, and 4.1% in women in their 40s or over. We also know that at least 50% of all twin pregnancies are conceived through ART and that this proportion is probably higher for women in their 40s.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 74 - Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose

      Explanation:

      The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.

      Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.

      Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 75 - An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a...

    Incorrect

    • An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?

      Your Answer: Amniocentesis

      Correct Answer: Fetal ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 76 - A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting at 8 weeks of being pregnant. She is unable to take solid food but is capable of drinking small sips of liquids. She is concerned that she might have gastroenteritis because her partner was noted to have recently been diagnosed with it.

      Which of the following is considered the next best step to investigate given the situation?

      Your Answer: Stool exam and culture

      Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia.

      The exact cause of hyperemesis gravidarum remains unclear. However, there are several theories for what may contribute to the development of this disease process such as:
      1. Hormone changes – hCG levels peak during the first trimester, corresponding to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. Estrogen is also thought to contribute to nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
      2. Changes in the Gastrointestinal System – the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
      3. Genetics – an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum has been demonstrated among women with family members who also experienced hyperemesis gravidarum.

      The average onset of symptoms happens approximately 5 to 6 weeks into gestation. The physical exam should include fetal heart rate (depending on gestational age) and an examination of fluid status, including an examination of blood pressure, heart rate, mucous membrane dryness, capillary refill, and skin turgor. A patient weight should be obtained for comparison to previous and future weights. If indicated, abdominal examination and pelvic examination should occur to determine the presence or absence of tenderness to palpation.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 77 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks of gestational age. She voices concern as she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest and arms and is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins. She wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them.

      Which of the following is the best advice you can give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Vascular spiders or angiomas, are of no clinical significance during pregnancy as these are common findings and are form as a result of hyperestrogenemia associated with normal pregnancies. These angiomas, as they will resolve spontaneously after delivery, does not require any additional workup or treatment.
      Reassurance to the patient is all that is required in this case.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 78 - A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your...

    Correct

    • A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.

      A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
      Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.

      Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia­ hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
      The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.

      Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
      – If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
      After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.

      This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.

      – Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
      – Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.

      Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:

      If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.

      If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.

      If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.

      If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.

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  • Question 79 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.

      On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.

      Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

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  • Question 80 - A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A lady who is 29-weeks pregnant, comes to a general practice, complaining of a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      On Speculum examination, premature rupture of membranes is confirmed with closed cervix.

      In addition to transferring patient to a tertiary care, what is the most appropriate in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone

      Explanation:

      This patient who is at her 29 weeks of pregnancy, presented with sudden gush of clear fluid and Speculum examination has confirmed premature rupture of membrane (PROM).

      Approximately, 50% of PROM progress to labour within 24 hours and in the remaining, 80% within seven days. The most important next step of management in this case is transferring this patient to tertiary care hospital as soon as possible. It is equally important to give corticosteroid therapy, like Betamethasone, if delivery prior to 34 weeks is likely to occur, as it will help in fetal lung maturity.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is usually not available in general practice settings and it can be done only while in the hospital. If CTG shows any abnormality or if there is any presence of infection it is better to induce labor.

      Salbutamol and nifedipine are of no use in this case, as the patient is not in labour and does not require tocolytics.

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  • Question 81 - The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: ...

    Correct

    • The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.

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  • Question 82 - Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin...

    Correct

    • Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?

      Your Answer: Large for gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.

      Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
      – Hypocalcemia in newborn.
      – Development of Rickets later in life.
      – Defective tooth enamel.
      – Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
      – Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia.

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  • Question 83 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Prolonged labour.

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

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  • Question 84 - During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change? ...

    Incorrect

    • During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?

      Your Answer: ESR up by 4 folds

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.

      Explanation:

      There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration

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  • Question 85 - The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin...

    Correct

    • The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin gestation is:

      Your Answer: Preterm delivery

      Explanation:

      Twin pregnancy is associated with a number of obstetric complications, some of them with serious perinatal consequences, especially for the second twin. The rate of perinatal mortality can be up to six times higher in twin compared to singleton pregnancies, largely due to higher rates of preterm delivery and fetal growth restriction seen in twin pregnancies. Preterm birth and birth weight are also significant determinants of morbidity and mortality into infancy and childhood. More than 50% of twins and almost all triplets are born before 37 weeks of gestation and about 15–20% of admissions to neonatal units are associated with preterm twins and triplets.

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  • Question 86 - A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year -old woman, who underwent an episiotomy during labour, presented with severe vaginal pain 4 days after the procedure.

      At the site of the episiotomy, an 8-cm hematoma is noted on examination. Also the woman is found to be hemodynamically stable.

      Among the following, which is considered the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Explore the hematoma

      Explanation:

      In most cases reported, puerperal hematomas arise due to bleeding lacerations related to operative deliveries or episiotomy, and in rare cases from spontaneous injury to a blood vessel in the absence of any laceration/incision of the surrounding tissue. Vulval, vaginal/paravaginal area and retroperitoneum are considered the most common locations for puerperal hematomas.

      Most puerperal hematomas are diagnosed based on the presence of characteristic symptoms and physical examination findings:
      VuIvar hematoma usually presents as a rapidly developing, severely painful, tense and compressible mass which is covered by skin of purplish discoloration. A vulvar hematoma can also be an extension of a vaginal hematoma which was dissected through a loose subcutaneous tissue into the vulva.
      Vaginal hematomas often present with rectal pressure, were hemodynamic instability caused due to bleeding into the ischiorectal fossa and paravaginal space are the first signs and can result in hypovolemic shock. In these cases a large mass protruding into the vagina is often found on physical examination.
      Retroperitoneal hematomas are asymptomatic initially and extend between the folds of broad ligament. Patients suffering will often present with tachycardia, hypotension or shock due to the significant accumulated of blood in the retroperitoneal space. Unless the hematoma is associated with trauma, patients will not present with pain, only signs will be a palpable abdominal mass or fever.

      Treatment of hematoma depends mostly on the size and location:
      Non-expanding hematomas which are <3cm in size can be managed conservatively with analgesics and application of ice packs. An expanding hematoma or those greater than 3cm is managed effectively with surgical exploration under anesthesia, were an incision is made to evacuate the hematoma. The surgical site should not be sutured and vagina is often packed for 12-24 hours, an indwelling urinary catheter also may be indicated. In the given case, patient presents with a large haematoma (>3cm) which needs surgical excision and evacuation.

      Aspiration of the hematoma is not an appropriate treatment. If surgical intervention is indicated excision and evacuation is the preferred option, followed by vaginal packing for 12-24 hours.

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  • Question 87 - A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.

      On examination, she is conscious and pale.
      Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
      Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
      Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
      Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.

      Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.

      Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 88 - Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened abortion:

      Your Answer: Bed rest

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 89 - A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old Aboriginal woman at 10 weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea and vomiting along with dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this period.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated and her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a drop in systolic blood pressure by more than 20% when she stands. She is unable to tolerate oral intake and her laboratory results show ketonuria.

      Which one of the following would be the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Start intravenous fluids and keep her nil by mouth

      Correct Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Clinical picture mentioned is indicative of hyperemesis gravidarum with resultant hypovolemia and pre-shock state, were patient needs urgent fluid resuscitation and intravenous antiemetic medications. The first-line fluid for resuscitation is normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and metoclopramide an antiemetic drug which is safe for use in pregnancy (category A).

      Dextrose should be avoided in this situation as the sugar in the solution will leave behind a hypotonic fluid leading to severe hyponatraemic state which increases the risk for encephalopathy due to edema.

      Ondansetron is considered as the second-line of antiemetic drug under category B1 which is used in situations like more refractory vomiting, when patient is not responding to metoclopramide and in cases of recurrent hospital admissions due to hyperemesis gravidarum.

      Steroids such as prednisolone are considered as the third-line medication mostly used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum and should be used only after consulting an expert in the field.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 90 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine atony.

      Correct Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 91 - Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • Management of a patient with threatened abortion includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 92 - Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Galactorrhoea (non-gestational lactation) may result from all of the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Intrapartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Pituitary tumours, the most common pathologic cause of galactorrhoea can result in hyperprolactinemia by producing prolactin or blocking the passage of dopamine from the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland. Approximately 30 percent of patients with chronic renal failure have elevated prolactin levels, possibly because of decreased renal clearance of prolactin. Primary hypothyroidism is a rare cause of galactorrhoea in children and adults. In patients with primary hypothyroidism, there is increased production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone, which may stimulate prolactin release. Nonpituitary malignancies, such as bronchogenic carcinoma, renal adenocarcinoma and Hodgkin’s and T-cell lymphomas, may also release prolactin.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to fever and dysuria which has been going on for the past 3 days. The presence a pruritic, erythematous vulvar rash that is particularly painful during urination was also noted on the patient. Upon history taking, she mentioned that she is sexually active with one partner, and they use condoms inconsistently.

      Physical examination was done and the following are her results:
      Temperature is 38.7 deg C
      Blood pressure is 120/80mmHg
      Pulse is 84/min

      Abdominal examination was done and revealed that there is suprapubic fullness.
      Upon pelvic examination, the presence of several tender ulcerated lesions with circular borders on the inside of the left labia minora were noted.
      Speculum examination revealed no cervical friability or mucopurulent discharge. There is also enlarged and tender left inguinal lymph nodes.
      Urethral catheterization was then performed due to difficulty with spontaneous voiding.

      The results of her urinalysis are as follows:
      Leukocyte esterase = positive
      Nitrites = negative
      Bacteria = none
      White blood cells = 15/hpf

      Her urine pregnancy test turned out negative.

      Which of the following tests will most likely be considered to establish the patient’s diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral culture of lesion for herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      While HSV-1 often affects the perioral region and can be known to cause genital lesions, HSV-2 is more commonly the consideration when patients present with genital lesions.
      HSV-2 is transmitted through direct contact of sections in a seropositive individual who is actively shedding the virus. The virus preferentially affects the skin and mucous membranes with the virus invading epithelial cells on initial exposure and ultimately replicating intracellularly at that site.

      HSV-2, in particular, may present as a primary infection with painful genital ulcers, sores, crusts, tender lymphadenopathy, and dysuria. The classical features are of macular or papular skin and mucous membrane lesions progressing to vesicles and pustules that often last for up to 3 weeks. Genital lesions can be especially painful, leading to swelling of the vulva in women, burning pain, and dysuria.

      Given that symptoms can mimic acute urinary tract infection, consider urinalysis and culture.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 94 - A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic....

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic. She is complaining of restricted joint movement and severe pain in her joints. Choose the most appropriate medication for her from the list below.

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is safe to take during pregnancy and has shown no harm to unborn children during studies. It is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate pain during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 95 - A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment.

      On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart.

      Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.

      Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.

      Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
      1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
      a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
      b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
      2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
      BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
      3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
      BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
      4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
      Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
      5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
      Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.

      To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
      – Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
      reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
      – Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
      – Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
      – Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
      – Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 96 - A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception.

      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: A missed abortion

      Explanation:

      In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.

      – By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
      – An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
      – A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 97 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain. The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma. Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. 

      On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s.  Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Expectant management and spontaneous vaginal delivery

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 98 - A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining of some shortness of breath that is more intense with exertion and denies any chest pain. She is concerned as she has always been very athletic and is unable to maintain the same degree of exercise she was accustomed prior to becoming pregnant. Patient also informed she has no significant past medical history and is not on any medication.

      On physical examination, her pulse is 72 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. Cardiac examination is normal and her lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step to pursue in the workup of this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation and physical examination findings are most consistent with physiologic dyspnea, which is common during pregnancy. This breathing difficulty which is due to an increase in the tidal volume of lung will present itself as an increased awareness of breathing and can occur as early as the end of first trimester. Any minute increase in the ventilation occurs during pregnancy can make patients feel as if they are hyperventilating and contribute to the feeling of dyspnea.

      Patient should be reassured and educated regarding these normal changes of pregnancy, also should be counselled to modify her exercise regimen accordingly to her changed tolerance.

      Systolic ejection murmurs are due to increased blood flow across the aortic and pulmonic valves which is a normal finding in a pregnancy. So there is no need for this patient to be referred to a cardiologist or to order an ECG.
      About 1 in 6400 pregnancies present with pulmonary embolism and there will be clinical evidence of DVT in many of these cases. Dyspnea, chest pain, apprehension, cough, hemoptysis, and tachycardia are the most common symptoms of PE and physical examination shows accentuated pulmonic closure sound, rales, or a friction rub. If there is a strong suspicion for PE, the patient should be followed up with a ventilation-perfusion scan, which will confirm PE if presented with large perfusion defects and ventilation mismatches.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 99 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 100 - In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE? ...

    Correct

    • In threatened abortion, which one of the following items is TRUE?

      Your Answer: More than 50% will abort

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion:
      – Vaginal bleeding with closed cervical os during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy
      – Occurs in 25% of 1st-trimester pregnancies
      – 50% survival
      More than half of threatened abortions will abort. The risk of spontaneous abortion, in a patient with a threatened abortion, is less if fetal cardiac activity is present.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 101 - Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is known to be the commonest presentation in twins?

      Your Answer: Cephalic, cephalic

      Explanation:

      The commonest foetal presentation in twin pregnancy is cephalic-cephalic.

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  • Question 102 - A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.

      Explanation:

      The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
      Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 103 - Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress,...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.

      Which is the least likely cause of her fever?

      Your Answer: Acute endometritis.

      Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Explanation:

      This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 104 - Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?

      Your Answer: Presentation of the placenta at the cervical os

      Correct Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.

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  • Question 105 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation.

      This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

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  • Question 106 - A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.

      Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
      Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.

      Further examination was done and her results were:
      Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
      Pulse is 112/min

      Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?

      Your Answer: Preterm gestation

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
      – baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
      – baseline FHR variability moderate
      – accelerations present or absent
      – late or variable decelerations absent
      – early decelerations present or absent

      The onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.

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  • Question 107 - A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
      Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.

      Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.

      Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.

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  • Question 108 - A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old lady presented in her 3rd trimester with severe features of pre-eclampsia. The drug of choice to prevent the patient going into impending eclampsia would be?

      Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for eclampsia and pre-eclampsia is magnesium sulphate. It is given as a loading dose of 4g i/v over 5 minutes, followed by an infusion for the next 24 hours at the rate of 1g/hr. If the seizures are not controlled, an additional dose of MgSO4 2-4gm i/v can be given over five minutes. Patients with eclampsia or pre-eclampsia can develop any of the following symptoms: persistent headache, visual abnormalities like photophobia, blurring of vison or temporary blindness, epigastric pain, dyspnoea and altered mental status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 109 - A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 110 - A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman comes to your office at 38 weeks of gestation with a urinary dipstick result positive for leukocyte and nitrite. She is otherwise asymptomatic so you send her urine for culture and sensitivity test.

      From the options below mentioned, which is the next best management for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin

      Explanation:

      There is an association between 20 to 30% increase in the risk for developing pyelonephritis during later pregnancy and untreated cases of bacteriuria in pregnancy. This is due to the physiological changes occurring to urinary tract during pregnancy, it is also found that untreated bacteriuria can be associated with even preterm birth and low birth weight. Risk of symptomatic urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy can be reduced by antibiotic treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria

      The most common pathogen associated with asymptomatic bacteriuria is Escherichia coli, which accounts to more than 80% of isolates and the second most frequently cultured uropathogen is Staphylococcus saprophyticus. Other Gram-positive cocci, like group B streptococci, are less common. Gram-negative bacteria such as Klebsiella, Proteus or other Enterobacteriaceae are the other organisms involved in asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Although the context patient is asymptomatic, her urine dipstick shows positive nitrite and leukocyte, suggestive of urinary tract infection, so oral antibiotics like cephalexin or nitrofurantoin are advisable. Normally a five day course of oral antibiotic will be sufficient for the treatment of uncomplicated UTI or asymptomatic bacteraemia in pregnant women. As the patient is currently at her 38 weeks of gestation nitrofurantoin is contraindicated so it is best to prescribe her with Oral Cephalexin. This is because nitrofurantoin is associated with an increased risk of neonatal jaundice and haemolytic anaemia, so should not be used close to delivery, that is after 37 weeks of gestation or sooner if early delivery is planned.

      Acute pyelonephritis should be treated with Intravenous antibiotic treatment, guided by urine culture and sensitivity reports as soon a available. A course of minimum of 10-14 days with IV + oral antibiotics is recommended as treatment for pyelonephritis, along with an increased fluid intake as intravenous fluids in clinically dehydrated patients. Even though urinary alkalisers are safe in pregnancy, prescription of urinary alkalisers alone is not recommended due to its low effectiveness compared to antibiotics, also as it can result in a loss of treatment efficacy urinary alkalisers should never be used in combination with nitrofurantoin.

      At any stage of pregnancy, if Streptococcus agalactiae, a group B streptococcus [GBS], is detected in urine the intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS is usually indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 111 - A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman is found to be lgM positive, but lgG negative after exposure to a child with rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy.
      On laboratory investigation, rubella infection is confirmed as repeated serology testing shows not only a positive lgM, but also a rising titers of lgG.

      Among the following next steps in management, which one is considered to be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Termination of the pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Antenatal screening for rubella IgG is a routine recommended for all pregnant women at their first visit. All pregnant women who have a history of contact with rubella or any clinical features consistent with rubella –like illness should be screened for the presence of rising antibody titre and / or rubella specific IgM. Serological confirmation is mandatory for diagnosing rubella.
      As in this case scenario, positive lgM for rubella indicates active rubella infection, in such cases it is recommended to repeat the test. If lgM is still positive, it confirms rubella infection. No further testing from another laboratory is required.
      The risk for fetal infection and damage is higher if rubella infection occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy, which is 85% in the first two months of pregnancy and 50 -80% in the third month. Therefore, termination of pregnancy is usually recommended in this situation. NHIG has been used in trials for prophylaxis and prevention of congenital rubella syndrome after contact to a case with rubella infection, but the results have been discouraging, therefore, it is not advisable.
      In the given case, rubella infection has been established already, so NHIG will not be of any benefit as primary prevention.
      Rubella-containing vaccines like MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine are contraindicated throughout pregnancy, it should be avoided; and women who remain susceptible to rubella should receive MMR vaccine postpartum.
      Risk of fetal infection and/or fetal damage or for development of congenital rubella syndrome is related to the timing of maternal infection. Cases with Primary infection is found to be in higher risk
      In cases of asymptomatic re-infection with a good history of previous positive serology, even though it is difficult to quantify, the risk of fetal infection has been reported to be < 5 percent. Congenital rubella syndrome following maternal re-infection is considered rare particularly if re-infection occurs after 12 weeks. If the clinical picture is typically of rubella or if possibility of previous immunity is inconclusive based on serology, then the risk is assumed to be the same as that of primary infection.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 112 - Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the most likely finding of placental abruption in a pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Uterine tenderness

      Correct Answer: Vaginal bleeding

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is defined as the premature separation of placenta from uterus and the condition usually presents with bleeding, uterine contractions and fetal distress. It is one of the most significant cause of third-trimester bleeding and is often associated with fetal and maternal mortality and morbidity. In all pregnant women with vaginal bleeding in the second half of the pregnancy, this condition should be considered as a differential diagnoses.
      Though vaginal bleeding is the most common presenting symptom reported by almost 80% of women with placental abruption, vaginal bleeding is concealed in 20% of women with placental abruption, therefore, absence of vaginal bleeding does not exclude placental abruption.

      Symptoms and complications of placental abruption varies according to patient, frequency of appearance of some common features is as follows:
      ‌- Vaginal bleeding is the common presentation in 80% of patients.
      ‌- Abdominal or lower back pain with uterine tenderness is found in 70%
      ‌- Fetal distress is seen in 60% of women.
      ‌- Abnormal uterine contractions like hypertonic, high frequency contractions are seen in 35% cases.
      ‌- Idiopathic premature labor in 25% of patients.
      ‌- Fetal death in about 15% of cases.

      Examination findings include vaginal bleeding, uterine contractions with or without tenderness, shock, absence of fetal heart sounds and increased fundal height due to an expanding hematoma. Shock is seen in class 3 placental abruption which represents almost 24% of all cases of placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 113 - A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her.

      Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Switch to lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.

      Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.

      Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.

      On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.

      If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 114 - A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up....

    Correct

    • A 34-year old primigravida woman came to you for her first prenatal check-up. She is about 7-8 weeks pregnant and enquiries about antenatal screening tests as she is concerned that her baby might have chromosomal abnormalities.

      Among the following results, which would indicate further assessment for trisomy 21?

      Your Answer: Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      Decreased pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) in the first trimester of pregnancy is an indication to carry out further diagnostic testing for Down syndrome.

      Antenatal tests available for screening Down syndrome are divided into two types:
      – Screening tests includes maternal serum screening and ultrasound which are safe to conduct with relatively low predictive values.
      – Diagnostic tests like chorionic villous sampling and amniocentesis are confirmative but carries higher risk of miscarriage as 1 in 100 and 1 in 200 respectively.

      a) Serum screening tests for Down syndrome during first-trimester includes:
      1. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) will be decreased in case of Down syndrome.
      2. Free ß-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) will be increased in cases of Down syndrome.
      If these screening tests are combined with first-trimester ultrasound nuchal translucency, it is found to be more accurate than doing only one of these tests.

      b) Second-trimester serum screening tests for identifying Down syndrome:
      1.Alpha-fetoprotein will be decreased.
      2.Unconjugated oestriol will be decreased.
      3.Free ß-HCG will be increased
      4.Inhibin A will be increased.
      These tests combined with maternal age and ultrasound results will provide more accurate predictive values.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 115 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit. She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor.  She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen. Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin.  Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago. Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2.

      Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?

      Your Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
      Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
      Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
      Adverse effects include:
      – Hot flashes
      – Venous thromboembolism
      – Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
      – Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
      Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.

      Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast.  It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence.  Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
      Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.

      In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly.  However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.

      Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.

      Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.

      Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 116 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for routine antenatal care. Upon interview and history taking, it revealed that she is positive for Hepatitis C virus antibody (HCVAb). She is now concerned about transmitting the virus to her baby.

      Which of the following is considered correct about the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Fetal scalp blood sampling should be avoided

      Explanation:

      Invasive procedures as fetal scalp blood sampling or internal electrode and episiotomy increase vertical transmission of HCV, especially in patients with positive HCV RNA virus load at delivery that is why it should be avoided.

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  • Question 117 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:

      Your Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%

      Explanation:

      Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.

      The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).

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  • Question 118 - Which of the following is the most likely anaesthetic or analgesic causing reduced...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most likely anaesthetic or analgesic causing reduced variability on cardiotocograph?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular pethidine

      Explanation:

      Opiates and spinal anaesthetics reduce the variability of a CTG. Including some antihypertensives like labetalol and alpha methyl dopa.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 119 - A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.

      Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.

      Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 120 - A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland.

      What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-thyroid antibodies

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland

      Explanation:

      A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
      Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.

      Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.

      Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.

      So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.

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  • Question 121 - A 25-year old Asian woman comes to your clinic at 36 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year old Asian woman comes to your clinic at 36 weeks of gestation. She was diagnosed with breech at 32 weeks. She is not in labor and a manual examination of the uterus is suggestive of breech position.

      Which one of the following would be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasonography is performed for confirmation, as well as for the evaluation of maternal pelvis, fetal size and viability in cases were breech presentation is suspected on manual examination. As there is a chance for spontaneous correction of breech presentation into cephalic during 36 to 37 weeks, this should be considered in every future visit. The chances for spontaneous version reduces to 25% if breech position persists beyond this period of time.

      It an external cephalic version should be offered to all women with breech presentation, provided there are no contraindications or indication for cesarean delivery due to other reasons.

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  • Question 122 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

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  • Question 123 - Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of...

    Correct

    • Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of congenital malformations if used in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Among all the antiepileptic drugs sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenicity rate. The potential congenital defects caused by sodium valproate are as below:
      – Neural tube defects like spina bifida, anencephaly
      – Cardiac complications like congenital ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, aberrant pulmonary artery
      – Limb defects like polydactyly were more than 5 fingers are present, oligodactyly were less than 5 fingers are present, absent fingers, overlapping toes, camptodactyly which is presented as a fixed flexion deformity of one or more proximal interphalangeal joints,split hand, ulnar or tibial hypoplasia.
      – Genitourinary defects like hypospadias, renal hypoplasia, hydronephrosis, duplication of calyceal system.
      – Brain anomalies like hydranencephaly, porencephaly, arachnoid cysts, cerebral atrophy, partial agenesis of corpus callosum, agenesis of septum pellucidum, lissencephaly of  medial sides of occipital lobes, Dandy-Walker anomaly
      – Eye anomalies like bilateral congenital cataract, optic nerve hypoplasia, tear duct anomalies, microphthalmia, bilateral iris defects, corneal opacities.
      – Respiratory tract defects like tracheomalacia, lung hypoplasia,severe laryngeal hypoplasia, abnormal lobulation of the right lung, right oligemic lung which is presented with less blood flow.
      – Abdominal wall defects like omphalocele
      – Skin abnormalities capillary hemangioma, aplasia cutis congenital of the scalp.

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  • Question 124 - Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus

      Explanation:

      Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.

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  • Question 125 - A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks.

      On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%.
      Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range.

      Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?

      Your Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
      – Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
      – Moderate to severe dehydration.
      – Ketosis
      – Electrolyte abnormalities.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
      – Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
      – Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
      – Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
      – Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
      – Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.

      Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.

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  • Question 126 - A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks of gestation comes to office for a routine prenatal visit and anatomy ultrasound. Patient feels well generally and has no concerns, also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only daily medication is a prenatal vitamin. She is accompanied by her mother as her husband was unable to get off work. 

      Ultrasound shows a cephalic singleton fetus measuring at <10th percentile consistent with severe growth restriction. There are bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect.  Amniotic fluid level is normal with a posterior and fundal placenta. 

      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?

      Your Answer: There are some things about your ultrasound that I need to discuss with you; is it okay to do that now?

      Explanation:

      SPIKES protocol for delivering serious news to patients includes:
      – Set the stage includes arranging for a private, comfortable setting space, introduce patient/family & team members, maintain eye contact & sit at the same level and schedule appropriate time interval & minimize space for interruptions.
      – Perception: Use open-ended questions to assess the patient’s/family’s perception of the medical situation.
      – Invitation: should ask patient/family how much information they would like to know and remain cognizant of their cultural, educational & religious issues.
      – Knowledge:
      Warn the patient/family that serious news is coming, Speak in simple & straightforward terms, stop & check whether they are understanding.
      – Empathy: Express understanding & give support when responding to emotions
      – Summary & strategy: Summarize & create follow-through plan, including end-of-life discussions if applicable.

      The ultrasound findings of severe growth restriction, bilateral choroid plexus cysts, clenched fists, and a large ventricular septal defect are consistent with trisomy 18, the second most common autosomal trisomy, which results in fetal loss or neonatal death in the majority of cases.  In this case, the physician is to deliver a very serious news to the patient who is presenting for a routine visit, believing her pregnancy was normal.  When serious news is unexpected, it is especially important to prepare the patient and determine how the patient would like to receive the results.
      The physician is supposed to provide a comfortable setting and must ask patient’s permission to share the results. This allows the patient to respond with her preference and avoids making assumptions about whom, if anyone, she would like to be present with.  For example, some patients may prefer to defer discussion of the results until a major support person (eg, husband, mother) is present. In addition to establish patient’s preferred setting, physician should determine how much information the patient would like to receive. Some patients will prefer a detailed medical information about diagnosis and prognosis, whereas others may prefer to have time to process the news emotionally and receive further information later.  The SPIKES protocol (Setting the stage, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Empathy, and Summary/strategy) is a six-step model that can guide physicians in delivering serious news to patients.

      These statements do not allow the patient to choose how she receives the results and assume that she does not want her mother present.

      This statement fails to prepare the patient for serious news and prematurely jumps to sharing results using technical, medical terminology that may be difficult for the patient to comprehend. This approach could also be upsetting to a patient undergoing a routine ultrasound who is not expecting anything abnormal.

      This statement inappropriately determines when and with whom the patient should receive the results. Instead the patient should be asked how she prefers to receive the results.

      While delivering unexpected, serious news, physicians should prepare the patient and determine how the patient prefers to receive the information.

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  • Question 127 - A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.

      What would be the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.

      The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.

      The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.

      As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.

      Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.

      Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 128 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void.  She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.”  When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. 

      Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Voiding diary

      Explanation:

      This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day.  Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.

      All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.

      In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.

      Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.

      In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.

      Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point).  This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.

      Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.

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  • Question 129 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Correct

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

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  • Question 130 - A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Pruritus

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.

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  • Question 131 - All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the...

    Correct

    • All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the foetus except?

      Your Answer: Cervical fibroids

      Explanation:

      Unstable lie means that the foetus is still changing its position even at 36 weeks of gestation. A number of factors are responsible for this positioning such as multi gravida, placenta previa, prematurity and fibroids present in the fundus. Cervical fibroids have little association with unstable lie of the foetus.

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  • Question 132 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the clinic for advice because she is planning to conceive and has never been pregnant before. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no history of diabetes, mental health issues, and is not taking any regular medication.

      Which of the following is considered the best recommendation to give to the patient for the prevention of neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 0.4 mg daily for a minimum of one month before conception to first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      CDC urges all women of reproductive age to take 400 micrograms (mcg) of folic acid each day, in addition to consuming food with folate from a varied diet, to help prevent some major birth defects of the baby’s brain (anencephaly) and spine (spina bifida).

      Women who are at high risk of having babies with neural tube defects and who would benefit from higher doses of folic acid include those with certain folate-enzyme genotypes, previous pregnancies with neural tube defects, diabetes, malabsorption disorders, or obesity, or those who take antifolate medications or smoke. Such women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.

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  • Question 133 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview, it was noted that she has been having unprotected intercourse with her husband regularly for the past year but has not become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her menses occur every 28 to 30 days and they last 4 to 5 days. A day before her menses, she has episodes of severe lower abdominal pain that is only partially relieved by ibuprofen.
      Further history taking was done and revealed that she was treated for gonococcal cervicitis at age 19. The patient also takes a prenatal vitamin every day and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her 31-year-old husband recently had semen analysis and his results were normal.

      Further examination was done and the following are her results:
      Blood pressure is 126/70mmHg
      Pulse is 85/min
      BMI is 31 kg/m2

      Upon further examination and observation, it was revealed that she has a small uterus with a cervix that appears laterally displaced and there is accompanying pain upon cervical manipulation.

      Which of the following is most likely considered the cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine adhesions

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecologic disease characterized by the development and presence of histological elements like endometrial glands and stroma in anatomical positions and organs outside of the uterine cavity. The main clinical manifestations of the disease are chronic pelvic pain and impaired fertility. The localization of endometriosis lesions can vary, with the most commonly involved focus of the disease the ovaries followed by the posterior broad ligament, the anterior cul-de-sac, the posterior cul-de-sac, and the uterosacral ligament.

      The clinical presentation of the disease differs in women and may be unexpected not only in the presentation but also in the duration. Clinicians usually suspect and are more likely to diagnose the disease in females presenting with the typical symptomatology such as dyspareunia, namely painful sexual intercourse, pelvic pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), pain in the urination (dysuria), defecation (dyschezia), and/or infertility. The pain is usually characterized as chronic, cyclic, and progressive (exacerbating over time). Furthermore, some women suffering from endometriosis experience hyperalgesia, a phenomenon, when even with the application of a nonpainful stimulus, an intolerable painful reaction is released. This condition indicates neuropathic pain.

      Tenderness on vaginal examination, palpable nodules in the posterior fornix, adnexal masses, and immobility of the uterus are diagnostically indicating findings of endometriosis.

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  • Question 134 - The first stage of labour: ...

    Correct

    • The first stage of labour:

      Your Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix

      Explanation:

      First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.

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  • Question 135 - A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview,...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview, it was noted that she was a regular alcohol drinker and has been using contraceptive pills for the past 3 years.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate advice for the patient?

      Your Answer: Stop alcohol now

      Explanation:

      Alcohol exposure during pregnancy results in impaired growth, stillbirth, and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Fetal alcohol deficits are lifelong issues with no current treatment or established diagnostic or therapeutic tools to prevent and/or ameliorate some of these adverse outcomes.

      Alcohol readily crosses the placenta with fetal blood alcohol levels approaching maternal levels within 2 hours of maternal intake. As there is known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy, and alcohol is a known teratogen that can impact fetal growth and development during all stages of pregnancy, the current recommendation from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Centre for Disease Control (CDC), Surgeon General, and medical societies from other countries including the Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada all recommend complete abstinence during pregnancy.

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  • Question 136 - A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby.

      Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.

      A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.

      Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.

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  • Question 137 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman presents with the complaint of malodorous vaginal discharge for the past one month. Patient has tried various over-the-counter vaginal douche products without any improvement.  Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, during which she noticed no change in her symptoms. In addition to the discharge, patient also experiences intermittent, crampy abdominal pain along with a feeling of gas passing through her vagina. Patient has had no history of surgeries in the past.

      On examination her vital signs seems to be normal.  Speculum examination shows a malodorous, tan vaginal discharge with an erythematous patch over the posterior vaginal wall. The cervix is nulliparous and has no visible lesions or areas of friability. A sinus with purulent drainage is found in the perianal skin. 

      Which among the following conditions will be the most likely underlying cause for this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer: Transmural inflammation of the bowel

      Explanation:

      Common risk factors for Rectovaginal fistula are Pelvic radiation, Obstetric trauma, Pelvic surgery, Colon cancer, Diverticulitis and Crohn disease. Uncontrollable passage of gas &/or feces from the vagina is considered the common clinical feature of Rectovaginal fistula.
      Diagnosis is done with the help of physical examination, fistulography, Magnetic resonance imaging and Endosonography.

      This patient, mentioned in the case, presents with malodorous vaginal discharge (ie, stool), gas passing through the vagina, and a posterior vaginal lesion most likely has a rectovaginal fistula, which is an aberrant connection between bowel and vagina.  Although development of rectovaginal fistula is commonly associated with obstetric trauma or pelvic surgery, patients without these risk factors are recommended to be evaluated for other additional causes like gastrointestinal conditions.
      This patient’s intermittent, crampy abdominal pain and perianal sinus in the setting of a rectovaginal fistula is most likely due to an underlying Crohn disease.  Crohn disease, is a transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract, which predisposes patients to bowel abscess, fissure, and fistula formation.  Although the rectum is typically spared in Crohn disease, a non-healing, transmural ulcer present in the anal canal can progress to form a rectovaginal fistula.
      In addition to standard Crohn disease management like anti-TNF inhibitors, glucocorticoids, etc patients with a rectovaginal fistula may require surgical correction.

      Bartholin gland cysts or abscesses can present with malodorous vaginal discharge; however, patients typically have a posterior vulvar mass located at the 4 or 8 o’clock position. In addition, Bartholin gland cysts will not present with crampy abdominal pain or passage of flatus or stool through the vagina.

      Hidradenitis which is the chronic occlusion and inflammation of hair follicles, can cause groin abscesses with sinus tracts and associated purulent drainage.  However, it is not associated with abdominal pain or malodorous vaginal discharge. In addition, this condition is typically multifocal and located in more than one intertriginous areas like axillary, inguinal or gluteal regions.

      Cervical cancer or a retained foreign body in the vagina can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and abdominal pain.  However, patients will typically have visible findings like cervical lesion, foreign body etc on speculum examination, and these neither are associated with the passage of flatus through the vagina.

      Complications of Crohn disease include perianal disease like abscess, fissure and fistula like rectovaginal fistula, due to transmural inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract.  Patients with a rectovaginal fistula typically presents with malodorous, tan vaginal discharge, passage of flatus through the vagina and a posterior vaginal lesion.

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  • Question 138 - A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in a high-risk pregnancy clinic has a past obstetrical history of placenta previa and caesarean section has a breech presentation at 36 weeks gestation.

      Which of the following is considered a risk factor in increasing the chance of term breech presentation?

      Your Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      Clinical conditions associated with breech presentation include those that may increase or decrease fetal motility, or affect the vertical polarity of the uterine cavity. Prematurity, multiple gestations, aneuploidies, congenital anomalies, Mullerian anomalies, uterine leiomyoma, and placental polarity as in placenta previa are most commonly associated with a breech presentation. Also, a previous history of breech presentation at term increases the risk of repeat breech presentation at term in subsequent pregnancies.

      Conditions that change the vertical polarity or the uterine cavity, or affect the ease or ability of the foetus to turn into the vertex presentation in the third trimester include:
      – Mullerian anomalies
      – Placentation
      – Uterine leiomyoma
      – Prematurity
      – Aneuploidies and fetal neuromuscular disorders
      – Congenital anomalies
      – Polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios
      – Laxity of the maternal abdominal wall.

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  • Question 139 - A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester pregnancy losses, presented with backache and pre-menstrual-like cramping along with increased vaginal discharge for the past one week.

      Pelvic examination shows that her cervix is dilated by 4 cm and effaced 80%.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cervical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      This woman has signs and symptoms suggestive of cervical insufficiency, whose clinical features include pelvic pressure, premenstrual-like cramping and backache with increased vaginal discharge. Usually these symptoms will persist for several days to weeks.
      Cervical insufficiency is seen between 14 – 20 weeks of gestation, which is presented as soft effaced cervix, with minimal dilation on physical examination and a 4 cm dilated and more than 80% effaced cervix will be the clinical presentation in a more advanced case.

      Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, whereas Placenta Previa presents as painless vaginal bleeding. Both cases will lead to shock but will not show any features of cervical insufficiency.

      Anaemia, polyhydramnios, large for gestational age uterus and severe hyperemesis gravidarum are the commonly associated symptoms of a twin pregnancies.

      New menstrual cycle after an abortion is expected to be presented with cervical dilation however signs of effacement will not be present along with it.

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  • Question 140 - A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation

      Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.

      To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.

      → Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
      → Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
      → Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
      → At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered.

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  • Question 141 - Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which is the most common method used for termination of a pregnancy before 20 weeks in Australia?

      Your Answer: Comobined mifepristone and misoprostol

      Correct Answer: Suction and curettage

      Explanation:

      Medical abortion is preferred from 4 to 9 weeks of gestation and in Australia, suction curettage is the most frequently used method of abortion as it is considered useful from 6 to 14 weeks of gestation.

      Mifepristone is a synthetic anti-progesterone, which is found to be effective for abortion when combined with misoprostol. There are evidences which suggest the effectiveness of misoprostol and mifepristone in both first and second trimesters. It is most commonly administered as a single dose of mifepristone followed by misoprostol, a prostaglandin, given orally or vaginally two days later. Prostaglandin can be repeated at an interval of 4 hours if required.
      As the vaginal use shows only few gastrointestinal side effects Misoprostol is more effective and better tolerated vaginally than orally. Misoprostol is not approved for its use in termination of pregnancy, but is available in the market due to its indications in other conditions.
      Methotrexate can be used orally or as an intramuscular injection followed by misoprostol up to seven days later, but this also is not a preferred method for termination of pregnancy in Australia.

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  • Question 142 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

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  • Question 143 - Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • Lidiya is a 30-year-old hospital nurse in her nine weeks of pregnancy. She has no history of chickenpox, but by regularly attending the facial sores of an elderly patient with herpes zoster ophthalmicus she has been significantly exposed to shingles.

      What would you advise her as preventive management?

      Your Answer: If she had chicken pox immunization in the past, she needs to have her Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies checked to assure immunity

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case is nine weeks pregnant, and she has been exposed to a herpes zoster rash because she is working as a hospital nurse and has no prior history of chickenpox.
      The most appropriate next step in this case would be checking for Varicella-Zoster IgG antibodies which assures immunity to varicella infections. If VZV IgG is present no further action is needed, but if VZV IgG antibodies are absent, then she will need Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulins within ten days from the exposure to shingles.

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  • Question 144 - A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant presented to the medical clinic for consultation regarding the chance of her baby having Down syndrome. She mentioned that she has read somewhere that one of the risk factors for Down syndrome is advanced maternal age. She is concerned and asks if there are ways in which she can know whether her baby will be affected.

      Which of the following is considered as both the safest and the most accurate diagnostic tool for the exclusion of Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ultrasonography at 10 to 12 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Amniocentesis is a prenatal procedure performed on a pregnant woman to withdraw a small amount of amniotic fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.
      The goal of amniocentesis is to examine a small amount of this fluid to obtain information about the baby, including its sex, and to detect physical abnormalities such as Down syndrome or spina bifida.
      Amniocentesis is only performed on women thought to be at higher risk of delivering a child with a birth defect.

      Amniocentesis is performed between 16 and 20 weeks into the pregnancy. By around this time, the developing baby is suspended in about 130ml of amniotic fluid, which the baby constantly swallows and excretes. A thin needle is used to withdraw a small amount of this fluid from the sac surrounding the foetus.

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  • Question 145 - A 41-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) presents at eight weeks gestation for...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) presents at eight weeks gestation for her first antenatal visit.

      This is her second pregnancy.

      She is worried about Down syndrome risk in her foetus.

      From the following options listed, select the safest test (i.e., the one with least risk of causing adverse consequences in the pregnancy) that will provide an accurate diagnosis regarding the presence or absence of Trisomy 21 in the foetus.

      Your Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      Nuchal translucency scans and maternal screening tests simply aid in determining a risk percentage for the presence of Trisomy 21, but an accurate diagnosis cannot be reached.

      Chorionic villous biopsy (CVB), amniocentesis, and cordocentesis, are all prenatal diagnostic tests that can provide a definitive diagnosis regarding the presence of foetal abnormalities.

      Amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks of gestation is associated with the lowest risk for miscarriage and hence is the safest test and should be recommended to the mother (correct answer).

      The miscarriage risk from a CVB is at least double the risk following amniocentesis.

      Nowadays, cordocentesis is rarely used for sampling of foetal material to detect chromosomal abnormalities as the test poses an even higher risk of miscarriage compared to the other procedures discussed above.

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  • Question 146 - A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.

    Her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term.

      Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications.

      She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour.

      What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?

      Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.

      Explanation:

      In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.

      However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.

      A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.

      CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.

      Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.

      Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 147 - The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a...

    Correct

    • The following measures are usually performed during a routine antenatal visit for a healthy uncomplicated pregnancy at 36 weeks gestation, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Mid-steam urine specimen (MSU) for culture & sensitivity

      Explanation:

      At the 36‑week appointment, all pregnant women should be seen again. At this appointment: measure blood pressure and test urine for proteinuria; measure and plot symphysis–fundal height; check position of baby; for women whose babies are in the breech presentation, offer external cephalic version (ECV)

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 148 - A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old female in her 18th week of pregnancy presented with right iliac fossa pain while getting up from a chair and has been coughing and sneezing.

      On examination, there is no palpable mass or rebound tenderness.

      What will be the most likely cause for patient's complaint?

      Your Answer: Round ligament strain

      Explanation:

      Patient’s symptoms and signs are suggestive of round ligament strain, which is a normal finding during pregnancy, especially in the 2nd trimester, and it does not require any medical intervention.

      Round ligament is a rope-like fibromuscular band which extends from the anterolateral aspect of uterus anteriorly between the layers of the broad ligament, and passing through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal.
      A sharp, sudden spasm in the right iliac fossa which lasts for a few seconds which is usually triggered by sneezing, coughing, laughing and rolling over in bed are the common presentations of a round ligament pain.

      Ectopic pregnancy and rupture of ectopic pregnancy are two unlikely diagnosis in this patient as she is in the second trimester of her pregnancy, whereas both the mentioned conditions occur during the first trimester.

      Although appendicitis presents with pain in right iliac fossa, the pain is not causes by coughing or sneezing. Also, there will be other symptoms like tenderness and rebound tenderness in right iliac fossa in case of appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 149 - A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 76 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature: 36.8°C
      Fetal heart rate: 144/min

      On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.

      Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.

      Explanation:

      This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.

      For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.

      If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.

      A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.

      Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 150 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation visits your clinic for follow up.

      On pelvic ultrasound you noted a decrease in amniotic fluid, and all her previous scans were normal.

      When asked she recollected on experiencing an episode of urinary incontinence yesterday, were she had wet her undergarment with a sudden gush of clear fluid.

      Considering the presentation, which of the following is MOST likely the cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer: Premature preterm rupture of membrane

      Explanation:

      This patient presenting with oligohydramnios in her third trimester and had reported an episode of sudden gush of fluid secondary to ruptured membrane which she had mistaken to be “urinary incontinence”.  Hence, the most likely cause of oligohydramnios in this patient will be premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM).

      An amniotic fluid volume which is less than expected for gestational age is called as Oligohydramnios and is typically diagnosed by ultrasound examination. This condition can be qualitatively described as reduced amniotic fluid volume and quantitatively as amniotic fluid index ≤5 cm or a single deepest pocket <2 cm. Oligohydramnios either can be idiopathic or may have a maternal, fetal or placental cause. Fetal prognosis in this case depends on several factors like the underlying cause, the severity of loss ie. reduced versus no amniotic fluid state and the gestational age at which oligohydramnios occurred. As an adequate volume of amniotic fluid is critical for the normal fetal movements, for fetal lung development and for cushioning the fetus and umbilical cord from uterine compression, so pregnancies complicated with oligohydramnios are at higher risk for fetal deformation, pulmonary hypoplasia and umbilical cord compression.
      Oligohydramnios is also associated with an increased risk for fetal or neonatal death, which can either be related to the underlying cause of reduction in amniotic fluid volume or due to the sequelae caused due to reduced amniotic fluid volume. The amniotic fluid volume reflects the balance between fluid production and movement of fluid out of the amniotic sac and the most common mechanisms behind oligohydramnios are fetal oliguria/anuria or fluid loss due to rupture of membranes; also reduction in the amount of lung fluid or increased swallowing do not play major roles in this. Idiopathic cases as in idiopathic oligohydramnios, may be due to alterations in the expression of water pores like aquaporin 1 and aquaporin 3, present in fetal membranes and placenta.

      Causes of oligohydramnios
      a) Maternal causes includes:
      – Medical or obstetric conditions associated with uteroplacental insufficiency like preeclampsia, chronic hypertension, collagen vascular disease, nephropathy, thrombophilia.
      – Intake of medications like angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, trastuzumab.
      b) Placental causes are:
      – Abruption of placenta
      – Twin polyhydramnios-oligohydramnios sequence which is the Twin to twin transfusion
      – Placental thrombosis or infarction
      c) Fetal cases leading to oligohydramnios are:
      – Chromosomal abnormalities
      – Congenital abnormalities which are associated with impaired urine production
      – Growth restriction
      – Demise
      – Post-term pregnancy
      – Ruptured fetal membranes
      – Infections
      – Idiopathic causes

      During First trimester: Etiology of oligohydramnios during the first trimester is often unclear. As the gestational sac fluid is primarily derived from the fetal surface of the placenta via transamniotic flow from the maternal compartment and secretions from the surface of the body of the embryo reduced amniotic fluid prior to 10 weeks of gestation is rare.

      During Second trimester: Fetal urine begins to enter the amniotic sac and fetus begins to swallow amniotic fluid by the beginning of second trimester, therefore, during this period any disorders related to the renal/urinary system of the fetus begins to play a prominent role in the etiology of oligohydramnios. Some of such anomalies include intrinsic renal disorders like cystic renal disease and obstructive lesions of the lower urinary tract like posterior urethral valves or urethral atresia. Other common causes of oligohydramnios in the second trimester are maternal and placental factors and traumatic or nontraumatic rupture of the fetal membranes.

      During Third trimester: Oligohydramnios which is first diagnosed in the third trimester is often associated with PPROM or with conditions such as preeclampsia or other maternal vascular diseases leading to uteroplacental insufficiency. Oligohydramnios frequently accompanies fetal growth restriction as a result of uteroplacental insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (104/150) 69%
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