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Question 1
Incorrect
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A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company behind this, is planning to conduct a trial and is looking for hiring around 200 individuals that are suffering from Crohn's disease. The aim would be to determine if there is any decline in the disease activity in response to the drug and compare it with a placebo.
What phase is the trial in?Your Answer: Phase 3
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:The study is being conducted on a smaller level with only 200 participants and is determining the effectiveness of the drug in comparison to a placebo. These characteristics are in accordance with the second phase of trial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?
Your Answer: 4 mg ondansetron
Correct Answer: 20 mg codeine
Explanation:To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:
(age + 4) 2 = weight
A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.
The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:
Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?
Your Answer: 10 ml of cold fluid is injected through the distal port of the pulmonary artery catheter
Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause
Explanation:Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.
During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.
The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.
Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised.
Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:
Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
2 / 400
6 / 100
10 / 25
14 / 6.25
Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?
Your Answer: 4 hours
Correct Answer: 2 hours
Explanation:Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.
Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:
Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 6
Correct
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Suppose the afterload and myocardial contractility remain unchanged, which of the following factors in the pressure-volume loop indicates an increase in the preload of the left ventricle?
Your Answer: Increased end-diastolic volume
Explanation:If the afterload and myocardiac contractility remains unchanged, an increase in the preload can be attributed to an increase in end-diastolic volume.
Preload can be defined as the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. Preload, therefore, is related to muscle sarcomere length. Because sarcomere length cannot be determined in the intact heart, other indices of preload are used such as ventricular end-diastolic volume or pressure. When venous return to the heart is increased, the end-diastolic pressure and volume of the ventricles are increased, which stretches the sarcomeres, thereby increasing their preload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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In a study lasting over a period of two years, in which the mean age of 800 patients was 82 years, the efficacy of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures was discussed.
Both experimental and control group had 400 members. Instances of fractures reported over the two year time duration were 10 for the control group (that were prescribed hip protector) and 20 for the control group.
What is the value of Absolute Risk Reduction?Your Answer: 10
Correct Answer: 0.025
Explanation:ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (10/400)-(20/400)
ARR= 0.025-0.05
ARR= 0.025 (Numerical Value)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 8
Correct
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Tubes for vascular access and body cavity drainage are available in a variety of sizes.
When choosing an intravenous or intra-arterial cannula, which of the following measurements is used?Your Answer: Standard wire gauge (SWG)
Explanation:Standard wire gauge cannulas for intravenous and intraarterial use are available (SWG or G). The SWG is a former imperial unit (which requires metric conversion). The cross sectional area of wires is becoming more popular as a size measurement.
The number of wires that will fit into a standard hole template is referred to as SWG.
This standard sized hole can accommodate 22 thin wires side by side (each wire the diameter of a 22 gauge cannula)
In the same hole, 14 thicker wires would fit (each wire the diameter of a 14 gauge cannula)While the diameter and thus radius of a parallel sided tube are the most important determinants of fluid flow rate, they are not commonly used to compare cannula sizes.
The circumference of French gauge (FG) catheters (urinary or chest drains) is measured. Sizes of double lumen tracheal tubes are FG. Internal diameter is used to measure single lumen tubes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general anaesthesia. He was given intravenous co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) following which the patient developed widespread urticarial ras, became hypotensive (61/30 mmHg), and showed clinical signs of bronchospasm. Anaphylaxis is suspected in this patient.
Which one of the following is considered as best initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Intravenous adrenaline 50 mcg
Explanation:The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.
Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A previously fit 26-year-old is undergoing surgery to repair an inguinal hernia. He is breathing on his own, and a supraglottic airway is being maintained via a circle system with air/oxygen and sevoflurane.
With a fresh gas flow of 14 L/min, the end-tidal CO2 reading is 8.1 kPa. CO2 pressure is 1.9 kPa. The percentages of oxygen inhaled and exhaled are 38 and 33 percent, respectively.
What do you think is the most likely source for these readings?Your Answer: Exhaustion of soda lime
Correct Answer: Incompetent expiratory valve
Explanation:The patient is rebreathing carbon dioxide that has been exhaled.
Exhaustion of the soda lime and failure of the expiratory valve are the two most likely causes. A leak in the inspiratory limb is a less likely cause. Increased inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide levels may appear with a normal-looking capnogram if the expiratory valve is ineffective.
The patient will exhale into both the inspiratory and expiratory limbs if the inspiratory valve is inoperable. A slanted downstroke inspiratory phase (as the patient inhales carbon dioxide-containing gas from the inspiratory limb) and increased end-tidal carbon dioxide can be seen on the capnogram.
Even if the soda lime were exhausted, a high fresh gas flow would be enough to prevent rebreathing. The difference in oxygen concentrations in inspired and expired breaths would be less pronounced.
Hypercapnia is caused by respiratory obstruction and malignant hyperthermia, but not by rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test.
Which type of bias is that?Your Answer: Selection bias
Correct Answer: Work-up bias
Explanation:Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.
Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.
Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.
Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.
Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 12
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:
Your Answer: Decreases cerebral blood flow
Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity
Explanation:Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)
It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)
It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.
Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.
Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman complains of pain in her upper abdomen to her physician. The pain comes intermittently in waves and gets worse after eating food. There are no associated complaints of fever or bowel problems.
The pain intensity is 6/10, and paracetamol relieves it a little. There is suspicion that part of the biliary tree is blocked.
Which area of the duodenum does this blocked tube open into?Your Answer: Duodenojejunal flexure
Correct Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from biliary colic since her pain is intermittent and comes and goes in waves. Biliary colic pain gets worse after eating, especially fatty food as bile helps digest fats. Gallstones are the most common cause of biliary colic and are usually located in the cystic duct or common bile duct. But since this patient has no signs of jaundice or steatorrhea, the duct most likely blocked is the cystic duct.
The cystic duct drains the gallbladder and combines with the common hepatic duct to form the common bile duct. The common bile duct then merges with the pancreatic duct and opens into the second part of the duodenum (major duodenal papilla).
The duodenojejunal flexure is attached to the diaphragm by the ligament of Treitz and is not associated with any common pathology.
The fourth part of the duodenum passes very close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
The third part of the duodenum can be affected by superior mesenteric artery syndrome, where the duodenum is compressed between the SMA and the aorta, often in cases of reduced body fat.
The first part of the duodenum is the most common location for peptic ulcers affecting this organ. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A patient admitted to the hospital is on oxygen via a venturi mask.
The air entrainment ratio is 1:9 i.e. 1 litre of 100% oxygen from the source entrains 9 litres of air from the atmosphere). The flow rate of 100% oxygen is 6L/minute.
Based on the given data which of the following value approximates the oxygen concentration delivered to the patient?Your Answer: 60%
Correct Answer: 28%
Explanation:The formula for calculating air: oxygen entrainment ratio is given as :
100% − FiO2 = air/oxygen entrainment ratio
Since FiO2 − 21% and the entrainment ratio is already known. Substituting the values in the equation: x = FiO2.100 − x = 9
x − 21
100 − x = 9(x − 21)
100 − x = 9x − 189
10x = 289
x = 289/10
x = 28.9% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?Your Answer: Mutation in the gene encoding the target site
Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.
Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA
Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?
Your Answer: Adenosine
Explanation:Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.
Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.
Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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All of the following are part of the endocrine response to uncontrolled bleeding except:
Your Answer: Antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary
Correct Answer: Increased secretion of insulin
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: T12
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and during the surgery, the inferior parathyroid gland is found to be enlarged. There is a vessel adjacent to this gland on its lateral side.
What is this vessel most likely to be?Your Answer: External carotid artery
Correct Answer: Common carotid artery
Explanation:There are four parathyroid glands that lie on the medial half of the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland, inside its sheath. There are two superior and two inferior parathyroid glands.
The common carotid artery is a lateral relation of the inferior parathyroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with acute intermittent porphyria requiring rapid sequence induction for emergency surgery?
Your Answer: Thiopentone
Correct Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.
Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.
Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.
Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.
Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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