-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 16-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?
Your Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen
Explanation:Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities. Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern, although other inheritance patterns exist. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.
People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).
People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.
Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A child with a history of developmental delay presents with plaque-like lesions in the retina. The doctor suspects they are probably hamartomas. Which of the following is the most probable association?
Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis
Explanation:Tuberous sclerosis, an autosomal dominant disorder, may present with a variety of symptoms, including seizures, developmental delay, behavioural problems, skin abnormalities, and lung and kidney disease. Hamartomas are often associated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling from his mothers arms. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer: Facial X ray
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them.Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl comes to clinic complaining of primary amenorrhoea, despite having developed secondary sexual characteristics at 11 years of age. On examination, she has well-developed breasts and small bilateral groin swellings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
Explanation:Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), previously referred to as testicular feminization, is an X-linked disorder in which the patients are genotypically male (possessing and X and Y chromosome) and phenotypically female. This disorder is rare, with reported incidences from 1 in 20,000 to 1 in 60,000 live male births, and is the result of a missing gene on the X chromosome that is responsible for the cytoplasmic or nuclear testosterone receptor. In its absence, the gonad, which is a testis, produces normal amounts of testosterone| however, the end tissues are unable to respond due to the deficient receptors leading to the external genitalia developing in a female fashion. Anti-Mullerian hormone, which is produced by the testis, is normal in these patients, leading to regression of the Mullerian duct. Wolffian duct development, which depends on testosterone, does not occur as the ducts lack the receptors. The cumulative effect is a genotypic male with normal external female genitalia (without pubic or axillary hair), no menses, normal breast development, short or absent vagina, no internal sex organs, and the presence of testis. Frequently, these patients have bilateral inguinal hernias in childhood, and their presence should arouse suspicion of the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?
Your Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?
Your Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?
Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism
Explanation:The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)