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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with difficulty walking and foot drop. On examination, there is weakness in dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. A small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of the right foot is also present. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: L5 root lesion
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:Injuries to the peroneal nerve can cause numbness, tingling, pain, weakness and foot drop. The branches of the common peroneal nerve innervate and control the muscles in the legs that lift the ankle and toes upward (dorsi flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 2
Correct
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An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?
Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 3
Correct
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In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?
Your Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: HSP
Correct Answer: Haemophilia
Explanation:From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 5 year old girl presented with short stature, primary amenorrhea, puffy arms and a webbed neck. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer: Turner’s syndrome
Explanation:Given the presentation of short stature, primary amenorrhea, puffy arms, and a webbed neck in a 5-year-old girl, the most likely diagnosis is: Turner’s syndrome
Reasoning:
- Short Stature: Common in Turner syndrome.
- Primary Amenorrhea: Typical in Turner syndrome due to ovarian dysgenesis.
- Puffy Arms: Lymphedema is common in Turner syndrome, particularly in infancy.
- Webbed Neck: A classic feature of Turner syndrome.
Other Conditions:
- Down’s Syndrome: Typically presents with intellectual disability, characteristic facial features, and sometimes congenital heart defects, but not usually with primary amenorrhea or a webbed neck.
- Klinefelter’s Syndrome: Affects males and presents with hypogonadism and infertility, not applicable to a 5-year-old girl.
- Fragile X Syndrome: Primarily presents with intellectual disability and physical features such as an elongated face and large ears, not with a webbed neck or amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 6
Correct
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of easy fatiguability and severe headaches. She also complains of irregular and sporadic periods. During the examination, you notice behavioural traits that suggest a deterioration in peripheral vision. An eye exam confirms bitemporal hemianopia. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain reveals a large non-functional pituitary tumour. Which structure does the tumour exert pressure on to cause her visual symptoms?
Your Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Bitemporal hemianopia is a characteristic finding seen in patients with optic chiasm lesion.The pituitary gland is situated within the pituitary fossa. Just above the pituitary fossa is the optic chiasm and so any expanding masses from the pituitary gland commonly press on it, causing bitemporal hemianopia.Other options:- Compression of the optic nerve would not cause more severe, generalised visual loss. Also, the optic nerve is not anatomically related to the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour.- The optic tract is again not closely anatomically related with the pituitary gland and so is unlikely to be directly compressed in the presence of a pituitary tumour. Also, damage to the optic tract on one side would cause homonymous hemianopia.- The lateral geniculate nucleus is a centre of cells in the thalamus and is unlikely to be compressed by a pituitary tumour. Its function is to convey sensory information from the optic tract to more central parts of the visual pathway.- The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is located at the level of the superior colliculus in the midbrain and so may not be compressed by an enlarging pituitary tumour.Other visual defects:- Left homonymous hemianopia: It is the visual field defect to the left, due to the lesion of the right optic tract.- Homonymous quadrantanopias are seen in parietal (inferior homonymous quadrantopia) and temporal lobe lesions (superior homonymous quadrantopia). Mnemonic: PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, and conversely, an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.Incongruous defects suggest an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest optic radiation or occipital cortex lesion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?
Your Answer: Dichorionic monoamniotic
Correct Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic
Explanation:A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 9
Incorrect
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When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor skills would NOT be expected of a 3-year-old?
Your Answer: Climbing
Correct Answer: Catching a bounced ball
Explanation:Milestones of 3 years old:Social and Emotional:Copies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/Communication:Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns door handle Movement/Physical Development:Climbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and down stairs, one foot on each step
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?
Your Answer: Pseudarthrosis
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma
Explanation:Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: The pituitary stalk connects the anterior pituitary gland to the hypothalamus
Correct Answer: The majority of hormone production occurs in the pars distalis
Explanation:The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases various hormones that affect several organs throughout the body.The pituitary gland is entirely ectodermal in origin but is composed of 2 functionally distinct structures that differ in embryologic development and anatomy: the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) and the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).The anterior pituitary has three main regions:Pars distalis: Where the main hormone production occursPars tuberalis: Joins the pituitary stalk arising from the posterior pituitary glandPars intermedia: Divides the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary gland. The pars distalis forms the majority of the adenohypophysis and resembles a typical endocrine gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?
Your Answer: Appendix of testis
Correct Answer: Wolffian duct
Explanation:The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?
Your Answer: 15 weeks
Correct Answer: 12 weeks
Explanation:Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?
Your Answer: Heterochromia
Correct Answer: Congenital ptosis
Explanation:A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 17
Correct
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Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?
Your Answer: Low serum creatinine
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with complaints of a patch of scaling skin and hair loss on the right side of his head. A skin scraping confirms the diagnosis of tinea capitis. What is the most common organism responsible for tinea capitis?
Your Answer: Trichophyton verrucosum
Correct Answer: Trichophyton tonsurans
Explanation:The most common organism responsible for tinea capitis is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea is a term given to dermatophyte fungal infections. There are three types of tinea, depending on what part of the body is infected:- Tinea capitis – scalp- Tinea corporis – trunk, legs or arms- Tinea pedis – feetTinea capitis (scalp ringworm):It is a cause for scarring alopecia mainly seen in children.If untreated, it can form a raised pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion.The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans.Tinea can also be caused by Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs.The diagnosis of tinea capitis and identification of the organism is possible from the skin lesions:- Scalp scrapings and Potassium hydroxide (KOH) mounts.- Wood’s lamp: Microsporum canis produces a green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp examination.Treatment: – Oral antifungals: terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections.- Griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. – Topical ketoconazole shampoo is recommended for the first two weeks to limit the transmission of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer: Oral steroids
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A mother attends the emergency department with her 18-month-old child. She has noticed a discharge from the child's left ear. On examination, the child is systemically well. Examination of the left ear reveals a foul-smelling copious discharge. The child is reluctant to let you near the ear.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Correct Answer: Foreign body
Explanation:Not uncommonly, children insert a foreign body in their ear canal and do not mention it to their parents. If any pain accompanies purulent drainage, the possibility of a foreign body in the ear canal should be considered. A patient with a foreign body in place will not improve until it is removedOrganic foreign bodies tend to elicit inflammatory reactions. In the ear, they predispose to otitis externa, suppurative otitis media and hearing loss
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.
Your Answer: MRI scan
Correct Answer: 24 hour EEG
Explanation:Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he sustained a distal humerus fracture at the age of 12. On examination, there was diminished sensation overlying the hypothenar eminence and medial one and half fingers. What is the most likely nerve injured?
Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely nerve injured in this case is the ulnar nerve.Ulnar Nerve:It arises from the medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1).It supplies motor fibres to the following structures:- Medial two lumbricals- Adductor pollicis- Interossei- Hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimiflexor carpi ulnarisIt carries sensation from the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial 1 1/2 fingers.Patterns of damageIf the nerve is damaged at the wrist, the following features are observed:- Claw hand’: Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits.- Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)- Wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles- A sensory loss in the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)If the nerve is damaged at the elbow or above the ulnar paradox is observed – the fourth and fifth fingers are simply paralyzed and claw hand is less severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
Your Answer: 0.1 ml/kg 1:1000 adrenaline
Correct Answer: Consider reorientating care
Explanation:The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A well 2-week-old baby born at term is referred to hospital with a discharging umbilicus. The cord separated at 10 days and there is no peri-umbilical swelling or erythema. There is a small red mass at the site of cord separation, which is discharging a small amount of yellow fluid. The GP had taken a swab of this which grew Staphylococcus epidermidis.The MOST appropriate course of action is which of the following?
Your Answer: Treat with intravenous antibiotics
Correct Answer: Reassure parents and review in 1–2 weeks
Explanation:The baby most likely has umbilical granuloma – granulation tissue may persist at the base of the umbilicus after cord separation| the tissue is composed of fibroblasts and capillaries and can grow to more than 1 cm.Medical therapy is indicated only when an infection is present.Silver nitrate application to umbilical granulomas is usually successful. One or more applications may be needed. Care must be taken to avoid contact with the skin. Silver nitrate can cause painful burns. Small umbilical granulomas with a narrow base may be safely excised in the office setting. Large granulomas and those growing in response to an umbilical fistula or sinus do not resolve with silver nitrate and must be surgically excised in the operating room setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 40-week-old baby presented with a weak cry and failure to thrive. The mother gives a history of prolonged neonatal jaundice and says it is common in her family. On examination, a large tongue was noticed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital hypothyroidism
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with failure to thrive, macroglossia, prolonged jaundice of a new-born and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high blood pressure were compared to 30 controls from the same clinic. The mean birth weights of the two groups were compared using a paired t-test. The results indicated that the control group was 150 g heavier with a standard error of 100 g.Which one of these is the most appropriate conclusion?
Your Answer: A lower birthweight causes an increased incidence of adolescent hypertension
Correct Answer: There is insufficient evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of hypertension in adolescence
Explanation:In case control studies, observational studies are made to compare two groups, individuals with a certain condition, to those without the condition, with all other factors being equal. In the situation presented by the question, the study was to determine whether a prior risk factor, a low birth weight, was associated with later developing adolescent hypertension, using a paired t-test to statistically determine whether there was indeed a significant association between the two conditions. Case control studies only help to draw associations between two groups and therefore cannot indicate causation. In this scenario we are also not given the p value to determine whether the association is statistically significant. Therefore there is not enough evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of adolescent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 6 year old female child with a history of controlled type 1 diabetes, presents with recurrent nightmares due to hypoglycaemia and early morning glycosuria. Her parents are well informed about the child’s condition and adjust her insulin requirements according to carbohydrate counting. What is the cause of the hypoglycaemia during the night in association with early morning glycosuria?
Your Answer: Inadequate insulin administration
Correct Answer: Somogyi effect
Explanation:Somogyi effect presents with night-time hypoglycaemia followed by early-morning hyperglycaemia, hence the glycosuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular endothelium of several organs and in epithelial and smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Fabry's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
Explanation:Fabry disease (Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum) is an X-linked lysosomal disorder which occurs due to deficiency or absence of alpha-galactosidase A (α-GAL A) activity as a result of a genetic mutation in the GLA gene. As Fabry’s disease follows X-linked genetics it manifestis predominantly in men. Ongoing burning, tingling pain and discomfort, known as acroparesthesia, mainly affecting the hands and feet is the most debilitating symptom in childhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: von Willebrand disease type II
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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