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  • Question 1 - A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old boy presented with complaints of pain in his right lower limb. The pain tends to occur more at night and is not associated with physical activity. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma is a bone forming tumour which affects individuals in the second decade of life. The patient presents with a history of pain in the lower limbs which is mostly at night and responds to NSAIDS. If the pain doesn’t respond to NSAIDS, then other differentials should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation found on his hands, feet, and mouth. He also saw fresh blood mixed with his stools. Although it has happened before, he doesn't know exactly when it began. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disease. It presents with hyperpigmentation patches on the oral mucosa, lips, palm and soles, and nasal alae. It also presents with hamartomatous polyps in the gut, hence the fresh blood in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is associated with neonatal vitamin E deficiency?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopenia

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E deficiency in premature infants has been described as being associated with low haemoglobin levels in the 2nd month of life, haemolytic anaemia associated with thrombocytosis. Recently, low vitamin E concentrations were suspected as being associated with sudden death in infancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with a boy her age. Which of the following advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: They both need immediate treatment without further testing. A test of cure is not necessary.

      Explanation:

      Treating persons infected with C. trachomatis prevents adverse reproductive health complications and continued sexual transmission, and treating their sex partners can prevent reinfection and infection of other partners. Treating pregnant women usually prevents transmission of C. trachomatis to neonates during birth. Chlamydia treatment should be provided promptly for all persons testing positive for infection. Treatment delays have been associated with complications (e.g. PID) in a limited proportion of women. To minimise disease transmission to sex partners, persons treated for chlamydia should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after single-dose therapy or until completion of a 7-day regimen and resolution of symptoms if present. To minimise risk for reinfection, patients also should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until all of their sex partners are treated. Persons who receive a diagnosis of chlamydia should be tested for HIV, GC, and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of...

    Correct

    • An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of Fallot- HypocalcaemiaBased on the clinical scenario, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Di George syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient would be DiGeorge syndrome due to 22q11 deletion. It causes embryonic defects of the third and fourth branchial arches. It is sporadic in 90% of cases and 10 % inherited from parents as autosomal dominant.Characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma

      Explanation:

      Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years, and now receives a mixture of bottle feeds and breast milk. The mother of the child wants advice on how to wean the baby. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate advice to give the mother?

      Your Answer: She should wait for the baby to grow teeth before introducing solids

      Correct Answer: Infant led weaning can be tried first if the mother is happy with this

      Explanation:

      At the age of 6 months, children can begin to be weaned off breastmilk and formula feeds. One healthy and inexpensive way to do this is through infant led weaning as opposed to the conventional spoon feeding method. Children are able to enjoy a variety of soft finger foods even before they grow teeth, so all food does not need to be pureed or sweet. Children should however not be given cow’s milk until the age of 1 year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      189.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was...

    Correct

    • A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      81.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?

      Your Answer: Posterior subcapsular cataracts

      Correct Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures...

    Correct

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An abnormal red reflex is NOT a characteristic feature of which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An abnormal red reflex is NOT a characteristic feature of which of the following ocular pathologies?

      Your Answer: Retinoblastoma

      Correct Answer: Amblyopia

      Explanation:

      The red reflex examination is an important part of the paediatric ocular assessment. The red reflex is abnormal in conditions like retinoblastoma, retinopathy of prematurity, cataract, and retinal detachment. Amblyopia is a cortical developmental disorder that results in defective visual inputs to both the eyes. The disorder occurs during the cortical plasticity stage of embryonic development. The red reflex is normal in this case since there is no hindrance to the reflection of light from the ocular media and fundus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Fluid replacement

      Explanation:

      Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?

      Your Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb

      Explanation:

      In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Leaner disease is associated with which of the given facts? ...

    Correct

    • Leaner disease is associated with which of the given facts?

      Your Answer: It is associated with failure to thrive

      Explanation:

      Leiner disease belongs to a heterogeneous group of disorders associated with permanent or temporary complement C5 plasma deficiency. It is a rare disease that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission. It is prevalent in female, breast-fed babies. The hallmark of this syndrome is severe diarrhoea, severe generalized seborrheic dermatitis, central nervous system defects, marked wasting, recurrent local and systemic infections, and failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he...

    Correct

    • A 1-month-old boy was brought to the ED by his mother because he has been irritable and feeding poorly for the last 24 hours. His CXR shows cardiomegaly but with clear lung fields while his ECG shows a regular narrow complex tachycardia with difficulty identifying the P wave. The boy is conscious but has cold extremities. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Synchronized DC cardio-version

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is SVT. The boy is suffering from hemodynamic instability, as indicated by his cold extremities. DC cardioversion is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      296.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Correct

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - 6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring...

    Correct

    • 6 day old twins are being exclusively breastfed. They are both jaundiced, requiring admission for phototherapy, and have lost 12% and 13% of their birthweights, respectively. They both have serum sodium levels of 145 mmol/L. What is the best advice about fluid management over the next 48 h?

      Your Answer: Continue breast-feeding but give full top-ups via bottle/cup feeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?

      Your Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm rupture

      Explanation:

      Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is...

    Correct

    • A young man has ingested 25 tablets of paracetamol 500 mg. What is the suggested minimum time interval between ingestion and measuring the blood plasma paracetamol levels?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The post-ingestion plasma level, which is required in order to guide the treatment, reaches a peak at 4 hours. Levels requiring antidote (N-acetyl cysteine) include: 100 mcg per ml at 4 hours, 35 mcg per ml at 10 hours and 25 mcg per ml at 12 hours. These levels are in conjunction with the levels recorded and they should all be put down on a treatment nomogram.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?

      Your Answer: Dysphonia

      Explanation:

      Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 0.66

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for two weeks. Urine analysis reveals proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The presentation is suggestive of nephrotic syndrome. A trial of corticosteroids is the first step in treatment of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. Diuretics are useful in managing symptomatic oedema. Cyclosporin and cyclophosphamide are indicated in frequently relapsing and steroid dependant disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully conscious but has stridor, is wheezing and has a generalised erythematous rash. She has known allergies. What is the single immediate management?

      Your Answer: Give 0.5ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Correct Answer: Give 0.3ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Explanation:

      This is a case of an anaphylactic reaction that requires immediate intervention. IM adrenaline dose for 6-12 year old children is 300 micrograms IM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alvarado score

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is the strongest indicator for IV fluid administration?

      Your Answer: Capillary refilling time > 4secs

      Explanation:

      Children are very prone to dehydration during an episode of gastroenteritis. Dehydration is detected early by increased capillary filling time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female is brought to the paediatrician with recent onset of generalized tonic clonic seizures and reports 4 episodes in 2 weeks. Her teacher has reported that her attention span has deteriorated markedly which has affected her performance in studies. She often stops in the middle of tasks and forgets what she is doing. After discussing with the mother and the patient you decide to start medication. While speaking alone, the patient tells you that she is sexually active with her boyfriend and takes POPs (progestin only pills) but sometimes forgets to take them. which of the following anti-epileptic drug can be safely initiated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine does not significantly increase risk of birth defects during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following maternal factors is associated with oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Maternal thrombotic disorder

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a deficiency in the amniotic fluid volume, measured via ultrasound. Maternal factors associated with oligohydramnios include conditions where there is placental insufficiency such as chronic hypertension, preeclampsia or a thrombotic disorder, post-term pregnancy, premature rupture of membranes, certain chromosomal abnormalities, and obstructions of the foetal urinary tract. On the other hand conditions that are associated with polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid) include maternal diabetes, multiple gestations, Rh incompatibility and pulmonary abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an unrelated problem ten months later, the wound site was found to be covered by a shiny dark protuberant scar tissue that projects beyond the margins of the skin incision. Which of the following best describes this skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Keloid scar

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion described is the typical presentation of a keloid scar.Keloid scars extend beyond the limits of the incision.Note:Surgical wounds are either incisional or excisional and either clean, clean-contaminated or dirty. The main stages of wound healing include:- Haemostasis:It occurs minutes to hours following injury. It is characterised by the vasospasm in adjacent vessels, platelet plug formation and generation of fibrin rich clot.- Inflammation: It occurs typically 1-5 days after the injury. Neutrophils migrate into the wound (this is often impaired in diabetes). Growth factors, including basic fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor, are released in this phase. Fibroblasts replicate within the adjacent matrix and migrate into wound, while macrophages and fibroblasts couple matrix regeneration and clot substitution.- Regeneration: It occurs typically between 7-56 days after the injury. The factors that stimulate this phase are platelet-derived growth factor and transforming growth factor. They stimulate fibroblasts and epithelial cells. Fibroblasts produce a collagen network. Furthermore, they cause angiogenesis and thus wound healing.- Remodelling: This is considered the longest phase of the healing process and may last up to one year (or longer). During this phase, fibroblasts become differentiated (myofibroblasts), and these facilitate wound contraction. Collagen fibres are remodelled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.Clinical correlation:Abnormal scar formation:- Hypertrophic scars:It is the condition where excessive amounts of collagen are produced within a scar. Nodules may be present histologically containing randomly arranged fibrils within and parallel fibres on the surface. The tissue itself is confined to the extent of the wound itself and is usually the result of a full-thickness dermal injury. They may go on to develop contractures.- Keloid scars: This is also a condition where excessive amounts of collagen occur within a scar. A keloid scar will typically pass beyond the boundaries of the original injury. They do not contain nodules and may occur following even trivial injury. They do not regress over time and may recur following removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen....

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen. Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, zidovudine causes lipoatrophy as a side effect.Zidovudine: Although both hypertrophy and atrophy are described related to HIV medications, nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTIs) such as zidovudine and stavudine are closely associated with fat loss.Other options:- Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor. Lipoatrophy is not commonly associated with this drug.- Efavirenz is an NNRTI, which is not associated with lipoatrophy. Common side effects include neuropsychiatric effects, rash and nausea. – Ganciclovir is not an anti-HIV medication and is used for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections.- Raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor and is associated with fat gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following types best describe the epithelium on the external aspect...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types best describe the epithelium on the external aspect of the tympanic membrane?

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous

      Explanation:

      The external aspect of the tympanic membrane is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. Clinical correlation: Following middle ear infections, this type of epithelium can migrate into the middle ear through a perforated tympanic membrane.The ear is composed of three anatomically distinct regions: – External ear: Auricle is composed of elastic cartilage covered by skin. The lobule has no cartilage and contains fat and fibrous tissue. External auditory meatus is variable in length, measuring approximately 2.5cm long in fully grown children. Lateral third of the external auditory meatus is cartilaginous, and the medial two-thirds is bony. The greater auricular nerve innervates the region. The auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve supplies most of the external auditory meatus and the lateral surface of the auricle. – Middle ear: It is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea. The aditus leads to the mastoid air cells is the route through which middle ear infections may cause mastoiditis. Anteriorly the eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. The tympanic membrane consists of an outer layer of stratified squamous epithelium, a middle layer of fibrous tissue and an inner layer of mucous membrane continuous with the middle ear. The chorda tympani nerve passes on the medial side of the pars flaccida. The glossopharyngeal nerve and pain innervate the middle ear. Thus, pain may radiate to the middle ear following tonsillectomy. – Ossicles:Malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane (the Umbo). Malleus articulates with the incus (synovial joint). Incus attaches to stapes (another synovial joint). – Internal ear:It consists of the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibule. Organ of Corti is the sense organ of hearing and is located on the inside of the cochlear duct on the basilar membrane. Vestibule accommodates the utricle and the saccule. These structures contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph within the vestibule. The semicircular canals lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone. All share a common opening into the vestibule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Correct

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates...

    Correct

    • A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Reassure the parents

      Explanation:

      Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not true relating to growth in the normal child?

      Your Answer: Growth continues past the pubertal growth spurt

      Correct Answer: Full growth hormone responsiveness develops in puberty

      Explanation:

      Most healthy infants and children grow predictably, following a typical pattern of progression in weight, length, and head circumference. Normal human growth is pulsatile| periods of rapid growth (growth spurts) are separated by periods of no measurable growth Growth hormone levels and responsiveness’ develop in late infancy, increase during childhood and peak during puberty.Typical milestones — General guidelines regarding length or height gain during infancy and childhood include the following:- The average length at birth for a term infant is 20 inches (50 cm)- Infants grow 10 inches (25 cm) during the first year of life- Toddlers grow 4 inches (10 cm) between 12 and 24 months, 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 24 and 36 months, and 3 inches (7.5 cm) between 36 and 48 months- Children reach one-half of their adult height by 24 to 30 months- Children grow 2 inches per year (5 cm per year) between age four years and puberty- There is a normal deceleration of height velocity before the pubertal growth spurt.Growth continues past pubertal growth spurt as there is increase in spinal length.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old baby girl is admitted with poor feeding and irritability for 2 days. She is lethargic and persistently crying. Urine dipstick showed leucocytes. What is the single most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine for C&S

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and leucocytes on the urine dipstick is suggestive of a urinary tract infection. To confirm the diagnosis, urine should be sent for culture and sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?

      Your Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice

      Explanation:

      Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is scheduled for a repair of an inguinal hernia. Which of the following structures must be divided to gain access to the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      External oblique forms the outermost muscle of the three muscles comprising the anterolateral aspect of the abdominal wall. Its aponeurosis comprises the anterior wall of the inguinal canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      179.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm....

    Correct

    • A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm. According to his mom, he has been unable to move it since yesterday and is crying more than usual. A relative attended the child while his mother was on a night shift. X-ray revealed a fracture of the right humerus, which was put in a cast. What is the next step in this case?

      Your Answer: Admit under care of paediatrician

      Explanation:

      Certain lesions present on x-ray are suggestive of child abuse including rib, humerus and skull fractures. It is the doctors responsibility to follow up on these cases to determine whether domestic abuse has occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?

      Your Answer: Mannitol 20%

      Explanation:

      All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg...

    Correct

    • A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?

      Your Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the treatment of choice for confirmed neonatal cytomegalovirus pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Ganciclovir

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Partial generalized seizure

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a tonic-clonic seizure that lasted for three minutes. The doctor measures the blood pressure in all four limbs which is 180 mmHg. His creatinine is 60 μmol/l and he looks dehydrated. The kidneys look small and echogenic on ultrasound. Which of the following steps is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Ophthalmology assessment is indicated

      Explanation:

      The child requires frequent BP evaluation every 15 to 30 minutes. Normalisation of his BP should be achieved in a 48h interval. An ophthalmology assessment is indicated to check for acute injury of the blood vessels in the eye due to the elevated blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy fell and hit his head. The parents say that after the fall he cried immediately and then vomited four times. They brought him to the emergency department one hour after the event. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 15 and he has a 6 cm haematoma on the right side of his head. Neurological examination is normal and he has full memory of what happened. What would you do next?

      Your Answer: Observe for 4 hours from the time of injury

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that when a child’s single risk factor is 2 vomits, the child should be observed for 4 hours from the time of the injury, instead of having a CT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of...

    Correct

    • An 8-month-old infant is presented to the paediatrics ward with a history of delayed developmental milestones since birth. On examination, he has poor muscle tone and balance, and a head circumference, which is greater than normal. Imaging of the patient's head revealed a diminished cerebellar vermis, a large fourth ventricle, and an enlarged posterior fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dandy-Walker syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dandy-Walker syndrome is characterised by symptoms of brain maldevelopment that are seen in this patient. A large cranium indicates hydrocephalus, and the hypotonia indicates poor limb development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?

      Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?

      Your Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?

      Your Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency by her parents who report that she has had multiple collapsing episodes over the past week. Each time she would collapse with the eyes shut and regain consciousness after 2 to 5 min with general weakness. The collapse is not followed by a post ictal state. The patient feels well and normal between these episodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      A vasovagal episode or vasovagal syncope is the most common form of reflex syncope. Reflex syncope is a general term used to describe types of syncope resulting from a failure in autoregulation of blood pressure, and ultimately, in cerebral perfusion pressure resulting in transient loss of consciousness. The mechanisms responsible for this are complex and involve both depression of cardiac output as well as a decrease in vascular tone. Other types of reflex syncope include carotid sinus syncope and situational syncope, for instance, cough or micturition syncope. Vasovagal syncope may be triggered by pain or emotional upset, although frequently a specific trigger cannot be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire whether to have an interval appendicectomy to prevent the chances of having appendicitis again. What percentage of patients with conservatively managed appendix mass are likely to develop recurrent appendicitis?

      Your Answer: 0-20%

      Explanation:

      The chance of having appendicitis again after appendix mass is around 17% in children. While the traditional teachings by Hamilton Bailey recommend following the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen followed by an interval appendicectomy six weeks after the discharge of the patient, there remains a looming controversy whether to perform an interval appendicectomy or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Correct

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?

      Your Answer: Scurvy

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other...

    Incorrect

    • Two healthy parents have two children, one with cystic fibrosis and the other one healthy. What are the chances of the third child being a carrier?

      Your Answer: 1 in 16

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and a 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile...

    Correct

    • An 8 year old male who is unable to retract his previously retractile foreskin has been treated with 1% hydrocortisone for 3 months. He presents with a white and thickened foreskin. What would you do next to manage his condition?

      Your Answer: Circumcision with urethral calibration

      Explanation:

      The boy suffers from balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) which is surgically treated with circumcision and urethral calibration. In fact, the condition is the only true medical indication for circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 13 month old baby was taken to the hospital after his father...

    Correct

    • A 13 month old baby was taken to the hospital after his father saw that he had periorbital oedema for two days. He is seen by the doctor and noted to have facial oedema and a tender distended abdomen. His temperature is 39.1 and his blood pressure is 91/46 mmHg. There is also clinical evidence of poor peripheral perfusion. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitisThe presence of periorbital and facial oedema with normal blood pressure in this toddler indicates that he has nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome can be associated with a series of complications that can affect an individual’s health and quality of life:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can develop where there is ascites present. This is a frequent development in children but very rarely found in adults.Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is the development of a bacterial infection in the peritoneum, despite the absence of an obvious source for the infection. It is specifically an infection of the ascitic fluid – an increased volume of peritoneal fluid. Ascites is most commonly a complication of cirrhosis of the liver. It can also occur in patients with nephrotic syndrome. SBP has a high mortality rate.The diagnosis of SBP requires paracentesis, a sampling of the peritoneal fluid taken from the peritoneal cavity. If the fluid contains large numbers of white blood cells known as neutrophils (>250 cells/µL), infection is confirmed and antibiotics will be given, without waiting for culture results. In addition to antibiotics, infusions of albumin are usually administered.Signs and symptoms of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) include fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and tenderness, general malaise, altered mental status, and worsening ascites. Thirteen percent of patients have no signs or symptoms. In cases of acute or chronic liver failure SBP is one of the main triggers for hepatic encephalopathy, and where there is no other clear causal indication for this, SBP may be suspected.These symptoms can also be the same for a spontaneous fungal peritonitis (SFP) and therefore make a differentiation difficult. Delay of diagnosis can delay antifungal treatment and lead to a higher mortality rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Correct

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      686.1
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?...

    Correct

    • What post-birth event encourages closure of the ductus venosus in a new-born baby?

      Your Answer: Umbilical cord clamping and separation from mother

      Explanation:

      After birth, the infant takes its first breath and is exposed to a myriad of stimuli. The pulmonary vessels dilate, and pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) decreases remarkably while the systemic vascular pressure rises above the PVR. This allows blood from the right ventricle to enter the lungs for oxygenation. In most cases, this increased oxygenation, along with other factors, causes the ductal wall to constrict and the ductus arteriosus to close functionally. As left-sided pressures rise higher than right-sided pressures, the foramen ovale functionally closes. With the clamping of the umbilical cord and the cessation of blood flow, pressures in the portal sinus decrease. This causes the muscle in the sinus wall near the ductus venosus to contract. The lumen of the duct becomes filled with connective tissue, and, in two months, the ductus venosus becomes a fibrous strand embedded in the wall of the liver, thus establishing adult circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      159.7
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the thymus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge’s syndrome is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus

      Explanation:

      The thymus is a lymphoid organ located in the anterior mediastinum. In early life, the thymus is responsible for the development and maturation of cell-mediated immunologic functions. The thymus is composed predominantly of epithelial cells and lymphocytes. Precursor cells migrate to the thymus and differentiate into lymphocytes. Most of these lymphocytes are destroyed, with the remainder of these cells migrating to tissues to become T cells.DiGeorge’s syndrome (DGS) is a developmental abnormality affecting the thymus. The classic triad of features of DGS on presentation is conotruncal cardiac anomalies, hypoplastic thymus, and hypocalcaemia (resulting from parathyroid hypoplasia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      134
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What form of inheritance does Chédiak–Higashi syndrome have? ...

    Incorrect

    • What form of inheritance does Chédiak–Higashi syndrome have?

      Your Answer: Unknown

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Correct

    • Intussusception is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: It is associated with Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is one of the common causes of intestinal obstruction in children, resulting from the invagination or telescoping of one segment of the bowel into the other distal segment. It may induce bowel ischemia and necrosis, as well. It can occur as a complication of Meckel’s diverticulum. It usually occurs proximal to the ileocecal valve, and the most common presentation is ileocecal. Early signs and symptoms include cramping abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and pulling legs up to chest area. First line treatment includes resuscitation with IV fluids and nasogastric tube. It responds well to air-enema, which is also diagnostic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?

      Your Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought by his mother due to his recent clumsy behaviour. She observes that he has an increased tendency to trip over while running. On examination, his calves were relatively slim, and the soles of his feet were arched. Ankle dorsiflexors were noted to be weak, and the deep tendon reflexes were absent. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical presentation is highly suggestive of Charcot–Marie–Tooth syndrome.It is a hereditary sensory and motor neuropathy. It is also the commonest cause of inherited peripheral neuropathy. The lower motor neuron signs are usually mild in childhood, the age of onset is very variable, and the distal weakness can take years to progress. It is not fatal and does not affect the normal life expectancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease...

    Correct

    • All of the given options are examples of neonatal cyanotic congenital heart disease EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease (CCHD) is a common cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. They can be classified as CCHD due to:- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased pulmonary flow, e.g., tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), pulmonary atresia, right-sided hypoplastic heart,- Right-to-left shunt, associated with the decreased aortic flow, e.g., left-sided hypoplastic heart, interrupted arch, severe coarctation| – Bidirectional shunt, e.g., TGA, DORV, TA, etc. Eisenmenger syndrome is not a neonatal CCHD| rather it develops later in young adulthood secondary to various CHD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots?

      Your Answer: The box represents 95% of the range of data

      Correct Answer: Show distributionally outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliers

      Explanation:

      Box plots can be used to display numerical outcomes and give valid summaries (median and interquartile range or IQR) for any distributional form that the outcomes might take. Additionally, they show outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliersOther options:- The box itself represents the interquartile range, with the two whiskers representing the variability outside the upper and lower quartiles.- Variability is represented with whiskers and feathers are used in fan charts.They are not as informative as showing the actual values but can be used to make comparisons of medians and IQRs between subgroups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      115.7
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by a worried mother who...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by a worried mother who complains that he's still unable to walk. On observing the child on the ground in a supine position, you notice the following events:First, the child rolled into prone, extended his arms and legs far apart. With the trunk weight resting on the extended arms, he pushed the body backward to shift the weight of the trunk over the extended legs.Realizing what you just observed, which among the following is the most important test you would recommend?

      Your Answer: Creatinine kinase

      Explanation:

      The most important test recommended among the given options is the measurement of creatine kinase levels.The child presents with a gross motor developmental delay, and multiple investigations can be undertaken to confirm the diagnosis. However, the clinching point in the given clinical scenario is the presence of a positive Gower’s sign.Gower’s sign is an excellent screening test for muscle weakness, which is typically observed as an early clinical feature of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD).Creatinine kinase measurement is an easy and rapid test to aid in the diagnosis. Early diagnosis has significant implications not only for the child but for the family, particularly for genetic counselling. DMD is an X-linked recessive disorder, with an abnormal gene at the X chromosome at the Xp21 locus. It is a progressive degenerative muscular condition where muscle fibres are replaced by fat and fibrosis (i.e., become dystrophic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      271.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an...

    Correct

    • A child presents for an endocrinological work-up. The doctors perform blood tests, an X-ray, a pelvic U/S and a brain MRI. Which of the following reasons would result in an advanced bone age?

      Your Answer: Androgen excess

      Explanation:

      Androgen excess is one of the most common causes of advanced bone age. It usually occurs in precocious puberty or congenital adrenal hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sweat Test

      Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy

      Explanation:

      Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      79.1
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial complex seizure?

      Your Answer: Postictal confusion

      Correct Answer: Induction by hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures are induced by over breathing or hyperventilation, while the other features suggest partial seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he turned vegan a year ago. He explains that he takes vitamin B12 supplements every day. Considering iron deficiency anaemia as a possible cause, you order some blood tests to confirm. Which of the following would increase the ability of the body to absorb dietary iron?

      Your Answer: Intercurrent inflammatory disorders

      Correct Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form

      Explanation:

      Consuming iron in its Fe2+ (ferrous form) form can improve the ability to absorb dietary iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia (IDA). Clinical features of IDA include:- Koilonychia- Atrophic glossitis- Post-cricoid webs- Angular stomatitisThe peripheral blood smear shows the following abnormal RBC morphologies:- Target cells- Pencil poikilocytes- Microcytic-hypochromic cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He...

    Correct

    • A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He was born at 34 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery and was discharged 4 weeks ago. He is not on any regular medication. Parents said that he brings up small volumes of milk after feeds. This happens approximately twice a day. Observations are all within normal range and examination is unremarkable.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux

      Explanation:

      Gastroesophageal reflux occurs in almost all infants, manifesting as wet burps after feeding. The spit-ups appear effortless and not particularly forceful.Infants in whom reflux has caused GERD have additional symptoms, such as irritability, feeding refusal, and/or respiratory symptoms such as chronic recurrent coughing or wheezing and sometimes stridor. Much less commonly, infants have intermittent apnoea or episodes of arching the back and turning the head to one side (Sandifer syndrome). Infants may fail to gain weight appropriately or, less often, lose weight.Incidence of gastroesophageal reflux increases between 2 months and 6 months of age (likely due to an increased volume of liquid at each feeding) and then starts to decrease after 7 months. Gastroesophageal reflux resolves in about 85% of infants by 12 months and in 95% by 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 2

      Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a condition that occurs almost exclusively in males. This condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern It is characterized by neurological and behavioural abnormalities and the overproduction of uric acid. Uric acid is a waste product of normal chemical processes and is found in blood and urine. Excess uric acid can be released from the blood and build up under the skin and cause gouty arthritis (arthritis caused by an accumulation of uric acid in the joints). Uric acid accumulation can also cause kidney and bladder stones.The nervous system and behavioural disturbances experienced by people with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome include abnormal involuntary muscle movements, such as tensing of various muscles (dystonia), jerking movements (chorea), and flailing of the limbs (ballismus). People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome usually cannot walk, require assistance sitting, and generally use a wheelchair. Self-injury (including biting and head banging) is the most common and distinctive behavioural problem in individuals with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed by generalised shaking. Doctors suspect he might have experienced a fit. History taking and clinical examination shows he has a macular erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid which has been present since birth. The lesion has not changed in size and aspect. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome is a genetic condition affecting various blood vessels. I causes brain, eye, and skin abnormalities, including three major features: port-wine birthmark, leptomeningeal angioma, and glaucoma. Most people are born with a port-wine birthmark that is usually located on the face, including the eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy was admitted following a MVA. His BMI is 28 kb/m2 and he's been found to have glycosuria, which resolved after his recovery. Which investigation is necessary to perform as part of the follow-up?

      Your Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c)

      Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose concentration

      Explanation:

      The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic,...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Call ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. This infection is most likely caused by which of the following organism?

      Your Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer: Surgical closure of the back

      Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy is brought to your clinic with a complaint of delayed puberty.While examining the patient which of the following features is most likely to indicate that pubertal change may have commenced?

      Your Answer: Growth of pubic hair

      Correct Answer: Increase in testicular volume

      Explanation:

      In boys, the first manifestation of puberty is testicular enlargement| the normal age for initial signs of puberty is 9 to 14 years in males. Pubic hair in boys generally appears 18 to 24 months after the onset of testicular growth and is often conceived as the initial marker of sexual maturation by male adolescents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative...

    Incorrect

    • A study shows that of children with asthma, 25% have a first-degree relative with asthma compared with only 10% of a sample of children without asthma. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Having a first-degree relative with asthma is predictive of childhood asthma

      Correct Answer: To interpret the results we need to know how the samples were selected

      Explanation:

      Observational studies fall under the category of analytic study designs and are further sub-classified as observational or experimental study designs. The goal of analytic studies is to identify and evaluate causes or risk factors of diseases or health-related events. The differentiating characteristic between observational and experimental study designs is that in the latter, the presence or absence of undergoing an intervention defines the groups. By contrast, in an observational study, the investigator does not intervene and rather simply “observes” and assesses the strength of the relationship between an exposure and disease variable.Three types of observational studies include cohort studies, case-control studies, and cross-sectional studies. Case-control and cohort studies offer specific advantages by measuring disease occurrence and its association with an exposure by offering a temporal dimension (i.e. prospective or retrospective study design). Cross-sectional studies, also known as prevalence studies, examine the data on disease and exposure at one particular time point. Because the temporal relationship between disease occurrence and exposure cannot be established, cross-sectional studies cannot assess the cause and effect relationshipDisadvantage of Cohort study is Susceptible to selection bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      226.1
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?

      Your Answer: Right sided thoracotomy, attempted primary anastomosis and gastric pull-up if this is unsuccessful

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF)| however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?

      Your Answer: He should have hourly glucose monitoring and should not be allowed to sleep in between

      Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future

      Explanation:

      The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

      Your Answer: Chronic sub dural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?

      Your Answer: There are two or more café-au-lait spots

      Correct Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoblastoma

      Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.

      Your Answer: I.M 0.5 ml tetanus toxoid should be repeated after one month

      Correct Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Crawling

      Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth

      Explanation:

      6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer: 46,YO

      Correct Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders| occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb...

    Incorrect

    • A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb but can sit briefly supported by leaning forward on her hands. She can reach and grasp objects with the whole hand and then pass it from one hand to the other and is babbling. What is her expected age?

      Your Answer: 9 months

      Correct Answer: 7 months

      Explanation:

      At 7 months, children are expected to sit briefly leaning forward on their hands, reach and grasp objects, transfer objects from hand to hand, and babble. Children are usually expected to wave goodbye or grasp objects with their fingers or thumb at around 10 months and older.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood for C&S

      Correct Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?

      Your Answer: Topical tetracyclines

      Correct Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (4/4) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (9/10) 90%
Neonatology (8/9) 89%
Adolescent Health (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/5) 80%
ENT (5/5) 100%
Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/6) 17%
Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Child Development (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (4/6) 67%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (8/9) 89%
Endocrinology (4/6) 67%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/3) 33%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (3/4) 75%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (3/3) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (5/5) 100%
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