00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Regarding normal gross motor development of a 3-year-old child, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding normal gross motor development of a 3-year-old child, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: A child who is not walking should be investigated at age 3

      Correct Answer: A child age three should be able to throw a ball both under and over hand

      Explanation:

      A three-year child’s typical developmental milestones include walking up and down the stairs with alternating feet, jumping in a place with two feet together, and jumping forward for about 2 feet. The child can pedal a tricycle and can throw a ball over and underhand. An average child should start walking around 12-14 months of age and should be investigated as early as 18 months if they do not begin to walk. Skipping can be done by a child of 5 years of age. A child of 6-7 years of age can ride a bike with stabilizers and can balance on one foot for 20 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Correct

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?

      Your Answer: Keratosis pilaris

      Explanation:

      Keratosis pilaris most often affects the outer aspect of both upper arms. It may also occur on the thighs, buttocks and sides of the cheeks, and less often on the forearms and upper back. The distribution is symmetrical.The scaly spots may appear skin coloured, red (keratosis pilaris rubra) or brown (hyperpigmented keratosis pilaris). They are not itchy or sore.Macules are flat, nonpalpable lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter.Examples include freckles, flat moles, tattoos, and port-wine stains, and the rashes of rickettsial infections, rubella, measles (can also have papules and plaques), and some allergic drug eruptions.Papules are elevated lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter that can be felt or palpated. Examples include nevi, warts, lichen planus, insect bites, seborrheic keratoses, actinic keratoses, some lesions of acne, and skin cancers. Plaques are palpable lesions > 10 mm in diameter that are elevated or depressed compared to the skin surface. Plaques may be flat topped or rounded. Lesions of psoriasis and granuloma annulare commonly form plaques.Nodules are firm papules or lesions that extend into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Examples include cysts, lipomas, and fibromas.Vesicles are small, clear, fluid-filled blisters < 10 mm in diameter. Vesicles are characteristic of herpes infections, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and some autoimmune blistering disorders (e.g., dermatitis herpetiformis).Bullae are clear fluid-filled blisters > 10 mm in diameter. These may be caused by burns, bites, irritant contact dermatitis or allergic contact dermatitis, and drug reactions. Classic autoimmune bullous diseases include pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid. Bullae also may occur in inherited disorders of skin fragility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      113.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and...

    Correct

    • A 5 month old baby presents with irritability, fever, high pitched cry, and pustular discharge from both ears. He has been feeding poorly for the last two days. Clinical examination reveals a full fontanelle but no other neurological signs. The doctor performs a lumbar puncture, took a blood sample, and started him on IV antibiotics. What would be the expected CSF picture for bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: CSF glucose: blood glucose 0.4, protein 0.2g/l. Cells 400, 390 polymorphs, 10 lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      The CSF picture in bacterial meningitis has the following characteristics: several polymorphs, cells, protein that is maximum 5g/l, a few lymphocytes and glucose that accounts for the two thirds of the blood level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a lower respiratory chest infection....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a lower respiratory chest infection. Following a road traffic accident, he underwent a splenectomy a few months ago. What is the most likely organism causing the lower respiratory tract infection in this child?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The organisms most likely to cause post-splenectomy sepsis include:- Streptococcus pneumoniae- Haemophilus influenzae- MeningococciEncapsulated organisms carry the most significant pathogenic risk following splenectomy. Hyposplenism:It may complicate certain medical conditions where splenic atrophy occurs or maybe the result of medical intervention such as splenic artery embolization and splenectomy for trauma. The diagnosis of hyposplenism is difficult, and while there may be peripheral markers of the splenectomised state (e.g. Howell-Jolly bodies), these are neither 100% sensitive or specific. The most sensitive test is a radionucleotide labelled red cell scan.It dramatically increases the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, particularly with encapsulated organisms. Since these organisms may be opsonized, but this then goes undetected at an immunological level due to loss of the spleen. For this reason, individuals are recommended to be vaccinated and have antibiotic prophylaxis.Key recommendations:- All those with hyposplenism or prior to an elective splenectomy should receive pneumococcal, Haemophilus type b and meningococcal type C vaccines. These should be administered two weeks before or two weeks following splenectomy. The vaccine schedule for meningococcal disease primarily consists of a dose of Men C and Hib at two weeks and then a dose of the MenACWY vaccine one month later. Those aged under two may require a booster at two years. A dose of pneumococcal polyvalent polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) is given at two weeks. A conjugate vaccine (PCV) is offered to young children. The PCV is more immunogenic but covers fewer serotypes. Boosting PPV is either guided by serological measurements (where available) or by routine boosting doses at five-yearly intervals.Annual influenza vaccination is recommended in all cases- Antibiotic prophylaxis is offered to all. The risk of post-splenectomy sepsis is highest immediately following splenectomy. Individuals with an inadequate response to pneumococcal vaccination are another high-risk group. High-risk individuals should be counselled to take penicillin or macrolide prophylaxis. Those at low risk may choose to discontinue therapy. All patients should be advised about taking antibiotics early in the case of intercurrent infections.- Asplenic individuals travelling to malaria-endemic areas are at high risk and should have both pharmacological and mechanical protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is...

    Correct

    • A 10 hour old baby who was born by emergency caesarean section, is being observed for foetal distress. She has a displaced apex beat and decreased air entry on the left side of her chest. A scaphoid abdomen is seen on abdominal examination but all else is unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

      Explanation:

      Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic herniaCongenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) occurs when the diaphragm muscle — the muscle that separates the chest from the abdomen — fails to close during prenatal development, and the contents from the abdomen (stomach, intestines and/or liver) migrate into the chest through this hole.Examination in infants with congenital diaphragmatic hernias include the following findings:Scaphoid abdomenBarrel-shaped chestRespiratory distress (retractions, cyanosis, grunting respirations)In left-sided posterolateral hernia: Poor air entry on the left, with a shift of cardiac sounds over the right chest| in patients with severe defects, signs of pneumothorax (poor air entry, poor perfusion) may also be foundAssociated anomalies: Dysmorphisms such as craniofacial abnormalities, extremity abnormalities, or spinal dysraphism may suggest syndromic congenital diaphragmatic herniaIleal atresia is a congenital abnormality where there is significant stenosis or complete absence of a portion of the ileum. There is an increased incidence in those with chromosomal abnormalities. Ileal atresia results from a vascular accident in utero that leads to decreased intestinal perfusion and subsequent ischemia a segment of bowel. This leads to narrowing, or in the most severe cases, complete obliteration of the intestinal lumen. In the postnatal period, an abdominal radiograph will show air in the dilated loops of proximal bowel. An ileal atresia is often discovered prenatally at a routine prenatal ultrasound scan or following the development of polyhydramnios. On ultrasound, there is frequently a proximal dilated intestinal segment.Meconium Ileus (MI) is a condition where the content of the baby’s bowel (meconium) is extremely sticky and causes the bowel to be blocked at birth. In most cases the bowel itself is complete and intact but it is just the inside that is blocked.In some cases there has been a twist of the bowel before birth, which has caused the bowel to be blind ending (an atresia). Most babies with meconium ileus (90%) have Cystic Fibrosis (CF) and it is this that has caused the sticky meconium. Meconium ileus is a rare condition affecting only 1 in 25,000 babies. There is normally a delay in your baby passing meconium (black sticky stool normally passed within 24 hours of delivery) and your baby may also be reluctant to feed and may vomit a green fluid called bile which would normally pass through the bowel.Your baby may be uncomfortable because of constipation and trapped air in the bowel and the abdomen (tummy) will become distended. Some babies present at delivery with a distended abdomen and may be unwell due to infection around the bowel.Pyloric stenosis is a problem that affects babies between birth and 6 months of age and causes forceful vomiting that can lead to dehydration. It is the second most common problem requiring surgery in new-borns. The lower portion of the stomach that connects to the small intestine is known as the pylorus. In pyloric stenosis, the muscles in this part of the stomach enlarge, narrowing the opening of the pylorus and eventually preventing food from moving from the stomach to the intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      359.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of headaches that usually appear in the evening. The episodes started 6 months ago and the pain presents on both sides of the head. He perceives it as a “tight” feeling. His overall health is normal and he admits to be able to continue his daily activities regardless of the pain. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Tension headache presents with pain that is pressing or tightening in quality, mild or moderate, and located bilaterally. It usually does not get worse with activities and may last from minutes to weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true in logistic regression analysis?

      Your Answer: Yields adjusted odds ratios

      Explanation:

      Logistic regression analysis is an easy to use regression that can serve to estimate how a binary or dichotomous dependent variable, for example whether or not a student passes or fails a medical exam, is related to the number of hours the student studies for the exam. This regression is able to yield an odds ratio, i.e. the probability of passing the exam based on each additional hour of study. As stated, the outcome does not need to be normally distributed but is usually binary. This type of analysis is not complex and does not need to be avoided as it is available most statistical packages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?

      Your Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 – pre-adolescentStage 2 – sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 – hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 – adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 – adult in quantity and type

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?...

    Incorrect

    • The severity of psoriasis can be assessed using which of the following tools?

      Your Answer: Paediatric Psoriasis Scale- PPS

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis Area and Severity Index- PASI

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that is mainly due to the interplay between keratinocytes, dermal vascular cells, and antigen-presenting cells. There are five main types of psoriasis based on the type and severity of the lesions it produces. A useful tool to determine the extent and severity of psoriasis is the Psoriasis Area and Severity Index (PASI) score, which takes into account the percentage of a specific area affected by psoriasis in combination with severity, which in turn is assessed by the presence of desquamation, induration, and erythema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      210.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      478.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is...

    Incorrect

    • In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?

      Your Answer: Lipotropin beta

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular pain. On examination, he is found to have testicular tenderness. On trans-illumination, a faint blue dot can be seen. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Torsion of the hydatid cyst of the testis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be torsion of a hydatid cyst of the testis.Note:The differential diagnoses in acute testicular pain/swelling are listed in the possible answers. Testicular torsion typically affects adolescent males and presents with acute painful swelling and a horizontally lying testicle. Other options:- Epididymo-orchitis is diagnosed during surgery when a thickened erythematous epididymis is noted. Ectopic ureteric insertion into the vas must be excluded by ultrasound scan on an out-patient basis. The hydatid cyst or cyst of Morgagni represents the remnants of the Mullerian structure. In the pre-pubertal child, a surge in hormones can stimulate growth and chance of torsion. It is diagnosed by surgical exploration or by a blue dot sign. Idiopathic scrotal oedema tends to be within the scrotum itself, and the testis can be examined in the groin to exclude pain in the testis. All acute scrotal pain must be explored to exclude testicular torsion unless a surgical registrar is convinced of a torted hydatid cyst.- An 8-year-old is more likely to present with a torted hydatid cyst. The blue dot sign is diagnostic and can negate the need for surgical exploration. The age of the child also makes epididymo-orchitis less likely.- Idiopathic scrotal oedema presents with an erythematous and thickened scrotum. This can cross the midline and involve the whole scrotum.- Finally, an inguinal hernia would present with a mass in the groin extending to the scrotum that you cannot get above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic...

    Incorrect

    • An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?

      Your Answer: Coronary sulcus

      Correct Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.
      Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.
      Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.
      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.
      Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.
      Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of...

    Correct

    • A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention. The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25| P=0.0024)Which of the following options is true?

      Your Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution

      Explanation:

      While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough....

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough. Crepitations are noted upon auscultation. Other examination results are temperature 38.9C, O2 sats 94% on air, respiratory rate is 45/min, and capillary refill time 1 sec. Urine is also negative on dipstick. What is the single investigation most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood for culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Blood culture and sensitivity will distinguish the bacteria that is responsible for the infection and the effective antibiotic treatment to which the bacteria is sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: Because the mite can jump, infection rates are high in households and nurseries

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?

      Your Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction

      Explanation:

      A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer...

    Correct

    • During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?

      Your Answer: 8 months

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A neonate has bilateral cleft palate, clenched hands with overlapping fingers, ventricular septal...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate has bilateral cleft palate, clenched hands with overlapping fingers, ventricular septal defect, and rocker bottom feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 18

      Explanation:

      The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought by his mother because she noticed that his blood sugar level was high this morning.The boy was diagnosed with type-1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 6, following which his sugars have been under control with insulin. His mother insists that his mental, social, and physical development were all normal for his age.His is currently on a basal-bolus regime, where he takes insulin glargine at 9 pm every evening. What is the most likely explanation for the pattern shown by the boy's blood sugars?

      Your Answer: Dawn phenomenon

      Explanation:

      The patient’s sugar levels typically show the Dawn phenomenon.Dawn phenomenon:This is an early morning rise in blood glucose levels secondary to a rise in hormones that increase blood glucose levels. The question suggests that he is undergoing a pubertal growth spurt, suggesting that an increase in these hormones is what has led to the higher morning glucose levels.Other options:- Inactivity at night-time: It is expected, and insulin dose should be adequate despite inactivity during the night.- Inadequate bedtime insulin: It is possible that this is a contributing factor. However, inadequate background insulin is also likely to result in high blood glucose in the day, which the question does not suggest.- Somogyi effect: There are no features suggestive of nocturnal hypoglycaemia that can cause the Somogyi effect.- Nocturnal glycogenesis: Glycogenesis would result in hypoglycaemia, not hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Other options:- While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen. – Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum. – The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      199.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      111.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest...

    Correct

    • A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

      Your Answer: Shunt reversal

      Explanation:

      A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy presents with facial puffiness, frothy urine, lethargy and oliguria for two weeks. Urine analysis reveals proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this child?

      Your Answer: Diuretics

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The presentation is suggestive of nephrotic syndrome. A trial of corticosteroids is the first step in treatment of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome. Diuretics are useful in managing symptomatic oedema. Cyclosporin and cyclophosphamide are indicated in frequently relapsing and steroid dependant disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      230.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high...

    Correct

    • In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high blood pressure were compared to 30 controls from the same clinic. The mean birth weights of the two groups were compared using a paired t-test. The results indicated that the control group was 150 g heavier with a standard error of 100 g.Which one of these is the most appropriate conclusion?

      Your Answer: There is insufficient evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of hypertension in adolescence

      Explanation:

      In case control studies, observational studies are made to compare two groups, individuals with a certain condition, to those without the condition, with all other factors being equal. In the situation presented by the question, the study was to determine whether a prior risk factor, a low birth weight, was associated with later developing adolescent hypertension, using a paired t-test to statistically determine whether there was indeed a significant association between the two conditions. Case control studies only help to draw associations between two groups and therefore cannot indicate causation. In this scenario we are also not given the p value to determine whether the association is statistically significant. Therefore there is not enough evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of adolescent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Subependymal nodule

      Correct Answer: Lisch nodules of the iris

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous condition associated with increased psychiatric co-morbidity. It results from the mutation of TSC1 or TSC2 tumour suppressor genes. Multiple benign tumours of the brain and other vital organs are characteristic of this disease. Important findings include subependymal nodules, bone cysts, cardiac rhabdomyoma, and learning difficulties. Lisch nodules of the iris occur in neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      130.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a...

    Correct

    • A chloride sweat test was performed on a 13-year-old boy. Results indicated a high likelihood of cystic fibrosis. This diagnosis is associated with a higher risk of developing which of the following?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a life-threatening disorder that causes the build up of thick mucus in the lungs, digestive tract, and other areas of the body. It is a hereditary autosomal-recessive disease caused by mutations of the CFTR gene. Cystic fibrosis eventually results in bronchiectasis which is defined as a permanent dilatation and obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      312.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots?

      Your Answer: The box represents 95% of the range of data

      Correct Answer: Show distributionally outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliers

      Explanation:

      Box plots can be used to display numerical outcomes and give valid summaries (median and interquartile range or IQR) for any distributional form that the outcomes might take. Additionally, they show outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliersOther options:- The box itself represents the interquartile range, with the two whiskers representing the variability outside the upper and lower quartiles.- Variability is represented with whiskers and feathers are used in fan charts.They are not as informative as showing the actual values but can be used to make comparisons of medians and IQRs between subgroups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 +...

    Correct

    • This equation links lung function measurement to height: Lung function = 2.3 + (1.5 × height), R = 0.75Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Taller individuals have higher lung functions

      Explanation:

      The equation, lung function = 3.2 + (1.7 x height) is linear, but this does not necessarily mean that the relationship itself is linear. The equation is able to predict that taller individuals are more likely to have greater lung functions. No information is given on whether the coefficients and the R value are statistically significant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      497.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?

      Your Answer: Tinea corporis

      Explanation:

      Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      136.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure stopped spontaneously after 5 minutes. There was no preceding aura. His parents recall that he had a fever for the past three days that resolved after taking paracetamol. On examination, he was found to be febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, and throat examination revealed bilateral exudative tonsillitis. He has previously been treated for febrile seizures, once at the age of 16 months, subsequently at three years of age, and again at 5 years. Detailed family history revealed that his mother also suffered from repeated febrile seizures when she was young. His growth and development are up to age, and he is an above-average student at school. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Febrile seizure plus

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be febrile seizure plus syndrome.Rationale:All of the answers are possible epileptic conditions that this 8-year-old may have. However, the background history of febrile seizure together with a family history of febrile seizures, in a boy who is growing well, with no developmental delay, make febrile seizures plus the most appropriate differential diagnosis for this patient.Other options:- Epilepsy with myoclonic absences are often challenging to treat and may continue into adulthood. There is a male predominance (70%). At presentation, approximately half of cases have a learning disability. An absence seizure is common in this diagnosis and usually occurs daily.- Juvenile absence epilepsy may present with initial generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy followed by absences after that. They are also seen with a background of febrile seizure, and the peak age of presentation is usually at eight years old. Given the current history and lack of absences, this diagnosis is least likely.- Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy usually presents with a myoclonic seizure, although the presentation maybe with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. It occurs more frequently. Background history of febrile fit may be present in 5-10% of the cases.- Temporal lobe epilepsy is usually associated with aura, and that is not seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties...

    Correct

    • A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties following routine vaccination. On examination, it was noted that he was developing swelling around the mouth and neck.What is the most appropriate next step to manage this child?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline 150 mcg (0.15ml of 1 in 1,000)

      Explanation:

      The IM dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in:< 6 months: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 - 12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress. The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline or Nebulised adrenaline- IV Hydrocortisone – pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or...

    Correct

    • The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old child was brought in by his mother with complaints of vesicular eruption over his palms, soles and oral mucosa for the last 5 days. He was slightly febrile. There were no other signs. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie

      Explanation:

      This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given clinical findings is the hallmark of Trisomy 21?

      Your Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Trisomy 21 (Down’s syndrome)is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 in all the body cells, mostly due to non-disjunction during gametogenesis. Robertsonian translocation occurs only in about 2-4% of the cases. A variety of clinical features are found in trisomy 21 due to multi-system involvement but the hallmark is hypotonia, which is present in almost all the cases of trisomy 21. Different types of leukemias are also found in association with down’s syndrome, but they are not the hallmark. Atlantoaxial subluxation is secondary to hypotonia, which induces joint and ligament laxity. Other clinical findings are hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, Hirschsprung’s disease, and pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      132.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?

      Your Answer: Laxatives

      Explanation:

      Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - What developmental milestones would you expect to observe during the assessment of a...

    Correct

    • What developmental milestones would you expect to observe during the assessment of a normally developing 6-month-old boy?

      Your Answer: Lost Moro reflex

      Explanation:

      Among the provided options, we would expect a normally developing six-month-old child to have lost Moro’s reflex.Note:The Moro reflex is present from birth and persists until 4 months of age. It is abnormal for the Moro reflex to persist much beyond this stage, and if it does, cerebral palsy should be considered.A normal 6-month old baby should be able to roll over from front to back, readily follow objects with their eyes, transfer objects from hand to hand, recognise parental voices and babble and laugh.Other options:- Having a pincer grip is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.- Although at 6 months babies are often able to sit briefly or with support, sitting steadily is typically seen at 9 months.- Starting to stand with support is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.- Waving bye-bye is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which is not a variation of lichen planus? ...

    Correct

    • Which is not a variation of lichen planus?

      Your Answer: Sclerotic

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of lichen planus has several variations, as follows:- Hypertrophic lichen planus- Atrophic lichen planus- Erosive/ulcerative lichen planus- Follicular lichen planus (lichen planopilaris)- Annular lichen planus- Linear lichen planus- Vesicular and bullous lichen planus- Actinic lichen planus- Lichen planus pigmentosus- Lichen planus pemphigoides

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment requires how much energy to...

    Correct

    • A well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment requires how much energy to maintain essential body functions?

      Your Answer: 50kcal/kg/day

      Explanation:

      The average amount of energy required by a well preterm baby in a thermo-neutral environment is 50/kcal/kg to maintain essential body functions while it takes about 70 kcal/kg/day for optimal growth. It is important to ensure that enough proteins are given per calorie to limit catabolism and promote cell building. Caloric need usually increases when the baby is ill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte once it has entered the...

    Correct

    • What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte once it has entered the bloodstream?

      Your Answer: 120 days

      Explanation:

      Red blood cells (RBC) have a life span of 120 days in humans.Aging of RBC includes changes in many properties: decreased metabolic activity, morphological alterations, including decreased cell volume and changes in cell shape, and quantitative and qualitative modulations of the surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of headache and a tonic-clonic seizure that lasted for three minutes. The doctor measures the blood pressure in all four limbs which is 180 mmHg. His creatinine is 60 μmol/l and he looks dehydrated. The kidneys look small and echogenic on ultrasound. Which of the following steps is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure should be reduced to the 50th centile within 8 hours

      Correct Answer: Ophthalmology assessment is indicated

      Explanation:

      The child requires frequent BP evaluation every 15 to 30 minutes. Normalisation of his BP should be achieved in a 48h interval. An ophthalmology assessment is indicated to check for acute injury of the blood vessels in the eye due to the elevated blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Regarding crossover trials, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding crossover trials, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Are best for assessing the efficacy of different treatments in giving short-term relief of chronic conditions

      Explanation:

      Crossover trials are characterized by the switching of study participants throughout the treatment groups, keeping a random order of switching. This randomization is important to determine any carry-over effect of different treatment modalities. The benefit of this study is the evaluation of the efficacy of various short-term treatment options for the relief of chronic conditions. The washout period is small in this type of study. Crossover studies are more efficient than the parallel studies, but they should be used according to the treatment options and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands? ...

    Correct

    • What proportion of salivary secretions is contributed by the submandibular glands?

      Your Answer: 0.7

      Explanation:

      The submandibular glands provide the bulk of salivary secretions contributing close to 70%. The sublingual glands provide 5% and the remainder from the parotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - When testing reflexes which one of the following would you not expect to...

    Correct

    • When testing reflexes which one of the following would you not expect to find in a new-born, full-term baby?

      Your Answer: Parachute

      Explanation:

      PARACHUTE REFLEX: This reflex occurs in slightly older infants when the child is held upright and the baby’s body is rotated quickly to face forward (as in falling). The baby will extend his arms forward as if to break a fall, even though this reflex appears long before the baby walks.Newborn reflexes are:Rooting reflex:This reflex starts when the corner of the baby’s mouth is stroked or touched. The baby will turn his or her head and open his or her mouth to follow and root in the direction of the stroking. This helps the baby find the breast or bottle to start feeding. This reflex lasts about 4 months.Suck reflex:Moro reflex:The Moro reflex is often called a startle reflex. That’s because it usually occurs when a baby is startled by a loud sound or movement. In response to the sound, the baby throws back his or her head, extends out his or her arms and legs, cries, then pulls the arms and legs back in. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 2 months old.Tonic neck reflex:When a baby’s head is turned to one side, the arm on that side stretches out and the opposite arm bends up at the elbow. This is often called the fencing position. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 7 months old.Grasp reflex:Stroking the palm of a baby’s hand causes the baby to close his or her fingers in a grasp. The grasp reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 6 months old. A similar reflex in the toes lasts until 9 to 12 months.Stepping reflex:This reflex is also called the walking or dance reflex because a baby appears to take steps or dance when held upright with his or her feet touching a solid surface. This reflex lasts about 2 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 200 beats/min and QRS duration of 80ms. The tachycardia spontaneously resolves and presents in sinus rhythm. The PR interval is 60 ms and QRS duration is 120 ms, there is a positive delta wave in V1. Regarding the boy's tachycardia, which of the following statements holds true?

      Your Answer: Verapamil is contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Although WPW syndrome is a type of supraventricular re-entrant tachycardia, CCBs are contraindicated in its management. This is because CCBs depress AVN conduction| the current then passes through the accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) instead, causing ventricular tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?

      Your Answer: 1.67 m

      Explanation:

      The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is the mode of spread of chickenpox? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Airborne

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      131.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Correct

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Lingual nerve

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      157.2
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs? ...

    Correct

    • What is the appropriate management for a child who has repeated UTIs?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be given to the child to avoid infections and renal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old develops tonsillitis and presents to the hospital in considerable pain. Which among the following nerves carries the sensation from the tonsillar fossa?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve is the primary sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The lesser palatine nerve makes a smaller contribution. Because of this, otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.Anatomical Rationale:Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the pharynx.The primary arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial artery. Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which may result in bleeding during a tonsillectomy.Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical nodes.TonsillitisThe inflammation of tonsils is usually due to bacterial aetiology (50%) – group A Streptococcus, the remainder of the causes are viral.May be complicated by the development of an abscess (quinsy), which may distort the uvula.Indications for tonsillectomy include recurrent acute tonsillitis, and enlargement causing sleep apnoea.Dissection tonsillectomy is the preferred technique with haemorrhage being the most frequent complication. Delayed otalgia may occur owing to irritation of the glossopharyngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition of speech and developmental delay. She babbles but does not speak any identifiable words. Her receptive language is relatively preserved but she is severely delayed in all developmental domains and is not yet walking. On examination, she is an excitable girl who laughs frequently and is keen to crawl around the room and engage in social interaction. Her eye contact is good. She makes flapping movements of the hands when she is excited. Her purposeful upper limb movements are rather ataxic. What is the most likely explanation for this child’s speech and language delay?

      Your Answer: Rett syndrome

      Correct Answer: Angelman syndrome

      Explanation:

      Angelman syndrome is a rare genetic and neurological disorder caused by deletion or abnormal expression of the UBE3A gene and characterized by severe developmental delay and learning disabilities| absence or near absence of speech| inability to coordinate voluntary movements (ataxia)| tremulousness with jerky movements of the arms and legs and a distinct behavioural pattern characterized by a happy disposition and unprovoked episodes of laughter and smiling. Although those with the syndrome may be unable to speak, many gradually learn to communicate through other means such as gesturing. In addition, children may have enough receptive language ability to understand simple forms of language communication. Additional symptoms may occur including seizures, sleep disorders and feeding difficulties. Some children with Angelman syndrome may have distinctive facial features but most facial features reflect the normal parental traits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer: Hyporeninaemia

      Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows...

    Correct

    • Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - When measuring blood pressure in infants and children, which one of the following...

    Correct

    • When measuring blood pressure in infants and children, which one of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Doppler methods of auscultation are especially helpful in infants

      Explanation:

      Using a Doppler device, you can estimate systolic BP even when the pulse is inaudible. Handheld and portable, the device uses ultrasound waves to detect the velocity of arterial blood flow. Helpful for patients with traumatic injuries or shock, the Doppler technique is also useful for children and patients whose BP is hard to hear because of oedema, obesity, vasoconstriction, or low cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Polio (Sabin)

      Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week

      Explanation:

      European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that...

    Correct

    • A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that moves with tongue protrusion. The swelling is present between the thyroid cartilage and the tongue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      The thyroglossal duct cyst is the most common congenital anomaly of the central portion of the neck. The thyroglossal duct cyst is intimately related to the central portion of the hyoid bone and usually elevates along with the larynx during swallowing. Thyroglossal cysts can be defined as an irregular neck mass or a lump which develops from cells and tissues left over after the formation of the thyroid gland during the developmental stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there are a variety of genetic defects, all leading to the same phenotypical manifestations?

      Your Answer: Heterogeneity

      Explanation:

      The property described in the question is heterogeneity.Heterogeneity is when a single phenotype or genetic disorder can be caused by multiple numbers of genetic mutations.Other options:- Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. The underlying mechanism is that the gene codes for a product that is used by various cells. A classic example of pleiotropy is the human disease PKU (phenylketonuria).- The penetrance of a disease-causing mutation is the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit clinical symptoms. For example, the gene responsible for a particular autosomal dominant disorder has 70% penetrance, then 70% of those with the mutation will develop the disease, while 30% will not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      236.4
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a red patch of skin on his chest, that is surrounded by an area of skin scaling. This was followed by the development of oval macules over the rest of his trunk, arms and thighs three days later. he has just returned to school for the start of Spring term. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis vesicular

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis rosea is a common, acute exanthem of uncertain aetiology. Viral and bacterial causes have been sought, but convincing answers have not yet been found. Pityriasis rosea typically affects children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial herald patch, followed by the development of a diffuse papulosquamous rash. The herald patch often is misdiagnosed as eczema. Pityriasis rosea is difficult to identify until the appearance of characteristic smaller secondary lesions that follow Langer’s lines (cleavage lines). Several medications can cause a rash similar to pityriasis rosea, and several diseases, including secondary syphilis, are included in the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Luteinising Hormone

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy has a history of fever for one week (39C), with no other symptoms leading up to the fever. He recently had a surgical extraction of one of his incisors two weeks before consultation. On examination of CVS, a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur is heard. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      Tooth extraction or any surgical procedure may introduce bacteria into the blood stream. The most commonly involved organisms include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans. Once in the blood, these organisms have a very high tendency of attaching to the walls of the heart and causing inflammation known as endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?

      Your Answer: GnRH stimulation test

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation found on his hands, feet, and mouth. He also saw fresh blood mixed with his stools. Although it has happened before, he doesn't know exactly when it began. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: McCune Albright syndrome

      Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disease. It presents with hyperpigmentation patches on the oral mucosa, lips, palm and soles, and nasal alae. It also presents with hamartomatous polyps in the gut, hence the fresh blood in this particular case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      223.7
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts? ...

    Correct

    • Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?

      Your Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According...

    Correct

    • A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below. Oxygen Saturation Levels:
      • Superior vena cava: 73%
      • Right atrium: 71%
      • Right ventricle: 72%
      • Pulmonary artery: 86%
      • Left ventricle: 97%
      • Aorta: 96%
      Pressure Measurements:
      • Right atrium: 6 mmHg
      • Pulmonary artery: 53/13 mmHg
      • PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure): 15 mmHg
      • Left ventricle: 111/10 mmHg
      • Aorta: 128/61 mmHg
      Which of the following is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Key observations in the results:

      1. Oxygen Saturation Step-Up:
        • There is a significant step-up in oxygen saturation from the right ventricle (72%) to the pulmonary artery (86%). This suggests the presence of left-to-right shunting of blood.
      2. Pressure Differences:
        • The pressure in the pulmonary artery is elevated (53/13 mmHg), indicating pulmonary hypertension.

      Differential Diagnosis:

      1. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA):
        • PDA can cause increased pulmonary blood flow, leading to a step-up in oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery pressures can also be elevated due to increased blood flow.
      2. Primary Pulmonary Hypertension:
        • Typically presents with elevated pulmonary pressures but does not usually show a step-up in oxygen saturation.
      3. Pulmonary Stenosis:
        • Would result in elevated right ventricular pressure but would not explain the step-up in oxygen saturation.
      4. Septum Primum Atrial Septal Defect (ASD):
        • Would result in a step-up in oxygen saturation from the right atrium to the right ventricle, not between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
      5. Tetralogy of Fallot:
        • Characterized by right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. Oxygen saturation levels would typically be lower in the systemic circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not suggest a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid dysplasia

      Correct Answer: Osseous bone lesions

      Explanation:

      Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria to confirm the presence of neurofibromatosis, type 1. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Refer to paediatric dermatology (on a routine basis)

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy presents to the emergency department after being assaulted with a baseball bat. The soft tissue around his left eye shows significant swelling that obstructs the child's vision. A CT scan shows a fracture at the floor of the left orbit. This injury will most likely lead to an abnormal communication between the orbit and which of the following areas of the face?

      Your Answer: Maxillary sinus

      Explanation:

      The injury described in question leads to an abnormal communication between the orbit and the ipsilateral maxillary sinus – this is termed as a blow-out fracture of the orbit.The maxillary sinuses are found in the maxillary bone, inferior to the orbit. They are the largest of the paranasal air sinuses. The maxillary bone forms the floor of the orbit. This layer of bone separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus. As such, fractures of the floor of the orbit can be associated with herniation of the orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. Other options:- The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells in the ethmoid bone. They lie lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity. They are separated from the orbit by a very thin plate of ethmoid bone called the lamina papyracea, which is found on the medial wall of the orbit. The thin nature of this bone means it is commonly fractured in orbital trauma. However, this is the incorrect answer to the above question as a communication between the ethmoidal air cells, and the orbit is associated with fractures of the medial wall of the orbit, not the floor. – The frontal sinuses are found in the frontal bones, above the orbits on each side of the head. A large portion of the roof of the orbit is composed of the frontal bone and separates the orbit from the frontal sinus. Fractures of the roof of the orbit can be associated with communication between the frontal sinus and orbit. The frontal bones are strong, and so fracture is associated with high-impact anterior trauma, such as a road traffic accident. – The sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity. The pituitary gland lies nestled within the hypophyseal fossa, with only a thin wall of bone separating it from the sphenoid sinus below. As such, neurosurgeons can gain access to the pituitary gland via the sphenoid sinus, in a procedure called transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. – The nasal cavity extends from the nares to the nasopharynx. It is found more medial and inferior than the orbits. It does not lie adjacent to the orbit at any point and so is unlikely to be involved in an orbital fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old girl who has recently undergone a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix develops a swinging temperature of 38.8 C while on admission. What is next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange for an ultrasound scan to look for intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Children who present with ruptured appendices are at increased risk of intra abdominal collections or abscesses. A swinging temperature is the first clue in indicating an intra abdominal abscess in a patient who had recently undergone surgery for a perforated appendix. The best course of action is therefore to get an ultrasound of the fluid collection before proceeding to rule out any other complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant?

      Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a condition that occurs almost exclusively in males. This condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern It is characterized by neurological and behavioural abnormalities and the overproduction of uric acid. Uric acid is a waste product of normal chemical processes and is found in blood and urine. Excess uric acid can be released from the blood and build up under the skin and cause gouty arthritis (arthritis caused by an accumulation of uric acid in the joints). Uric acid accumulation can also cause kidney and bladder stones.The nervous system and behavioural disturbances experienced by people with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome include abnormal involuntary muscle movements, such as tensing of various muscles (dystonia), jerking movements (chorea), and flailing of the limbs (ballismus). People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome usually cannot walk, require assistance sitting, and generally use a wheelchair. Self-injury (including biting and head banging) is the most common and distinctive behavioural problem in individuals with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      130.6
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to the physician with a history of easy bruising and epistaxis since childhood. He recently had a dental extraction after which the bleeding lasted for 30 hours. His labs are sent and the reports are as follows: APTT: 36 secondsPT: 15 secondsFibrinogen: 2.5 g/lFactor VIIIC: 0.4 iu/ml (normal range 0.5-1.5)vWF antigen: 0.35 iu/ml (normal range 0.45-1.4)vWF ristocetin co-factor: 0.05 iu/ml (normal 0.45-1.35)PLT: 230 x 109/lBleeding time: 12 mins (normally up to 8 mins). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: von Willebrand disease type II

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand disease (VWD), a congenital bleeding disorder caused by deficient or defective plasma von Willebrand factor (VWF), may only become apparent on haemostatic challenge, and bleeding history may become more apparent with increasing age. Type 1 VWD (,30% of VWD) typically manifests as mild mucocutaneous bleeding. Type 2 VWD accounts for approximately 60% of VWD. Type 2 subtypes include: Type 2A, which usually manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2B, which typically manifests as mild-to-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding that can include thrombocytopenia that worsens in certain circumstances| Type 2M, which typically manifests as mild-moderate mucocutaneous bleeding| Type 2N, which can manifest as excessive bleeding with surgery and mimics mild haemophilia A. Type 3 VWD (<10% of VWD) manifests with severe mucocutaneous and musculoskeletal bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area.Investigations were as follows:Hb 13.1 g/dlWCC 8.6 x109/lPLT 201 x109/lNa+ 139 mmol/lK+ 4.5 mmol/lCreatinine 110 µmol/l17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normalPelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess. Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure...

    Correct

    • A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia

      Explanation:

      Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
      Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
      DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
      Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent headaches. The neurological examination is unremarkable except for seven brown macules on the skin that vary in diameter from 1 to 2 cm. Clinical examination reveals several freckles in the axilla and the inguinal region. What is the most probably underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma/vestibular schwannoma is a benign slow-growing tumour. The clinical picture of the child suggests neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), with cafe-au-lait spots and axillary and inguinal freckling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered three times last year. His symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy and a sore throat. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol/ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NICE does not recommend the use of antibiotics or tonsillectomy in this case. Paracetamol/Ibuprofen are indicated as they provide antipyretic action and analgesia. Indications for tonsillectomy are 5 or more episodes of acute sore throat/year, symptoms present for at least 2 years, symptoms are severe enough to disrupt a child’s social life. Indications for antibiotics are features of marked systemic upset secondary to the acute sore throat, unilateral peritonsillitis, history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, acute tonsillitis with 3 or more of the following: history of fever, tonsillar exudates, no cough and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      164.5
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest infections. The mother says she has a productive cough with greenish sputum. Chest x-ray shows multiple ringed shadows and thickening of the bronchial walls at both bases. The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      The x-ray is suggestive of bronchiectasis. The most probable aetiology especially considering recurrent chest infections at such a young age is cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?

      Your Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Correct

    • In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis....

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with HIV develops jaundice while being treated for overwhelming sepsis. Blood investigations reveal:ALT: 50 IU/L (0–45) Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 505 IU/L (0–105)Which of the following medications has she most likely been administered in the course of her treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, she probably was administered co-amoxiclav.The liver function tests are highly suggestive of cholestatic jaundice, which is a classic adverse dug reaction related to co-amoxiclav use.Other options:- Erythromycin is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal (GI) disturbance.- Gentamicin is more commonly associated with renal impairment.- Meropenem does not commonly cause cholestasis but is associated with transaminitis.- Vancomycin is associated with red man syndrome on fast administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old child is brought in by her mother after she has been holding onto her both ears and crying out of pain. This has been going on for about a week and there has been no improvement in the pain despite using paracetamol and ibuprofen. On examination, the child is febrile, and her pulse is 130 beats per minute. the tympanic membranes are red and bulging on both sides. What is the most appropriate course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Management of acute otitis media should begin with adequate analgesia. Antibiotic therapy can be deferred in children two years or older with mild symptoms. Antibiotics should be prescribed immediately if:- Symptoms lasting more than 4 days or not improving- Systemically unwell but not requiring admission- Immunocompromise or high risk of complications secondary to significant heart, lung, kidney, liver, or neuromuscular disease- Younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media- Otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canaHigh-dose amoxicillin (80 to 90 mg per kg per day) is the antibiotic of choice for treating acute otitis media in patients who are not allergic to penicillin, otherwise erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human...

    Correct

    • Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?

      Your Answer: Basophil

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Child Development (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (5/10) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (5/7) 71%
Haematology And Oncology (3/3) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (2/3) 67%
Epidemiology And Statistics (5/6) 83%
Endocrinology (9/10) 90%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (6/8) 75%
Nephro-urology (6/7) 86%
Respiratory (5/5) 100%
Emergency Medicine (3/3) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (3/5) 60%
Neonatology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/5) 80%
Renal (1/2) 50%
ENT (8/9) 89%
Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Passmed