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  • Question 1 - An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.

      Which of the following physiological characteristics of a 5-year-old most closely resembles those of a healthy adult?

      Your Answer: Dead space ratio

      Explanation:

      Whatever the age, the dead space ratio is 0.3. It’s the dead space (Vd) to tidal volume ratio (Vt).

      The glottis is the narrowest point of the upper airway in an adult, while the cricoid ring is the narrowest point in a child.

      A child’s airway resistance is much higher than an adult’s. The resistance to airflow increases as the diameter of a paediatric airway shrinks. The radius (r) to the power of 4 is inversely proportional to airway resistance (r4). As a result, paediatric patients are more susceptible to changes in airflow caused by a small reduction in airway diameter, such as caused by oedema.

      The compliance of a newborn’s lungs is very low (5 mL/cmH2O), but it gradually improves as lung size and elasticity grow. Lung compliance in an adult is 200 mL/cmH2O.

      In children, minute ventilation (mL/kg/minute) is much higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      105.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old patient is brought to ER with a chief complaint of chest pain for two hours. Chest pain was tightness in nature, located in the centre of the chest and radiate into the neck and left arm. The patient otherwise looks fit and well.

      Just after admitting the patient, he suffered VF cardiac arrest and is immediately defibrillated with the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      On clinical examination following was the finding:
      BP: 82/45 mmHg
      Heart rate: 120 beats/min
      Oxygen saturation on air: 25%
      Heart sounds: Normal
      There is no sign of pulmonary oedema. The patient is anxious, cold, and clammy.

      A 12 lead ECG was done which revealed a sinus rhythm of 120 with ST-segment depression and T wave inversion in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following is considered best for the initial treatment of the patient?

      Your Answer: Inhaled high flow oxygen

      Correct Answer: Oral aspirin

      Explanation:

      This is a classical case of unstable angina or NSTEMI (Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction). As soon as the diagnosis of unstable angina or NSTEMI is made the initial treatment is Aspirin and antithrombin therapy.

      Betablocker is known to reduce mortality from acute myocardial infarction by reducing oxygen demand. If there is no contraindication (heart block, bradycardia, hypotension, severe left ventricular dysfunction, and asthma), a beta-blocker should be given early. This patient has hypotension and therefore metoprolol is contraindicated.

      If three doses of nitroglycerine tablets or Nitrolingual sprays and intravenous beta-blockers too cannot relieve the symptoms intravenous Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) should be considered provided that there is no hypotension. But in this case, the patient is hypotensive, and therefore, it is contraindicated.

      If the symptoms are not relieved after three serial doses of nitroglycerine or if symptoms recur despite adequate anti-anginal treatment morphine sulphate is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      112.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more...

    Correct

    • It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more prone to developing gastric cancer. After 30 years of studying people with lower socio economic status, it was found that they did have a greater tendency to develop cancer. As a result of that the authors got to the conclusion that a strong association existed between the two. Later on another study conducted found that people from lower socio economic back grounds also had a tendency to be smokers.


      Which form of potential bias can be associated with this particular study?

      Your Answer: Confounding bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.

      When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.

      Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      106.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What does therapeutic index in humans mean? ...

    Correct

    • What does therapeutic index in humans mean?

      Your Answer: The TD50 divided by the ED50

      Explanation:

      Therapeutic index is a measure which relates the dose of a drug required to produce a desired effect to that which produces an undesired effect.

      In humans, it is usually defined as the ratio of the toxic dose for 50% of the population (TD50) to the minimum effective dose for 50% of the population (ED50) for some therapeutically relevant effect. In animal studies, the therapeutic index can be defined as the ratio of the median lethal dose (LD50) to the ED50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      56
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.

      Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?

      Your Answer: Warm waterbath

      Correct Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)

      Explanation:

      Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.

      Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.

      Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      160.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment osteotomy under local anaesthetic on her first (large) toe.

      For the operation, which of the following nerve blocks will be most effective?

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal, deep peroneal and posterior tibial nerves

      Explanation:

      An ankle block is commonly used for anaesthesia and postoperative analgesia when operating on bunions. It results in the selective block of the superficial peroneal, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensory input to the web space between the first and second toes (L4-5).

      The L2-S1 nerve, often known as the superficial peroneal nerve, is a mixed motor and sensory neuron. It gives sensory supply to the anterolateral region of the leg, the anterior aspect of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th toes, and innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (with the exception of the web space between 1st and 2nd toes).

      The sensory area of the saphenous nerve (L3-4) in the foot stretches from the proximal portion of the midfoot on the medial side to the proximal part of the midfoot on the lateral side.

      The lateral side of the little (fifth) toe is innervated by the sural nerve’s sensory supply (S1-2). The heel, medial (medial plantar nerve), and lateral (lateral plantar nerve) soles of the foot are all served by the posterior tibial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      241.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of...

    Incorrect

    • Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.

      Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?

      Your Answer: Active scavenging systems

      Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)

      Explanation:

      Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.

      Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.

      Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.

      Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.

      Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____? ...

    Correct

    • A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is type ____?

      Your Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Type I – immediate hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Atopy, urticaria, Anaphylaxis, Asthma( IgE mediated).

      Type II – Antibody mediated cytotoxic reaction

      Examples are: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, Thrombocytopenia( IgM or IgG mediated).

      Type III – Immune complex mediated reaction

      Examples are: Serum sickness,SLE – IgG., Farmers lungs, rheumatoid arthritis

      Type IV – Delayed hypersensitivity reaction

      Examples are: Contact dermatitis, drug allergies.

      Type V – Autoimmune

      Graves’
      Myasthenia – IgM or IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A metre is the unit of length

      Explanation:

      The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.

      There are seven base units, which are:

      Metre (m): a unit of length
      Second (s): a unit of time
      Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
      Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
      Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
      Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
      Mole (mol): a unit of substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration

      Explanation:

      The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:

      C = C0. e-kt

      C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time

      As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.

      A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.

      A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics

      The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.

      Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.

      The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 11 - Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered...

    Incorrect

    • Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.

      Why is this the best route of administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High first pass metabolism

      Explanation:

      Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.

      An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.

      There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.

      GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.

      The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to GP presenting an area of erythema which was around a recent cut on his right forearm. He was prescribed a short course of antibiotics and after 5 days again presented with progressive fatigue, headaches, and fevers.
      On clinical examination:
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate: 22 per minute
      Heart rate: 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 105/76 mmHg
      Temperature: 38.2 degree Celsius

      On physical examination, a dramatic increase in the area of erythema was noted.
      Blood culture was done in the patient and indicated the presence of bacterium containing beta-lactamase. Which of the following antibiotics was likely prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin belongs to the quinolone group of antibiotics, and doxycycline and minocycline are tetracyclines. So, they are not affected by beta-lactamase.
      However, amoxicillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic and beta-lactamase cleaves the beta-lactam ring present in amoxicillin. This results in the breakdown of the antibiotic and thus the area of erythema dramatically increased.
      Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin and clavulanic acid which protects amoxicillin from beta-lactamase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old female is brought to the emergency room due to urticarial rash and shortness of breath. Her mother reported that, prior to the symptoms, she took Co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) for her present ear infection. She also reported that she had no previous exposure to penicillin or any other related antibiotics.

      Which of the following can help to differentiate between type 1 and type II hypersensitivity reaction in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgE assay specific for amoxycilloyl

      Explanation:

      Serum specific IgE assays against allergen sources/molecules are the most commonly used in vitro diagnostic approach. The measurement of specific IgE recognizing allergenic epitopes can be achieved both through the usage of single reagents (singleplex) or with a pre-defined panel of a number of molecules to be tested simultaneously (multiplex).

      Several clinical entities have been described and those occurring immediately after drug exposure are immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated and explored by skin testing and by the in vitro measurement of serum-specific IgE. The sensitivity of these tests is not 100% and even for patients with a clear positive history, a drug provocation test may be required in order to confirm the diagnosis. The advantages of the in vitro determination of specific IgE antibodies when compared with in vivo testing are that the former poses no direct risk to the patient and does not require personnel with expertise. Even though in vitro tests are recommended in immediate hypersensitivity reactions, their exact place in the diagnostic procedure is not clear and certain authors do not use this method in daily practice. In one study, in terms of sensitivity, 11 of 26 patients (42%) with negative skin tests and a positive drug provocation challenge (or repeated clinical history) had specific IgE to benzylpenicilloyl or amoxicilloyl (4). The specificity of the test was 95–100%. Therefore, IgE measurements can avoid a potentially harmful drug provocation test.

      An elevated serum tryptase does not differentiate between type 1 and type 2 hypersensitivity reaction. It indicates mast cell degranulation.

      RAST is a useful aid to improve the overall diagnosis of drug allergies by using radioactive detection. This, however, is now rarely used.

      Quantification of basophil activation by CD63 expression can be done by flow cytometry, which forms the basis of experimental drug-induced basophil stimulation tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 40-year old female comes to the GP's office with unexplained weight gain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old female comes to the GP's office with unexplained weight gain, cold intolerance and fatigue. Her thyroid function tests are performed as there is a suspicion of hypothyroidism. A negative feedback mechanism is incorporated in the control of thyroid hormone release. All of choices below are also controlled by a negative feedback loop except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clotting cascade

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the clotting cascade, which occurs via a positive feedback mechanism. As clotting factors are attracted to a site, their presence attracts further clotting factors. This continues until a functioning clot is formed.

      This patient has presented with symptoms of hypothyroidism and symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, dry skin, coarse hair and constipation. It can be treated by replacing the missing thyroid hormone with levothyroxine which is a synthetic version of thyroxine (T4).

      Serum carbon dioxide (CO2) is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism as well. Chemoreceptors can detect when the serum CO2 is high, and send an impulse to the respiratory centre of the brain to increase the respiratory rate. As a result, more CO2 is exhaled which lowers the serum concentration.

      Cortisol is also released according to a negative feedback mechanism. Cortisol acts on both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. Its action serve to decrease the formation of corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), respectively. CRH acts on the anterior pituitary to release ACTH. This then acts on the adrenal gland to cause the release of cortisol. Thus, inhibition of CRH and ACTH formation results in high levels of cortisol which inhibit its further release.

      Blood pressure (BP) is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism. Low BP results in renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activation. This leads to vasoconstriction and retention of salt and water which increased BP.
      Blood sugar is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism. A rise in blood sugar causes insulin to be released. Insulin acts to transport glucose into the cell which lowers blood sugar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • The following statements are about the conjugation of bilirubin. Which is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is formed by metabolizing heme, mostly from haemoglobin in red blood cells.

      Bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocytes by the glucuronyl transferase enzyme in order to enable it to become soluble and allow for its secretion across the canalicular membrane and into bile.

      The conjugation process is increased by rifampicin and decreased by valproate.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a decrease in glucuronyl transferase in the hepatic system, decreasing the transport of bilirubin into the hepatocyte, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

      Crigler-Najjer syndrome is caused by mutations in the genes responsible for hepatic glucuronyl transferase, decreasing the activity of the enzyme, meaning bilirubin cannot be conjugated, causing unconjugated bilirubinaemia.

      Dubin-Johnson syndrome does not cause an impairment in the conjugation of bilirubin, but it blocks the transport of bilirubin out of the hepatocyte resulting in conjugated bilirubinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
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  • Question 17 - Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that...

    Incorrect

    • Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.

      Which of the following term can be used to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.

      The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 18 - A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant,...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:

      165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.

      In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

      ARR= (0.157-0.126)

      ARR= 0.031

      NNT= 1/0.031

      NNT=32.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
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  • Question 19 - A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF =...

    Incorrect

    • A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG

      Explanation:

      CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).

      Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 20 - An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For...

    Incorrect

    • An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.

      The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.  
      End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
      Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa

      Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. 

      Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

      The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

      Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

      There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
      1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
      B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
      3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 21 - The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma...

    Incorrect

    • The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.

      In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinol binding globulin

      Explanation:

      The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.

      The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.

      Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.

      A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.

      Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 22 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 23 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 24 - Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is less than the functional residual capacity in a 30-year-old

      Explanation:

      Closing capacity refers to volume of gas within the lungs at which the conducting small airways begin to close, that is, the point during expiration when small airways close.

      It is calculated mathematically as:

      Closing capacity = Closing volume (CV) + Residual volume (RV)

      Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas still present within the lungs post expiration.

      Closing capacity is lower than the functional residual capacity in younger adults, but begins to rise to eventually equal, and then exceed it with increasing age (at about middle age), increasing intrabdominal pressure, decreasing blood flow in the pulmonary system and parenchymal disease within the pulmonary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin

      Explanation:

      Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.

      Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 26 - Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following, which statement is true regarding electrical safety in an operation theatre?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The higher the frequency of the current the less risk to the patient

      Explanation:

      The operating theatre is an unusual place with several applications of electrical equipment to the human body. This can lead to potential dangers associated with it that need to be prevented. Electrical safety in the operation theatre is the understanding of how these potential dangers can occur and how they can be prevented.

      Electricity can cause morbidity or mortality by one of the following ways:
      (i) electrocution
      (ii) burns
      (iii) ignition of a flammable material, causing a fire or explosion.

      Electrocution is dependant on factors like duration of contact with electric current, the current pathway and the frequency and size of current.

      Option A: The higher the frequency, the less effects of electrocution on the body.

      Option B & D: Equipment can be classified in classes and types.
      The class designation describes the method used for protection against electrocution. Class I is basic protection, class II is double insulation and class III is safety extra low voltage.
      The type designation describes the degree of protection based on the maximum permissible leakage currents under normal and fault conditions.
      Type B:
      can be class I, II or III but the maximum leakage current must not exceed 100 µA. It is therefore not suitable for direct connection to the heart.
      Type BF
      Similar to type B, but uses an isolated (or floating) circuit.
      Type CF
      Only type CF protect against microshock as they allow leakage currents of 0.05 mA per electrode for class I and 0.01 mA for class II. Microshock is a small leakage current that can cause harm because of direct connection to the heart via transvenous lines or wires, bypassing the impedance of the skin, leading to ventricular fibrillation. Microshock current of 100 ?A is sufficient to cause VF.

      Option C: A 75mA electrocution can cause ventricular fibrillation. Use the following as a general guide to understand the effect of current size on the body.
      1 mA – tingling pain
      5 mA – pain
      15 mA – tonic muscular contraction
      50 mA – respiratory muscle paralysis
      75 mA – ventricular fibrillation.

      Option E: Wet skin reduces the resistance to current flow and therefore increases the effects of electrocution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.

      Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kataria

      Explanation:

      Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.

      Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.

      The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.

      The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults

      The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.

      The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which one is not a criterion for the assessment of causality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      For establishing a cause effect relationship, following criteria must be met:

      1. Coherence & Consistency

      2. Temporal Precedence

      3. Specificity

      As can be seen, sensitivity (The probability of a positive test) is not among these deciding factors..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for carrying taste sensation from the given part of the tongue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior two thirds of tongue - facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve.

      The general somatic sensation of the anterior two-third of the tongue is supplied by the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve.

      Both general somatic sensation and taste from the posterior third of the tongue are carried by the glossopharyngeal nerve.

      All the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve whereas palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve. (This is because palatoglossus is the only tongue muscle derived from the fourth branchial arch)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathophysiology (3/4) 75%
Statistical Methods (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/2) 0%
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