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  • Question 1 - Work of breathing (WOB) is the energy expended to inhale and exhale a breathing gas. Normally, maximal amount of work...

    Correct

    • Work of breathing (WOB) is the energy expended to inhale and exhale a breathing gas. Normally, maximal amount of work of breathing is required to overcome:

      Your Answer: Elastic lung compliance

      Explanation:

      The forces of elastance (compliance), frictional resistance and inertia have been identified as the forces that oppose lung inflation and deflation. The normal relaxed state of the lung and chest is partially empty. Further exhalation requires muscular work. Inhalation is an active process requiring work. About 60–66% of the total work performed by the respiratory muscles is used to overcome the elastic or compliance characteristics of the lung–chest cage, 30–35% is used to overcome frictional resistance and only 2–5% of the work is used for inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells...

    Correct

    • The transmembrane proteins responsible for resting membrane potential of vascular smooth muscle cells was blocked by a drug. Which of the following transmembrane proteins were blocked by this drug?

      Your Answer: K+ channels

      Explanation:

      The resting membrane potential is due to selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions. The Na/K pump is responsible for the generation of a gradient across the membrane and it is due to the inherent ability of the K channels to allow diffusion back into the nerve at rest which charges the cells. In reality, the resting membrane potential is more positive because of small contributions by Na+ channels, Cl− channels and non-selective cation channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP is 72/30 mmhg, heart rate of 142 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood and his BP returned to 100/70 and his heart rate slowed to 90 beats/min. What decreased after transfusion?

      Your Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood, this fluid resuscitation will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling which will result in the decreases TPR with an increased CO and cardiac filling pressures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic

      Explanation:

      The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Correct

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 18 year-old with an iron deficient diet was prescribed an iron supplement...

    Correct

    • An 18 year-old with an iron deficient diet was prescribed an iron supplement by her GP. Lack of iron often results in:

      Your Answer: Hypochromic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron from decreased intake, increased loss or inadequate absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBCs will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show poikilocytosis. Iron profile tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically...

    Correct

    • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition that occurs in critically ill patients, and can be triggered by events such as trauma and sepsis. Which of the following variables is most likely to be lower than normal in a patient with ARDS?

      Your Answer: Lung compliance

      Explanation:

      Acute (or Adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a medical condition occurring in critically ill patients characterized by widespread inflammation in the lungs. The development of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) starts with damage to the alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, resulting in increased permeability to plasma and inflammatory cells. These cells pass into the interstitium and alveolar space, resulting in pulmonary oedema. Damage to the surfactant-producing type II cells and the presence of protein-rich fluid in the alveolar space disrupt the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, leading to micro atelectasis and impaired gas exchange. The pathophysiological consequences of lung oedema in ARDS include a decrease in lung volumes, compliance and large intrapulmonary shunts. ARDS may be seen in the setting of pneumonia, sepsis, following trauma, multiple blood transfusions, severe burns, severe pancreatitis, near-drowning, drug reactions, or inhalation injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell...

    Correct

    • Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell membrane. One cell in the middle was bleached with a light that destroys the dye, but the cell soon recovers its stain. The presence of which structures best explains this?

      Your Answer: Gap junctions

      Explanation:

      Gap junctions are attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication e.g. they permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells. They allow direct electrical transmission among cells and also permit certain substance to pass through as well. They are either homotypic, formed by two identical hemichannels or heterotypic, formed by different hemichannels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Correct

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (10/10) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
General (4/4) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Passmed