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  • Question 1 - An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

      Your Answer: The greater curvature of the stomach

      Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum. The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum. The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery. The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal...

    Correct

    • A new-born with a history of extended resuscitation is admitted in the neonatal unit. His mother had a difficult delivery and the baby boy weights 4.9 kg. He is unstable and you observe petechial bleeding on his legs. There is also oozing around the umbilicus. Blood exam reveals a prolonged PT, thrombin time, and APPT. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Explanation:

      In this case there is evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) caused by severe birth asphyxia. The baby was born weighing 4,9 kg which is a large size for a new-born and thus a difficult delivery with potential birth asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high...

    Correct

    • In an age and sex matched case control study, 30 adolescents with high blood pressure were compared to 30 controls from the same clinic. The mean birth weights of the two groups were compared using a paired t-test. The results indicated that the control group was 150 g heavier with a standard error of 100 g.Which one of these is the most appropriate conclusion?

      Your Answer: There is insufficient evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of hypertension in adolescence

      Explanation:

      In case control studies, observational studies are made to compare two groups, individuals with a certain condition, to those without the condition, with all other factors being equal. In the situation presented by the question, the study was to determine whether a prior risk factor, a low birth weight, was associated with later developing adolescent hypertension, using a paired t-test to statistically determine whether there was indeed a significant association between the two conditions. Case control studies only help to draw associations between two groups and therefore cannot indicate causation. In this scenario we are also not given the p value to determine whether the association is statistically significant. Therefore there is not enough evidence to conclude whether or not birthweight affects the development of adolescent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Bone cysts

      Correct Answer: Lisch nodules of the iris

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous condition associated with increased psychiatric co-morbidity. It results from the mutation of TSC1 or TSC2 tumour suppressor genes. Multiple benign tumours of the brain and other vital organs are characteristic of this disease. Important findings include subependymal nodules, bone cysts, cardiac rhabdomyoma, and learning difficulties. Lisch nodules of the iris occur in neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Down's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is involved in a serious road traffic accident and sustains significant damage to his frontal lobe.Which of the following would you expect him to have?

      Your Answer: Anosognosia

      Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      Neuroanatomically, the frontal lobe is the largest lobe of the brain lying in front of the central sulcus. It is divided into 3 major areas defined by their anatomy and function. They are the primary motor cortex, the supplemental and premotor cortex, and the prefrontal cortex. Damage to the primary motor, supplemental motor, and premotor areas lead to weakness and impaired execution of motor tasks of the contralateral side. The inferolateral areas of the dominant hemisphere are the expressive language area (Broca area, Brodmann areas 44 and 45), to which damage will result in a non-fluent expressive type of aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which...

    Incorrect

    • The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which chromosome is merlin located?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 15

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 22

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 2, also known as schwannomin, is an autosomal dominant genetic disease caused by mutation of the merlin gene located on chromosome 22. Merlin is a tumour suppressor protein, which is responsible for controlling cell shape, growth and adhesion, and is predominantly found in nervous tissue. Its mutation increases the risk of tumour development especially bilateral vestibular schwannomas, the hallmark of neurofibromatosis 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a...

    Correct

    • A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?

      Your Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to the neurology clinic with complaints of unsteady gait and dysarthria. On examination, he is found to have ataxia, absent tendon reflexes, and nystagmus. His intelligence is well preserved. Additionally, distal muscle weakness was noted in hands and feet. He is also diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be Friedreich’s ataxia.Friedreich’s ataxia is also called spinocerebellar degeneration. It is an autosomal recessive condition. The onset of ataxia is around ten years of age. Intelligence is preserved. Cerebellar impairment, distal muscle weakness, pes cavus, hammer-toes and progressive kyphoscoliosis are present. Deep tendon reflexes are absent, particularly the ankle jerk. Loss of vibration and position sense occurs because of degeneration of the posterior columns. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can occur with progression to congestive cardiac failure.Other options:- Ataxia Telangiectasia: ataxia develops earlier, around two years of age, with loss of ambulation by adolescence. Nystagmus is present. Telangiectasia becomes evident by mid-childhood and is found on bulbar conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose and on the ears. These children have an increased risk of developing lymphoreticular malignancies.- Abetalipoproteinemia: begins in childhood with steatorrhea and failure to thrive. Neurological symptoms appear in late childhood. These include ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, peripheral neuritis, abnormalities in position and vibration sense, muscle weakness and mental retardation. Vitamin E is undetectable in serum in these patients.- Acute cerebellar ataxia: occurs in children of 1-3 years of age and is a diagnosis of exclusion. It often follows acute viral infections like varicella, coxsackievirus or echovirus by 2-3 weeks. It is an autoimmune response to a viral agent affecting the cerebellum. Prognosis is excellent with complete recovery present. Very small numbers have long term sequelae like ataxia, incoordination, speech disorder and behavioural problems.- Acute labyrinthitis: It is difficult to differentiate acute labyrinthitis from acute cerebellar ataxia in a toddler. It is associated with middle ear infections, vertigo and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?

      Your Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice

      Explanation:

      Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise? ...

    Correct

    • To which structure does the mesonephric duct give rise?

      Your Answer: Seminal vesicles

      Explanation:

      The mesonephric duct is one of the paired embryogenic tubules that drain the primitive kidney (mesonephros) to the cloaca. It also gives off a lateral branch forming the ureteric bud. In both the male and the female the Wolffian duct develops into the trigone of the urinary bladder. When the ducts are exposed to testosterone during embryogenesis, male sexual differentiation occurs: the mesonephric duct develops into the rete testis, the ejaculatory ducts, the epididymis, the ductus deferens and the seminal vesicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer...

    Correct

    • During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?

      Your Answer: 8 months

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:

      Your Answer: Trabeculated portion of the right atrium

      Correct Answer: Coronary sinus

      Explanation:

      The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae)| however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An infant under investigation for persistent jaundice has a systolic murmur consistent with...

    Incorrect

    • An infant under investigation for persistent jaundice has a systolic murmur consistent with pulmonary valve disease. Ophthalmological assessment reveals a posterior embryotoxon.Which of the following skeletal abnormalities is to be considered in this child?

      Your Answer: Pectus excavatum

      Correct Answer: Butterfly vertebrae

      Explanation:

      The combination of cholestasis, congenital heart disease (mainly affecting the pulmonary vasculature) and anterior-segment abnormalities (primarily posterior embryotoxon) suggests a diagnosis of Alagille syndrome. Clinical features:The facial features are characteristic and include a prominent forehead, deep-set eyes and a pointed chin. The most common skeletal manifestation is butterfly vertebrae, a clefting abnormality of the vertebrae most often seen in the thoracic spine and described in up to 87% of cases. Radio-ulnar synostosis and short phalanges have also been described in Alagille but less frequently. Note: Pectus excavatum is a feature of Noonan syndrome, one of the differential diagnoses of pulmonary valve disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately....

    Incorrect

    • Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately. Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?

      Your Answer: Optic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?

      Your Answer: The pulmonary artery resistance increases at birth

      Correct Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium

      Explanation:

      In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints of pain in his legs when walking. Musculoskeletal and neurological examination is unremarkable. The blood pressure in his right arm is 160/90. His femoral pulses are present but were harder to feel than normal. On auscultation, you find an ejection click at the base, accompanied by an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge, but audible also at the mid-left sternal edge and back. His ECG has findings suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy, but his chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Coarctation of Aorta (CoA).Infants with CoA present within the first few weeks of life with signs suggestive of congestive cardiac failure and general circulatory shock. In these patients, the aorta is supplied by the right ventricle, via the ductus arteriosus. Pathophysiology:When the left ventricle supplies the aorta via the aortic isthmus, children are usually asymptomatic or may present with occasional complaints of leg pain. Associated cardiac anomalies are uncommon but for a bicuspid aortic valve, which is present in approximately 50% of cases. Good collateral circulation usually develops in these patients, which in the long term, causes notching of ribs. Clinical Presentation:Clinically, there may be hypertension in the upper limbs (or higher BP readings than in the lower limbs), and leg pulses are absent, or weak and delayed. A systolic click and aortic ejection systolic murmur are heard, caused by the bicuspid aortic valve. Management:The primary medical management is to treat hypertension. After stabilization, the patient can undergo definitive surgical repair. Transcatheter balloon angioplasty of the coarctation is controversial, but ballooning +/- stenting of re-coarctation following surgery is commonly performed.Systemic hypertension may occur following repair, even in the absence of re-coarctation necessitating the re-initiation/continuation of antihypertensive therapy in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?

      Your Answer: It can cause recurrent urinary tract infections

      Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit

      Explanation:

      The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals scrotal tenderness, redness, swelling, and associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni

      Explanation:

      Although all of the options may lead to an acute red scrotum, torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni is the most common cause at this age (age 12-16 years).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer: It is not a form of panniculitis

      Correct Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her parents for the confirmation of the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bubble Echocardiography

      Correct Answer: Transoesophageal Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Charcot Leyden crystals

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy with type I diabetes was reluctant to go to school. According to him, he was unhappy at the school. Which of the following is the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Clinical psychologist

      Explanation:

      The child’s problem should be assessed properly to find the reason for unhappiness at the school. There can be many reasons such as bullying at school, abuse etc. A clinical psychologist should assess this child to take the necessary details and plan the further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician...

    Correct

    • A mother and her 2 year old girl is referred to a paediatrician on account of concerns over a possible squint. On examination the doctor uses a pen torch to assess the symmetry of the light reflex on each cornea. The following test was used to assess the child:

      Your Answer: Hirschberg test

      Explanation:

      In the Hirschberg test, the corneal reflex should fall in the same place in both eyes. If there is a malalignment then the reflection of the light will appear in different places in the two eyes. The cover test is then used to differentiate between a latent deviation, or a manifest deviation.In the Bruckner test, the direct ophthalmoscope is used to obtain a red reflex simultaneously in both eyes. If strabismus is present, the deviated eye will have a lighter and brighter reflex than the fixating eye.The swinging flashlight test is a test of the pupils response to light, and to check for a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD).The Angle Kappa test measures the angle between the line of sight and the corneal-pupillary axis. It is a monocular measurement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 10 years of age

      Correct Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-functional pituitary tumour

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Episcleritis

      Correct Answer: Iritis

      Explanation:

      The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old African girl undergoes an open appendicectomy. While being reviewed for an unrelated problem ten months later, the wound site was found to be covered by a shiny dark protuberant scar tissue that projects beyond the margins of the skin incision. Which of the following best describes this skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Marjolins ulcer

      Correct Answer: Keloid scar

      Explanation:

      The skin lesion described is the typical presentation of a keloid scar.Keloid scars extend beyond the limits of the incision.Note:Surgical wounds are either incisional or excisional and either clean, clean-contaminated or dirty. The main stages of wound healing include:- Haemostasis:It occurs minutes to hours following injury. It is characterised by the vasospasm in adjacent vessels, platelet plug formation and generation of fibrin rich clot.- Inflammation: It occurs typically 1-5 days after the injury. Neutrophils migrate into the wound (this is often impaired in diabetes). Growth factors, including basic fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor, are released in this phase. Fibroblasts replicate within the adjacent matrix and migrate into wound, while macrophages and fibroblasts couple matrix regeneration and clot substitution.- Regeneration: It occurs typically between 7-56 days after the injury. The factors that stimulate this phase are platelet-derived growth factor and transforming growth factor. They stimulate fibroblasts and epithelial cells. Fibroblasts produce a collagen network. Furthermore, they cause angiogenesis and thus wound healing.- Remodelling: This is considered the longest phase of the healing process and may last up to one year (or longer). During this phase, fibroblasts become differentiated (myofibroblasts), and these facilitate wound contraction. Collagen fibres are remodelled, and microvessels regress, leaving a pale scar.Clinical correlation:Abnormal scar formation:- Hypertrophic scars:It is the condition where excessive amounts of collagen are produced within a scar. Nodules may be present histologically containing randomly arranged fibrils within and parallel fibres on the surface. The tissue itself is confined to the extent of the wound itself and is usually the result of a full-thickness dermal injury. They may go on to develop contractures.- Keloid scars: This is also a condition where excessive amounts of collagen occur within a scar. A keloid scar will typically pass beyond the boundaries of the original injury. They do not contain nodules and may occur following even trivial injury. They do not regress over time and may recur following removal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A neonate has bilateral cleft palate, clenched hands with overlapping fingers, ventricular septal...

    Correct

    • A neonate has bilateral cleft palate, clenched hands with overlapping fingers, ventricular septal defect, and rocker bottom feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 18

      Explanation:

      The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer: Behavioural changes

      Correct Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl arrives at the hospital complaining of resting tremors in both arms. Ataxia and dysarthria are also observed along with occasional involuntary grimacing of the face. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Functional illness

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Down’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed. Over the next few days, he complains of double vision on walking downstairs and reading. On testing ocular convergence, the left eye faces downward and medially, but the right side does not.Which of the following injured nerves is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor

      Correct Answer: Trochlear

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable nerve injured in this patient would be the trochlear nerve. The trochlear nerve has a relatively long intracranial course, and this makes it vulnerable to injury in head trauma. Head trauma is the most frequent cause of acute fourth nerve palsy. A 4th nerve palsy is the most common cause of vertical diplopia. The diplopia is at its worst when the eye looks medially which it usually does as part of the accommodation reflex when walking downstairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he turned vegan a year ago. He explains that he takes vitamin B12 supplements every day. Considering iron deficiency anaemia as a possible cause, you order some blood tests to confirm. Which of the following would increase the ability of the body to absorb dietary iron?

      Your Answer: Consuming iron from vegetables in its non-haem form

      Correct Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form

      Explanation:

      Consuming iron in its Fe2+ (ferrous form) form can improve the ability to absorb dietary iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia (IDA). Clinical features of IDA include:- Koilonychia- Atrophic glossitis- Post-cricoid webs- Angular stomatitisThe peripheral blood smear shows the following abnormal RBC morphologies:- Target cells- Pencil poikilocytes- Microcytic-hypochromic cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at...

    Incorrect

    • A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?

      Your Answer: Admit for 3 days and discharge home

      Correct Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest

      Explanation:

      The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic....

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy is admitted to the ward with renal colic. Family history is significant for similar renal calculi in his mother. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this recurrent colic in both mother and child?

      Your Answer: Hyperoxaluria

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic hypercalciuria

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria (IH) is the commonest metabolic abnormality in patients with calcium kidney stones. It is characterized by normocalcemia, absence of diseases that cause increased urine calcium, and calcium excretion that is above 250 mg/day in women and 300 mg/day in men. Subjects with IH have a generalized increase in calcium turnover, which includes increased gut calcium absorption, decreased renal calcium reabsorption, and a tendency to lose calcium from bone. Despite the increase in intestinal calcium absorption, negative calcium balance is commonly seen in balance studies, especially on a low calcium diet. The mediator of decreased renal calcium reabsorption is not clear| it is not associated with either an increase in filtered load of calcium or altered PTH levels. There is an increased incidence of hypercalciuria in first-degree relatives of those with IH, but IH appears to be a complex polygenic trait with a large contribution from diet to expression of increased calcium excretion. Increased tissue vitamin D response may be responsible for the manifestations of IH in at least some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother. She has noticed that the boy has become tired quicker than normal for the past two months. She also noticed a reduction in the boy's appetite. He no longer enjoys football and often complains of aches and pains. He has a faint rash on his arms and has to 'climb up' his legs to get up from a supine position.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation and way the boy ‘climbs up’ his legs to get up from a supine position (Gowers’ sign) suggests proximal muscle weakness secondary to dermatomyositis.Dermatomyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that typically presents between the ages of five years and ten years. The onset is insidious, and the proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase might be mistaken for muscular dystrophy. However, the systemic illness and rash are characteristic features of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%. The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      122
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment: ...

    Incorrect

    • In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment:

      Your Answer: Localised pustular psoriasis is a side effect of vitamin D analogues

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid associated side effects include striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising

      Explanation:

      Topical treatments are useful in the treatment of mild Psoriasis, or as adjuvant therapy in ultraviolet and systematic treatments. These treatments include moisturisers, dithranol, coal tar, salicylic acid, topical immunomodulators such as calcineurin, topical retinoids, Vitamin D analogues and topical steroids. Topical steroids are known to have a number of side effects such as striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising. Localised pustular psoriasis is also associated with topical steroids in higher doses. Use of more than 500 g of hydrocortisone or 50 g clobetasol propionate have been shown to suppress adrenal function. Calcitriol, a vitamin D analogue, is only available as an ointment and does not stain clothes and skin the way dithranol and coal tar are known to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral orchitis

      Correct Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatidThe appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion| a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Bell's palsy in childhood?

      Your Answer: Prognosis is often poor

      Correct Answer: Commonly preceded by a viral infection

      Explanation:

      While the cause for Bell’s palsy is still under debate, it is observed that Bell’s palsy is often preceded by a viral infection. Bell’s Palsy:Bell’s palsy (idiopathic facial palsy) is an acute unilateral lower motor neurone palsy. It typically occurs two weeks after viral infection such as Epstein–Barr, herpes simplex, herpes zoster or mumps. A careful assessment may suggest an alternative aetiology for the acute onset of weakness, e.g. acute otitis media, Lyme disease, hypertension. Causes:In childhood, Bell’s palsy is probably a post-infectious (i.e. immune-mediated) phenomenon, while in adults, there is increasing evidence that the majority of cases follow reactivation of previous HSV infection. Management:The prognosis is generally good in childhood with full recovery in the majority. However, permanent weakness is observed in around 5%. Steroids and acyclovir may have some benefit in adults with recent onset of weakness, but the evidence of the treatment benefit is much less convincing in childhood. Exposure keratitis is an important complication and children should be managed with eye drops and taping of the eyelid at night until recovery is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      130.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?

      Your Answer: Lab sticks testing for glucose

      Correct Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay

      Explanation:

      Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assayBeta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 15-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency by his parents due...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency by his parents due to vomiting and weight loss. Physical examination reveals a central palpable mass in the abdomen. Ultrasound examination shows a pylorus 8mm long and a target sign centrally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric Stenosis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction. Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. Most describe the symptoms of intussusception as a triad of colicky abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, and currant jelly stool. The primary symptom of intussusception is described as intermittent crampy abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year old child is brought to the ER with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting. Radiological examination shows distended bowel loops and gas in the rectum. Her mother reveals that the baby had surgery at the two days of age for a twisted intestine. Blood gas analysis from a sample drawn from a capillary shows a pH of 7.34 and lactate of 2. Which of the following is the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Nasogastric decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics and immediate surgery for suspected intra-abdominal adhesions

      Correct Answer: Naso-gastric decompression, intra venous fluids and admit. The majority of adhesional obstruction resolves without need for surgery

      Explanation:

      Adhesion formation might be reduced by minimally invasive surgical techniques and the use of adhesion barriers. Non-operative treatment is effective in most patients with ASBO. Contraindications for non-operative treatment include peritonitis, strangulation, and ischemia. When the adhesive aetiology of obstruction is unsure, or when contraindications for non-operative management might be present, CT is the diagnostic technique of choice. The principles of non-operative treatment are nil per os, naso-gastric, or long-tube decompression, and intravenous supplementation with fluids and electrolytes. When operative treatment is required, a laparoscopic approach may be beneficial for selected cases of simple ASBO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the mortality proportion attributed to accidents in this age group?

      Your Answer: 20-30%

      Correct Answer: 40-50%

      Explanation:

      Deaths by age group: 60% <1 year - due mainly to congenital, neonatal, and infection related problems.10% 1-4 years - due to accident (15%), cancer (15%), or congenital problems (14%)18% 15-19 years - accidental (42%) accidents reflect increased risk taking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      137.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and vomiting. Examination reveals a rigid abdomen and drawing of knees upon palpation. Which is the most appropriate action you should take for this baby?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x ray

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is the most suggested case here based on the child’s symptoms. The urgent course of treatment is to bring the child to a paediatric surgical unit. If air reduction attempts fail, surgery will have to be done. Risk factors for intussusception include viral infection and intestinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be able to do, considering normal development?

      Your Answer: Push up onto hands

      Correct Answer: Smile

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, an 8-week-old full-term infant with normal developmental milestones will smile in response to appropriate stimuli.Rationale:Smiles in response to appropriate stimuli are seen from around 6 weeks of age. A social smile, where the infant has an awareness that a smile attracts attention, is not observed until around 3 months of age.Other options:- At 6 weeks an infant is able to follow objects in the horizontal plane through 90 deg| fixing and following an object through 180 deg in the horizontal plane is a milestone achieved at 3 months, as is pushing up onto forearms. – Pushing up onto hands occurs by around 5 months.- Infants of 3 months should startle to a 60 dB sound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?

      Your Answer: Gluten-free products (e.g. breads, pasta, biscuits and crackers) are as nutritious in terms of their micronutrient contents as those containing gluten

      Correct Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival rates associated with this condition. Which of the following statistical methods is employed to predict the survival rates?

      Your Answer: Student t-test

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Kaplan–Meier estimator, also known as the product limit estimator, is a non-parametric statistic used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is often used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus A

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions?

      Your Answer: Posterior fossa tumour

      Correct Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Hydrocephalus is a serious medical condition resulting from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain leading to abnormal pressure build-up inside the brain. Hydrocephalus can be categorized into two types according to the flow of CSF between the ventricles. When the CSF flows freely between the ventricles, but is blocked after it exits the ventricular system, the hydrocephalus is said to be a communicating hydrocephalus. When the flow of CSF within the ventricles is blocked, the resulting hydrocephalus is termed as obstructive, or non-communicating. The communicating hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient reabsorption of CSF in the subarachnoid space, which is also observed in cases of bacterial meningitis, in which inflammatory process leads to the thickening of the leptomeninges and thereby reduces CSF reabsorption. Arnold Chiari malformation is associated with obstructive hydrocephalus due to blocked ventricles. Congenital aqueduct stenosis causes the blockage of third and lateral ventricles. Congenital atresia of the foramen of Monro leads to blocked lateral ventricles and thus results in obstructive hydrocephalus. Tumour of the posterior fossa is associated with blockage of the fourth ventricle outflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis except?

      Your Answer: Aminoglycosides

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisone is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis if there is no initial response to the anticholinesterase medications. Pyridostigmine can make the symptoms of myasthenia gravis worse if used  in the initial stages of treatment. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following:Na+ 142 mmol/lK+ 4.8 mmol/lBicarbonate 22 mmol/lUrea 10.1 mmol/lCreatinine 176 µmol/lHb 10.4 g/dlMCV 90 flPlt 91 * 109/lWBC 14.4 * 109/lGiven the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Salmonella

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a...

    Correct

    • A two-sample t-test comparing weight loss after two different diet regimes yield a P-value of 0.001.Which one of the following statements can be deducted from this finding?

      Your Answer: The difference would have occurred by chance for a study of this size only once in 1000 times if the two regimes did not differ in their effect

      Explanation:

      The P value is defined as the probability under the assumption of no effect or no difference (null hypothesis), of obtaining a result equal to or more extreme than what was actually observed. The P stands for probability and measures how likely it is that any observed difference between groups is due to chance. Being a probability, P can take any value between 0 and 1. Values close to 0 indicate that the observed difference is unlikely to be due to chance, whereas a P value close to 1 suggests no difference between the groups other than due to chance. Thus, it is common in medical journals to see adjectives such as “highly significant” or “very significant” after quoting the P value depending on how close to zero the value is.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?

      Your Answer: 1 minor criteria and confirmation of abscess on ECHO

      Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Causes fallopian tube dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation| they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion| it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional disorder

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy was conservatively managed for an appendicular mass. The parents enquire whether to have an interval appendicectomy to prevent the chances of having appendicitis again. What percentage of patients with conservatively managed appendix mass are likely to develop recurrent appendicitis?

      Your Answer: 20-40%

      Correct Answer: 0-20%

      Explanation:

      The chance of having appendicitis again after appendix mass is around 17% in children. While the traditional teachings by Hamilton Bailey recommend following the conservative Ochsner-Sherren regimen followed by an interval appendicectomy six weeks after the discharge of the patient, there remains a looming controversy whether to perform an interval appendicectomy or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orbital bone fracture

      Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal...

    Incorrect

    • A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?

      Your Answer: All the laryngeal muscles on the affected side are paralysed

      Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with...

    Correct

    • A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?

      Your Answer: Cataract

      Correct Answer: Kayser–Fleischer rings

      Explanation:

      A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.'...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilbert’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hypercalcemia occurs in association with which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcemia refers to increased serum calcium levels and is characterized by a number of significant constellations, including polyuria, muscle weakness, abdominal pain, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias. The causes of hypercalcemia can be classified as PTH-dependant causes and PTH-independent causes. The causes can be both congenital and acquired. The most common cause of PTH-dependent hypercalcemia is the primary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism, resulting from parathyroid gland tumours. Hyperparathyroidism is also associated with chronic renal failure. PTH-independent hypercalcemia is caused by William’s syndrome, hypervitaminosis (vitamin A and D intoxication), endocrinopathies (hyperthyroidism), various drugs (thiazide diuretics), and some inborn errors of metabolism. One of the congenital causes of PTH-independent hypercalcemia is idiopathic infantile hypercalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following conditions does not manifest as an autosomal-recessive inheritance? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions does not manifest as an autosomal-recessive inheritance?

      Your Answer: Edward syndrome

      Explanation:

      Most cases of Trisomy 18, also called Edwards syndrome, are not inherited but occur as random events during the formation of eggs and sperm. An error in cell division called nondisjunction results in a reproductive cell with an abnormal number of chromosomes. For example, an egg or sperm cell may gain an extra copy of chromosome 18. If one of these atypical reproductive cells contributes to the genetic makeup of a child, the child will have an extra chromosome 18 in each of the body’s cells.Mosaic trisomy 18 is also not inherited. It occurs as a random event during cell division early in embryonic development. As a result, some of the body’s cells have the usual two copies of chromosome 18, and other cells have three copies of this chromosome.Partial trisomy 18 can be inherited. An unaffected person can carry a rearrangement of genetic material between chromosome 18 and another chromosome. This rearrangement is called a balanced translocation because there is no extra material from chromosome 18. Although they do not have signs of trisomy 18, people who carry this type of balanced translocation are at an increased risk of having children with the condition.Canavan disease is a type of leukodystrophy and a degenerative disorder that causes progressive damage to nerve cells in the brain. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.Cystic Fibrosis is the most common lethal recessive disease of white people, with a carrier frequency of 1:25 and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.Galactosaemic is autosomal recessive and due to mutations in the GALT gene.Phenylketonuria is the most common inborn error of metabolism in the UK with an incidence of 1:10,000 and a carrier rate of 1:50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A young child with cystic fibrosis also suffers from malabsorption. Which of the following represent a possible state and consequence for such a child?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness

      Explanation:

      Malabsorption of fat-soluble vitamins is likely in most people with Cystic Fibrosis (CF).Factors that may contribute to fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies in CF include:- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption as a consequence of pancreatic insufficiency and bile salt deficiency.- Fat maldigestion and malabsorption due to suboptimal PERT or poor adherence to PERT especially with vitamin replacement therapy.- Poor dietary intake due to anorexia or poor dietary sources of vitamins.- Poor adherence to prescribed fat-soluble vitamin supplementation.- Inappropriate vitamin supplementation regimens.- Increased utilisation and reduced bioavailability.- Short gut syndrome due to previous bowel resection.- CF-related liver disease.- Chronic antibiotic use.Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that plays a role in the eye (dark adaptation), skin, respiratory and immune systems. Vitamin A deficiency may cause night blindness and can proceed to xerophthalmia in CF.Severe vitamin D deficiency causes rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant reducing the effects of free radicals produced by infection and chronic inflammation, thus helping to protect cell membranes from oxidative damage.Vitamin E deficiency has been associated with haemolytic anaemia in infants and may cause ataxia, neuromuscular degeneration and compromised cognitive function. Oxidative stress is enhanced in CF due to chronic respiratory inflammation.Vitamin K is important for blood coagulation and bone health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and...

    Correct

    • A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother. The family...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother. The family moved to the UK three months ago from The Congo. The baby’s mother explains that she is HIV positive and took combination antiretrovirals throughout her pregnancy. She was unable to attend follow-up for her baby as the family was displaced. The baby was breastfed until the age of six months and is thriving. A physical examination revealed no significant findings.What would be the most appropriate action concerning the baby’s HIV exposure?

      Your Answer: Perform HIV PCR and CD4 count and commence cART if CD4 <1000 cells/µl

      Correct Answer: Perform HIV PCR and commence cART and PCP prophylaxis if HIV positive

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate action in this baby would be to perform HIV PCR and commence cART and PCP prophylaxis if HIV positive.Treatment guidelines for HIV-positive infants state that all should receive combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) and Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP) prophylaxis, irrespective of CD4 count or viral load.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Joint instability

      Correct Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:

      Your Answer: Are complex

      Correct Answer: Should be performed before the study commences

      Explanation:

      Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty....

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a concern that he had not attained puberty. He lacks secondary sexual characteristics and has altered smell and reduced testicular size. Which of the following hormone profiles with regard to FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinizing hormone) and testosterone would fit a diagnosis of Kallman syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reduced testosterone, reduced FSH and reduced LH

      Explanation:

      While the clinical scenario and the anosmic presentation of the child are highly suggestive of Kallmann’s syndrome, reduced testosterone, FSH and LH levels can confirm the diagnosis.Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.Clinical features of Kallmann’s syndrome include:- Delayed puberty- Hypogonadism, cryptorchidism- Anosmia- Low sex hormone levels – Inappropriately low/normal LH and FSH levels- Some patients can present with associated cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following causes macrocephaly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes macrocephaly?

      Your Answer: Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding box plots?

      Your Answer: Variability is represented with feathers

      Correct Answer: Show distributionally outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliers

      Explanation:

      Box plots can be used to display numerical outcomes and give valid summaries (median and interquartile range or IQR) for any distributional form that the outcomes might take. Additionally, they show outlying values and provide data summaries that are not unduly influenced by those outliersOther options:- The box itself represents the interquartile range, with the two whiskers representing the variability outside the upper and lower quartiles.- Variability is represented with whiskers and feathers are used in fan charts.They are not as informative as showing the actual values but can be used to make comparisons of medians and IQRs between subgroups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following cell types makes a significant contribution to the blood...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cell types makes a significant contribution to the blood brain barrier?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocyte

      Correct Answer: Astrocyte

      Explanation:

      The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is a term used to describe the unique properties of the microvasculature of the central nervous system (CNS). CNS vessels are continuous nonfenestrated vessels, but also contain a series of additional properties that allow them to tightly regulate the movement of molecules, ions, and cells between the blood and the CNS.Blood vessels are made up of two main cell types: Endothelial Cells (ECs) that form the walls of the blood vessels, and mural cells that sit on the abluminal surface of the EC layer. The properties of the BBB are largely manifested within the ECs, but are induced and maintained by critical interactions with mural cells, immune cells, glial cells, and neural cells, which interact in the neurovascular unit.Astrocytes are a major glial cell type, which extends polarized cellular processes that ensheath either neuronal processes or blood vessels.This includes regulating the contraction/dilation of vascular smooth muscle cells surrounding arterioles as well as PCs surrounding capillaries. Astrocytes have been identified as important mediators of BBB formation and function because of the ability of purified astrocytes to induce barrier properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back. What diagnosis should he be given?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The clinical signs of infection are fever and a maculopapular rash – this is a unique rash with both flat and raised lesions on the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy presents with a sharp pain on the left side of his lower back. His parents both have a similar history of the condition. His urine tests positive for blood. A radio dense stone is seen in the region of the mid ureter when a KUB style x-ray is done. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the stone?

      Your Answer: Cystine stone

      Explanation:

      Answer: Cystine stoneCystinuria is a genetic cause of kidney stones with an average prevalence of 1 in 7000 births. Cystine stones are found in 1 to 2 percent of stone formers, although they represent a higher percentage of stones in children (approximately 5 percent). Cystinuria is an inherited disorder. Inherited means it is passed down from parents to children through a defect in a specific gene. In order to have cystinuria, a person must inherit the gene from both parents. Cystine is a homodimer of the amino acid cysteine. Patients with cystinuria have impairment of renal cystine transport, with decreased proximal tubular reabsorption of filtered cystine resulting in increased urinary cystine excretion and cystine nephrolithiasis. The cystine transporter also promotes the reabsorption of dibasic amino acids, including ornithine, arginine, and lysine, but these compounds are soluble so that an increase in their urinary excretion does not lead to stones. Intestinal cystine transport is also diminished, but the result is of uncertain clinical significance.Cystinuria only causes symptoms if you have a stone. Kidney stones can be as small as a grain of sand. Others can become as large as a pebble or even a golf ball. Symptoms may include:Pain while urinatingBlood in the urineSharp pain in the side or the back (almost always on one side)Pain near the groin, pelvis, or abdomenNausea and vomitingStruvite stones are a type of hard mineral deposit that can form in your kidneys. Stones form when minerals like calcium and phosphate crystallize inside your kidneys and stick together. Struvite is a mineral that’s produced by bacteria in your urinary tract. Bacteria in your urinary tract produce struvite when they break down the waste product urea into ammonia. For struvite to be produced, your urine needs to be alkaline. Having a urinary tract infection can make your urine alkaline. Struvite stones often form in women who have a urinary tract infection.Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of kidney stone. Kidney stones are solid masses that form in the kidney when there are high levels of calcium, oxalate, cystine, or phosphate and too little liquid. There are different types of kidney stones. Your healthcare provider can test your stones to find what type you have. Calcium oxalate stones are caused by too much oxalate in the urine.What is oxalate and how does it form stones?Oxalate is a natural substance found in many foods. Your body uses food for energy. After your body uses what it needs, waste products travel through the bloodstream to the kidneys and are removed through urine. Urine has various wastes in it. If there is too much waste in too little liquid, crystals can begin to form. These crystals may stick together and form a solid mass (a kidney stone). Oxalate is one type of substance that can form crystals in the urine. This can happen if there is too much oxalate, too little liquid, and the oxalate “sticks” to calcium while urine is being made by the kidneys.Uric acid stones are the most common cause of radiolucent kidney stones in children. Several products of purine metabolism are relatively insoluble and can precipitate when urinary pH is low. These include 2- or 8-dihydroxyadenine, adenine, xanthine, and uric acid. The crystals of uric acid may initiate calcium oxalate precipitation in metastable urine concentrates.Uric acid stones form when the levels of uric acid in the urine is too high, and/or the urine is too acidic (pH level below 5.5) on a regular basis. High acidity in urine is linked to the following causes:Uric acid can result from a diet high in purines, which are found especially in animal proteins such as beef, poultry, pork, eggs, and fish. The highest levels of purines are found in organ meats, such as liver and fish. Eating large amounts of animal proteins can cause uric acid to build up in the urine. The uric acid can settle and form a stone by itself or in combination with calcium. It is important to note that a person’s diet alone is not the cause of uric acid stones. Other people might eat the same diet and not have any problems because they are not prone to developing uric acid stones.There is an increased risk of uric acid stones in those who are obese or diabetic.Patients on chemotherapy are prone to developing uric acid stones.Only cystine stone is inherited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl returns from holiday in Greece, complaining of ear discharge and tragal tenderness. The exam shows a normal tympanic membrane and ear cleaning was done. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic drop with steroid

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs described are suggestive of otitis externa. The key treatment for otitis externa is ear cleaning and antibiotic drops with steroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - What is the primary reason for a written protocol? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary reason for a written protocol?

      Your Answer: Detail the analyses to be undertaken

      Correct Answer: Document the process of the trial in advance

      Explanation:

      A written protocol is important in clinical research as it helps to decrease bias with early findings as the process of the trial has been documented in advance. To show that the study has been properly undertaken before commencing, the investigators must document their names| they must describe the process, detail the analysis that will be undertaken, and provide a power calculation. The ethics committee does not always need to see the protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing's ulcers

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers

      Explanation:

      Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year girl presents to the A&E department with a full thickness burn to her right arm, which she got when a firework that she was playing with exploded. Which statement is not characteristic of the situation?

      Your Answer: They always heal with scarring

      Correct Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin grafted

      Explanation:

      Answer: The burn area is extremely painful until skin graftedThird-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis. Third-degree burns may also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. The burn site appears white or charred. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. These are not normally painful until after skin grafting is done since the nerve endings have been destroyed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a...

    Incorrect

    • What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a 4-year-old boy suffering from febrile convulsions?

      Your Answer: Bronchospasm

      Correct Answer: Apnoea

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is known to cause respiratory depression and finally apnoea as a side effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2℃ and acute abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholecystitis

      Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones. Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia. Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction. The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      249.7
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?

      Your Answer: Urethral valves

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Luteinising Hormone

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presented to the hospital with sudden onset of a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure stopped spontaneously after 5 minutes. There was no preceding aura. His parents recall that he had a fever for the past three days that resolved after taking paracetamol. On examination, he was found to be febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C, and throat examination revealed bilateral exudative tonsillitis. He has previously been treated for febrile seizures, once at the age of 16 months, subsequently at three years of age, and again at 5 years. Detailed family history revealed that his mother also suffered from repeated febrile seizures when she was young. His growth and development are up to age, and he is an above-average student at school. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Febrile seizure plus

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient would be febrile seizure plus syndrome.Rationale:All of the answers are possible epileptic conditions that this 8-year-old may have. However, the background history of febrile seizure together with a family history of febrile seizures, in a boy who is growing well, with no developmental delay, make febrile seizures plus the most appropriate differential diagnosis for this patient.Other options:- Epilepsy with myoclonic absences are often challenging to treat and may continue into adulthood. There is a male predominance (70%). At presentation, approximately half of cases have a learning disability. An absence seizure is common in this diagnosis and usually occurs daily.- Juvenile absence epilepsy may present with initial generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy followed by absences after that. They are also seen with a background of febrile seizure, and the peak age of presentation is usually at eight years old. Given the current history and lack of absences, this diagnosis is least likely.- Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy usually presents with a myoclonic seizure, although the presentation maybe with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. It occurs more frequently. Background history of febrile fit may be present in 5-10% of the cases.- Temporal lobe epilepsy is usually associated with aura, and that is not seen in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 5 year old boy falls into the swimming pool whilst playing and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy falls into the swimming pool whilst playing and almost drowns. His parents start BLS and transfer him to the emergency department. You attach him to the cardiac monitoring and you notice ventricular fibrillation. You immediately start on CRP algorithm for shockable rhythms. Which of the following may result in a poor defibrillation response?

      Your Answer: Aspiration

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Guidelines suggest that when hypothermia manifests in the context of a shockable rhythm, it might get harder to defibrillate. Therefore, defibrillation is recommended to occur at temperatures below 30°C, and to be limited in three shocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose...

    Incorrect

    • The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose pre-test odds were 2 tests positiveThe following is most accurate:

      Your Answer: The negative likelihood ratio for the test must be known to interpret the results in this patient.

      Correct Answer: Their prior odds of having the disease are now 6

      Explanation:

      Before the test, the patient was likely to have the disease being tested for. Their pre test odds were 2, making them twice as likely to have the disease. After testing positive, their pretest odds of 2 and the likelihood ratio of 3 are multiplied to produce 6 as the post test odds. The patient is now 6 times as likely to have the disease after the test. Likelihood ratios above 10 or below 0.1 are strong evidence to rule in and rule out a diagnosis. The negative likelihood ratio is not known here, but does not subtract from the interpretation of the outcomes in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their son might have delayed puberty. On examination, he has very little pubic hair and the testicular volume is 3ml. Bilateral gynaecomastia is also observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most overt phenotypic features of Klinefelter syndrome are caused by testosterone deficiency and, directly or indirectly, by unsuppressed follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones. Affected men typically have (in decreasing order of frequency): infertility, small testes, decreased facial hair, gynecomastia, decreased pubic hair, and a small penis. Because of their long legs, men with Klinefelter syndrome often are taller than predicted based on parental height. Body habitus may be feminized. In childhood, when there is a relative quiescence in the hormonal milieu, ascertainment of the syndrome may be difficult because the effects of hypogonadism (i.e., small external genitalia and firm testes) may be subtle or not present at all.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or...

    Incorrect

    • The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?

      Your Answer: 10 weeks

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Crawling

      Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth

      Explanation:

      6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year old girl presented with a 2cm, mobile, cystic mass in the midline of her neck. Fine needle aspiration of the mass revealed clear fluid. This is most likely a case of:

      Your Answer: Lymph node metastasis of follicular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal duct cyst

      Explanation:

      Thyroglossal cyst is the most common congenital thyroid anomaly which is clinically significant and affects women more than men. It is a vestigial remnant of developing thyroid. Although the thyroglossal cyst can develop anywhere along the thyroglossal duct, the most common site is in the midline between the isthmus of thyroid and hyoid bone, or just above the hyoid. Thyroglossal cysts are also associated with ectopic thyroid tissue. Clinically, the cyst moves upward with protrusion of the tongue. Rarely, the persistent duct can become malignant (thyroglossal duct carcinoma) where the cancerous cells arise in the ectopic thyroid tissue that are deposited along the duct. Exposure to radiation is a predisposing factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass...

    Incorrect

    • Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?

      Your Answer: Ecological

      Correct Answer: Cohort

      Explanation:

      The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: PCP

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team. He was brought to the hospital with symptoms of psychosis. He now complains of abdominal pain with abdominal examination revealing hepatomegaly. Which of the following investigations will most likely confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum ferritin

      Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is Wilson’s disease. Elevated serum ceruloplasmin levels can confirm the diagnosis.Serum ceruloplasminWilson’s disease causes reduced binding of copper to ceruloplasmin, which is the body’s primary copper carrying protein. As a result, copper cannot be excreted into the bile. Copper, therefore, builds up in the liver, causing toxicity and is secreted into the bloodstream unbound to ceruloplasmin. This free copper is deposited around the body, especially the brain, eyes and kidneys. The genetic defect means that ceruloplasmin is not released into the bloodstream| therefore, ceruloplasmin is low in Wilson’s disease.Other options:- Microscopic evaluation of the hair is performed in Menke’s disease, which is a disease of copper absorption leading to copper deficiency. This causes kinky hair, failure to thrive and neurological symptoms (such as hypotonia).- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain: An MRI brain may show features of Wilson’s disease (especially in the basal ganglia), but it is not diagnostic.- Serum ferritin: Serum ferritin becomes high in haemochromatosis. This classically causes cirrhosis, bronzing of the skin, cardiomyopathy and diabetes.- Ultrasound scan of the abdomen: While it is useful in any case of hepatomegaly| it is not going to provide the diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an abdominal X-ray at 1 day of age showing a ‘double-bubble’ appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malrotation volvulus

      Correct Answer: Duodenal Atresia

      Explanation:

      Congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).Presenting symptoms and signs are the results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.Once delivered, an infant with duodenal atresia typically has a scaphoid abdomen. One may occasionally note epigastric fullness from dilation of the stomach and proximal duodenum. Passing meconium within the first 24 hours of life is not usually altered. Dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance soon follow unless fluid and electrolyte losses are adequately replaced. If intravenous (IV) hydration is not begun, a hypokalaemic/hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria develops, as with other high GI obstruction. An orogastric (OG) tube in an infant with suspected duodenal obstruction typically yields a significant amount of bile-stained fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After...

    Incorrect

    • A male had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his left calf. After investigation, it was discovered that this was caused by a genetic disease and his children may be affected.What is the most common heritable cause of DVT?

      Your Answer: Protein S deficiency

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden

      Explanation:

      Based on the studies, genetic factors are responsible for approximately 60 % DVT cases. Factor V (FV) Leiden which is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia, predisposes patients to DVT because of resistance to protein C.The heritable causes of deep vein thrombosis, from most to least common are:Factor V LeidenProthrombin G20210A variantProtein C deficiencyProtein S deficiencyAntithrombin deficiencyVon Willebrand disease and thalassaemia are not causes of DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs...

    Incorrect

    • You have been called to see a 5 hour old infant exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. The baby was born premature, and the mothers membranes had ruptured more than 24 hours before delivery. You are concerned that the infant is at risk of sepsis.The following statement best describes sepsis:

      Your Answer: Disseminated meningococcal disease

      Correct Answer: Dysregulated inflammatory response to infection

      Explanation:

      Sepsis can be described as a condition in which there is a dysregulated inflammatory response to an infection. In the case of neonates, sepsis can be life threatening and may present with respiratory distress more than 4 hours after birth, shock, seizures, and multi organ failure. Risk factors that further point to sepsis include prolonged rupture of maternal membranes for more than 24 hours before birth, a history of a maternal fever during labour, or parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the mother for a suspected or confirmed bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      154.3
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?

      Your Answer: Galactosaemia

      Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer: Boost II

      Correct Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations – from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement? ...

    Incorrect

    • Anorexia nervosa leads to which of the following blood chemistry derangement?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Low serum creatinine

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is associated with a decrease in muscle mass, which is one of the primary locations of creatinine metabolism. Due to this, plasma creatinine levels are found to be decreased in patients with anorexia. Other blood chemistry derangements in patients of anorexia nervosa include hypercortisolism, hypoglycaemia, low free T3 levels, and hypercholesterolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby is noted to have low-set ears, rocker-bottom feet and overlapping of her fingers.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patau syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The trisomy 18 syndrome, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a common chromosomal disorder due to the presence of an extra chromosome 18, either full, mosaic trisomy, or partial trisomy 18q. The condition is the second most common autosomal trisomy syndrome after trisomy 21.Currently, most cases of trisomy 18 are prenatally diagnosed, based on screening by maternal age, maternal serum marker screening, or detection of sonographic abnormalities (e.g., increased nuchal translucency thickness, growth retardation, choroid plexus cyst, overlapping of fingers, and congenital heart defects ).The main clinical features represent the clues for the diagnosis in the perinatal period and include prenatal growth deficiency, characteristic craniofacial features (dolichocephaly, short palpebral fissures, micrognathia external anomalies of the ears, and redundant skin at the back of the neck), distinctive hand posture (overriding fingers: index finger overlapping the third and 5th finger overlapping the 4th), nail hypoplasia, short hallux, underdeveloped thumbs, short sternum, and club feet and major malformations (particularly involving the heart).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Overactive bladder

      Correct Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which...

    Incorrect

    • A young male sustains a skull-base fracture at the middle cranial fossa which injures his right abducent (VI) nerve.Which signs are most likely to be present on clinical examination?

      Your Answer: There is ptosis on the right side

      Correct Answer: The patient is unable to deviate his right eye laterally

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve VI, also known as the abducent nerve, innervates the ipsilateral lateral rectus (LR), which functions to abduct the ipsilateral eye. Patients usually present with an isolated abduction deficit, binocular horizontal diplopia, worse in the distance, and esotropia in primary gaze. Patients also may present with a head-turn to maintain binocularity and binocular fusion and to minimize diplopiaExamination for a sixth nerve palsy involves documenting the presence or absence of papilledema, examining the ocular motility, evaluating the eyelids and pupils, and excluding involvement of other cranial nerves (e.g., V, VII, VIII).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the hospital by concerned parents. The teachers of her school have brought to their attention that she struggles to see the whiteboard in class. The parents have also noticed that she has difficulty when looking at the computer.Except for being a nervous reader at times, the parents haven't noticed anything else unusual. She's otherwise healthy and plays well with her friends.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer: Squint (strabismus)

      Correct Answer: Refractive error

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the child most probably is suffering from a refractive error.Astigmatism, myopia and high hypermetropia could all cause these symptoms. This child has difficulty in using vision for finer tasks such as reading. Mild to moderate refractive error would not impair the child’s ability to play or even watch television as for the child in question. Note: Refractive error is the most common treatable cause of reduced vision in children all over the world! Other options:- A congenital cataract is rare and retinal dystrophy is even rarer. – Amblyopia would suggest poor vision in only one eye, something that might not cause symptoms in this age group. – Parents or teachers would have probably noticed squint if it was present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?

      Your Answer: Cardiac muscle is not affected by DMD| arm and leg muscle weakness is the main concern

      Correct Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition

      Explanation:

      Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother with a 24-hour history of coryza and irritability. On examination, she was found to have a temperature of 37.7 C, a harsh cough, stridor at rest, and moderate respiratory distress.Which of the following treatments is indicated in this child?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Among the treatment options provided, the most appropriate would be prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg.Other options:- Dexamethasone 0.15 mg per kg is the correct dose based on new trials and BNF guidance.- Inhaled budesonide 2mg would be a more appropriate dose.- Nebulised adrenaline may also be used.Croup:Laryngotracheobronchitis caused most commonly by parainfluenza virus. It most commonly affects children between 6 months to 3 years.Seasonal peaks: Most prevalent in autumn and spring.It starts as viral URTI then progresses to barking cough and a hoarse cry. Stridor and respiratory distress may occur. The illness can last from two days to 2 weeks.Relevant differential diagnoses include epiglottitis (the child will be septic with high temp and drooling) and inhaled foreign body.All children with moderate/severe croup should be given one dose of oral dexamethasone.Further doses may be needed if children have rebound symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal pain and an ileo-ileal intussusception is found on investigation. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a laparotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Undertake a laparotomyIntussusception, which is defined as the telescoping or invagination of a proximal portion of intestine (intussusceptum) into a more distal portion (intussuscipiens), is one of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in infants and toddlers.Intussusception may be ileoileal, colocolic, ileoileocolic, or ileocolic (the most common type).Most infants with intussusception have a history of intermittent severe cramping or colicky abdominal pain, occurring every 5-30 minutes. During these attacks, the infant screams and flexes at the waist, draws the legs up to the abdomen, and may appear pale. These episodes may last for only a few seconds and are separated by periods of calm normal appearance and activity. However, some infants become quite lethargic and somnolent between attacks.Infants with intussusception require surgical correction. Prompt laparotomy following diagnosis is crucial for achieving better outcomes. Primary anastomosis can be performed successfully, and stomas can be created in the critically ill patients or those with late detection and septicaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child who has been developing normally until the age of 18 months, is now being investigated for developmental delay. The girl started losing her acquired skills and stopped walking. During the clinical examination she is holding her hands together and twisting and turning them. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      Rett syndrome is a disorder that affects the brain and occurs most commonly in girls. It presents with a period of normal development followed by severe problems with language and communication, learning, coordination, and other brain functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl developed haemoptysis with acute kidney injury requiring dialysis. She suffered from recurrent epistaxis for the past 2 weeks. Renal biopsy showed crescentic glomerulonephritis. Which antibody would you expect to be positive?

      Your Answer: Antiproteinase 3

      Explanation:

      This patient has pulmonary renal syndrome which is most commonly due to an ANCA positive vasculitis. The history of recurrent epistaxis makes Wegener’s granulomatosis the most probable diagnosis. Wegener’s granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and idiopathic pauci-immune necrotizing crescentic glomerulonephritis (NCGN) are strongly associated with antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibodies (ANCAs) directed against either proteinase 3 (anti-PR3) or myeloperoxidase (anti-MPO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?

      Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the anatomy and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding the anatomy and embryology of the thyroid gland?

      Your Answer: Parafollicular cells secrete thyroid hormone

      Correct Answer: Between the follicular cells are C cells

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is one of the first endocrine glands to develop, and is formed from the endoderm of the epithelial tissue of the primitive pharynx. The mature gland is functionally made up of follicles with colloid which contain the pro hormone thyroglobulin. Thyroid hormone is synthesised at a cellular level and is stored as thyroglobulin, before its release as thyroid hormone, a major modulator of metabolism. In between the follicular cells are parafollicular, or C-cells which secrete parathyroid hormone or calcitonin which are responsible for calcium regulation in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic...

    Correct

    • Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?

      Your Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant...

    Incorrect

    • A woman gave birth to an infant at 39 weeks' gestation. The infant has a pulse of 110 bpm, grimaces upon nasal stimulation and has good muscle tone. Moreover, the colour of the infant is pink except for the extremities, which are blueish. What is the infants APGAR score?

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      Apgar is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process. The 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb. More specifically, five components are assessed and these are the appearance (A), the pulse (P), the grimace (G), the activity (A) and the respiration (R). A normal APGAR score is considered to be 10 points, 2 points given for each normal component. In this case, 1 point is given for the appearance due to the bluish extremities, 2 points are given for the pulse which is higher than 100 bpm, 1 point is given for the grimacing, 2 points are given for the activity due to the good muscle tone and 1 point is given for the respiration due to gasping. Total score is 7 points.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.What is the best treatment option for her?

      Your Answer: Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone

      Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation

      Explanation:

      Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that...

    Correct

    • A child is brought to the hospital by his mother, who complains that he has been running a fever and associated with a headache.Which of the following clinical features, if present, is suggestive of raised intracranial pressure?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, bradycardia is a feature of raised intracranial pressure.The features of raised intracranial pressure include relative bradycardia and hypertension, altered consciousness, focal neurology and seizures.All other options are signs of shock but not raised intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - What is the investigation of choice to look for renal scarring in a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the investigation of choice to look for renal scarring in a child with vesicoureteric reflux?

      Your Answer: Abdominal x-ray

      Correct Answer: DMSA

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral reflux is a common disorder in children but can result in kidney scarring following acute pyelonephritis. The gold standard diagnostic test to detect renal scars in children is 99mTc-dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scintigraphy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood...

    Incorrect

    • What class of antibodies do the anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to?

      Your Answer: IgD

      Correct Answer: IgM

      Explanation:

      The anti-B antibodies in a patient with blood group A belong to the IgM class of immunoglobulins.Note:IgM is the largest antibody formed of 5 antibodies attached together. This functions to agglutinate or clump antigens. The associated anti-A and anti-B antibodies are usually IgM produced in the first years of life by sensitisation to environmental substances such as food, bacteria, and viruses.Other options:- IgG is the most common antibody. It is a single antibody complex.- IgD is found on the surface of B-lymphocytes.- IgE is bound to tissue cells, especially mast cells and eosinophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby boy is taken to the doctor by his mother who is concerned that she cannot feel his testis. On examination by the doctor, his testis are not palpable either in the scrotum or the inguinal region and cannot be seen on ultrasound either. Which of the following is the most appropriate next stage in management?

      Your Answer: Re-assess at 13 years of age

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Answer: LaparoscopyThe diagnostic accuracy of laparoscopy for impalpable testis is well recognized. Approximately 20% of undescended testes are truly impalpable, and laparoscopy is actually regarded as the gold standard for their localization| none of the currently available imaging techniques (ultrasound, computerized tomography, or magnetic resonance imaging) has proven to be 100% reliable in predicting the presence or absence of a testis.In this respect, not only can laparoscopy be considered the most reliable tool to provide information on the location of the testis but also to confirm its absence.Undescended testes in boys is a very common congenital abnormality in which one or both testes does not reach the bottom of the scrotum prior to birth. The incidence of the condition is 3–5% among all boys at birth, and decreases to 0.8–1% after 6 months of age.Males with undescended testes have a lower sperm count, poorer quality sperm, and lower fertility rate, compared to males whose testicles descend normally| the rate of subfertility increases with bilateral involvement and increasing age at the time of orchidopexy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the conditions, mentioned below, result in a continuous murmur?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Correct Answer: Blalock- Taussig shunt

      Explanation:

      Blalock-Thomas-Taussig shunt is a surgical procedure done to increase pulmonary blood flow in cases like pulmonary atresia and results in a continuous murmur.The type of murmur which is heard during the systole and remains continuous till the second heart sound is known as a continuous murmur. This murmur is often intense and considered rough. It can also be accompanied by quivering. There are numerous causes of a continuous murmur that differ depending on the location and components of this murmur. It is caused by the shunting of blood from a high-pressure circulation to a low-pressure circulation. Pathological causes of a continuous murmur include patent ductus arteriosus, aortopulmonary window, AV malformation, coarctation of aorta, any acquired trauma, and iatrogenic cause like interventional or surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Venous blood haemoglobin >17g/dL

      Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Superficial peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right terminal bronchioles

      Correct Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      135.2
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Loop diuretic therapy

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a blow to the face playing rugby. He informs that he had a nosebleed which lasted for about 10-15 minutes but has now stopped completely. Presently the boy complains of difficulty breathing through his nose. On inspection, there is visible bruising to the nose, and upper lip. Further examination reveals bilateral red swellings arising from the septum. What is the best immediate step in the management of the boy's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Reassure and discharge with head injury advice

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT team

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting features, the patient has developed a septal haematoma after the trauma. Septal hematoma:In this condition, blood collects between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The patient classically presents with symptoms of nasal difficulty and pain following a nasal injury. Care should be taken not to misdiagnose a septal haematoma as a blood clot on the septum. In the case of a septal haematoma the swelling will typically be visible on both sides of the septum although this is not always the case. Referral to an ENT surgeon is indicated because, if untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection.Other options:- The nosebleed has now stopped therefore compression is no longer required. The boy has developed a septal haematoma after traumatic injury. – CT head is not indicated in this patient as the diagnosis is clearly a septal hematoma.- Management of a septal hematoma consists of drainage and antibiotics. There is no role for intranasal corticosteroids.- If untreated, there is a high risk of cartilage breakdown and complications related to infection. Thus, referral to the ENT is essential| reassurance and discharge can lead to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever. 5...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of fever. 5 days ago, she was taken to her GP with lower abdominal pain and leukocytes 3+ on urine dipstick. She was treated with trimethoprim. On examination, she is found to have a low-grade pyrexia, a CRP of 254 mg/L, and a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa. She is able to consume both solids and liquids. Based on the clinical scenario, what is the probable diagnosis and most appropriate management for this child?

      Your Answer: This is an appendix abscess and drainage via interventional radiology is advised

      Correct Answer: This is an appendix mass and intravenous antibiotics where observation is the initial treatment

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate diagnosis for this patient is appendicular mass. The initial treatment, according to the Ochsner-Sherren regimen recommended by Hamilton Bailey, would be the initiation of intravenous antibiotics.RationaleThe presentation is highly suggestive of appendicular mass. The correct management is broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics such as co-amoxiclav and amikacin plus observation. Conservative management is the preferred treatment as surgical exploration at this stage can result in increased morbidity.The child should be allowed to eat and drink. If there are on-going temperature spikes, signs of obstruction or severe colicky abdominal pain, then surgery is required. The majority of patients respond to conservative management.Other options:- This is a partially treated appendicitis which has formed an appendix mass. Rather than planning appendectomy immediately| Hamilton Bailey recommended interval appendectomy after 6 weeks post-discharge. However, the need for interval appendectomy is still under debate.- Drainage via interventional radiology is not recommended in this patient as it can lead to swinging pyrexia secondary to peritonitis secondary to the collection.- The patient would have high-grade pyrexia and be constitutionally unwell if the patient was a patient of pyelonephritis. The presentation of the patient is more suggestive of appendicular mass.- The history would be more extended with symptoms of weight loss and altered bowel habit if the patient had Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the single most serious side effect associated with IV Lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Diabetes

      Correct Answer: Amnesia

      Explanation:

      The most serious side effects of IV Lorazepam include hallucinations, agitation, confusion, amnesia and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination, the maximum tenderness was at the McBurney's point. What is the surface landmark of McBurney's point?

      Your Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine

      Explanation:

      McBurney’s point is found 2/3rds of the way along an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side. On examination, features of generalised peritonitis can be observed if the appendix has perforated.Retrocecal appendicitis may have relatively fewer signs.Digital rectal examination may reveal boggy sensation if a pelvic abscess is present.Diagnosis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers coupled with compatible history, and examination findings.Ultrasound is useful in females where pelvic organ pathology can be a close differential diagnosis. Although it is not always possible to visualise the appendix on ultrasound, the presence of free fluid (always pathological in males) should raise suspicion. Ultrasound examination can also show evidence of luminal obstruction and thickening of the appendix.Management: Definitive management of appendicitis and appendicular perforation is appendicectomy which can be performed via either an open or laparoscopic approach.Simultaneous administration of metronidazole reduces wound infection rates. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage. Patients without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old boy was brought to the physician by his mother with a history of a swelling on the right side of his neck that is extending from the angle of mouth to the middle 1/3rd of sternocleidomastoid muscle. On examination the swelling was on the anterolateral aspect of the muscle and was found to be brilliantly transilluminant. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Correct Answer: Lymphangioma

      Explanation:

      A lymphangioma is a swelling or mass that occurs mainly in the head, neck, and mouth. Lymphangiomas are the result of a congenital condition and are usually apparent at birth, or at least by the time a person is 2 years old. It is rare in adult population and when detected, it can be treated with surgical excision. Branchial cyst in most cases does not transilluminate which lymphangioma does.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy and resection megarectum

      Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Which of the following exhibits low genetic penetrance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following exhibits low genetic penetrance?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Gaucher disease

      Explanation:

      Penetrance is defined as the percentage of individuals having a particular mutation or genotype who exhibit clinical signs or phenotype of the associated disorder or genotype.Gaucher disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. The parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but they typically do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Platelet

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 5

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 15

      Explanation:

      Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Medial meniscus injury

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he...

    Correct

    • An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe. The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Five back blows

      Explanation:

      This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.Other options:- Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.- CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.- Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 months old girl presents with a history of vomiting, colic pain, fever, and listlessness. She doesn’t want to eat and the doctors noticed a bloody nappy. Upon clinical examination she’s found to be tachycardic and with cool peripheries. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Perform an abdominal x-ray (AXR) and abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Resuscitate with intravenous fluids and commence triple antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This clinical case is most probably due to intussusception complicated by sepsis. Regardless of the cause, the baby is sick and in a critical condition. The first thing to do is to preserve the vital signs and resuscitate with IV fluids. As sepsis is suspected, you should also start on triple antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking of one arm followed by generalised shaking. A flat erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid, which has not changed in size or appearance, has been present since birth.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Correct Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), also called encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis, is a neurocutaneous disorder with angiomas that involve the leptomeninges (leptomeningeal angiomas [LAs]) and the skin of the face, typically in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) distributions of the trigeminal nerve. The hallmark of SWS is a facial cutaneous venous dilation, also referred to as a nevus flammeus or port-wine stain (PWS).Signs and symptoms:SWS is generally diagnosed clinically, based on the typical cutaneous, central nervous system (CNS), and ocular abnormalities associated with it.Neurological signs include the following:Developmental delay/intellectual disabilityLearning problemsAttention deficit-hyperactivity disorderInitial focal seizures progressing to frequent, secondarily generalized seizuresIncreasing seizure frequency and duration despite the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)Increasing duration of a transient postictal deficitIncrease in focal or diffuse atrophy – Determined by serial neuroimagingProgressive increase in calcificationsDevelopment of hemiparesisDeterioration in cognitive functioningPhysical signs of SWS are as follows:Port-wine stainMacrocephalyOcular manifestationsSoft-tissue hypertrophyHemiparesisVisual lossHemianopsiaOcular involvement in SWS may include the following signs:BuphthalmosGlaucomaTomato-catsup colour of the fundus (ipsilateral to the nevus flammeus) with glaucomaConjunctival and episcleral haemangiomasDiffuse choroidal haemangiomasHeterochromia of the iridesTortuous retinal vessels with occasional arteriovenous communications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Cystoscopy

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Periorbital cellulitis

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts?

      Your Answer: Lowe syndrome

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (also known as von Recklinghausen disease) does not present with cataracts.The eye findings in NF1 are Lisch’s nodules, which are pigmentary lesions seen on the iris and constitute one of the major diagnostic features in this condition. Note:Interestingly, in another syndrome closely related to it, Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2), cataracts can occur. Early detection in family members may be made by finding lens opacities (both congenital polar cataracts and posterior lenticular opacities). Other options:- Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder with pigmentary skin changes, mental retardation and eye involvement in 40% of cases. – Myotonic dystrophy is a triplet-repeat disorder with neurological symptoms and cataracts. – Lowe syndrome (oculo-cerebro-renal syndrome) is an X-linked recessive condition. Males with this X-linked recessive condition have cataracts, hypotonia, mental retardation, generalised aminoaciduria and renal tubular acidosis with hypophosphatemia. – Wilson disease is an inborn error of copper metabolism. The clinical features include hepatic involvement, progressive neurological features, eye involvement, including Kayser–Fleischer rings and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl was accompanied by her mother to the hospital due to a change in speech, which is now an indistinct nasal speech. She is always tired by day, has restless sleep and even snores at night. What is the best management strategy?

      Your Answer: Assess development milestones

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT surgeon

      Explanation:

      Adenoid tissue sometimes swell as a result of fighting off the infection as germs are trapped in the adenoids. Adenoid enlargement is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?

      Your Answer: Muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      416.3
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection...

    Correct

    • What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?

      Your Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?

      Your Answer: 0.33

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10...

    Correct

    • A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Answer: MittelschmerzMittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered. Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of several episodes of collapse. He describes the majority of these episodes occurring when he is laughing. He states that he loses power in his legs and falls to the ground. He is alert throughout and recovers quickly. He also describes excessive daytime sleepiness with episodes in the morning of being awake but being unable to move his body. Examination is unremarkable. A diagnosis of narcolepsy is made. Which of the following is the first line treatment for excessive daytime sleepiness?

      Your Answer: Modafinil

      Explanation:

      Narcolepsy is a rare condition characterised by excessive daytime sleepiness, sleep paralysis, hypnagogic hallucinations, and cataplexy (sudden collapse triggered by emotion such as laughing or crying). There is no cure for narcolepsy. Treatment options include stimulants, such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) or modafinil (Provigil), antidepressants, such as fluoxetine (Prozac), citalopram (Celexa), paroxetine (Paxil), sertraline (Zoloft) and sodium oxybate (Xyrem). Modafinil has replaced methylphenidate and amphetamine as the first-line treatment of excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer: Raised serum haptoglobins

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?

      Your Answer: Chromosomal trisomies

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      249.3
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage...

    Correct

    • A premature neonate at 28 weeks gestation suffers from right sided intraventricular haemorrhage with no ventricular dilation while on the ventilator. What advice should ideally be given to the parents in this situation?

      Your Answer: It is probable that there will be no significant long-term effects but his development will be closely followed just in case

      Explanation:

      There are four types of IVH. These are called grades and are based on the degree of bleeding.Grades 1 and 2 involve a smaller amount of bleeding. Most of the time, there are no long-term problems as a result of the bleeding. Grade 1 is also referred to as germinal matrix haemorrhage (GMH).Grades 3 and 4 involve more severe bleeding. The blood presses on (grade 3) or directly involves (grade 4) brain tissue. Grade 4 is also called an intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Blood clots can form and block the flow of cerebrospinal fluid. This can lead to increased fluid in the brain (hydrocephalus).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical....

    Incorrect

    • Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?

      Your Answer: Dichorionic monoamniotic

      Correct Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic

      Explanation:

      A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A new-born infant has a posterior displacement of the tongue and cleft palate.What...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born infant has a posterior displacement of the tongue and cleft palate.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patau syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pierre-Robin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Pierre Robin sequence is a condition present at birth, in which the infant has micrognathia, a tongue that is placed further back than normal (glossoptosis), and cleft palate. This combination of features can lead to difficulty breathing and problems with eating early in life. Pierre Robin sequence may occur isolated or be associated with a variety of other signs and symptoms (described as syndromic). The exact causes of Pierre Robin syndrome are unknown. The most common otic anomaly is otitis media, occurring 80% of the time, followed by auricular anomalies in 75% of cases. Hearing loss, mostly conductive, occurs in 60% of patients, while external auditory canal atresia occurs in only 5% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?

      Your Answer: Caucasian ethnicity

      Correct Answer: Parental unemployment

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer: Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
      Stapes,
      Temporal styloid process,
      Stylohyoid ligament, and
      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
      Muscles:
      Muscles of face
      Occipitofrontalis muscle
      Platysma
      Stylohyoid muscle
      Posterior belly of Digastric
      Stapedius muscle
      Auricular muscles
      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rectal atresia

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - What is the cause for tinea incognito? ...

    Correct

    • What is the cause for tinea incognito?

      Your Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream

      Explanation:

      “Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      250.8
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin pump. There has been better glycaemic control and he now subsequently enjoys a healthy, active lifestyle. During the consultation, he seems to acknowledge the risks of missing out his dose and says that he is comfortable with his new pump. he mentions that he changes his site after every 4 days. However, a random blood sugar analysis reveals it to be 22.3 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the raised RBS level?

      Your Answer: Suspended insulin pump

      Correct Answer: Site change is overdue

      Explanation:

      Insertion sites and sensor sites should be rotated each time the infusion set or glucose sensor is changed. This keeps the tissue healthy and allows previous sites to completely heal before reusing them. Change infusion set every 2 to 3 days to help prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Linear regression

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: Stylopharyngeus muscle

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child has growth and pubertal delay. His father also had a similar pattern of growth and is as short as a teenager. Currently, he is on the 2nd centile for height, with delayed adrenarche and gonadarche. in order to confirm the most likely diagnosis, which of the following investigations would be the most useful?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging

      Correct Answer: Wrist X-ray for bone age

      Explanation:

      A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child’s skeletal system. It’s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. The bones on the X-ray image are compared with X-rays images in a standard atlas of bone development, which is based on data from large numbers of other kids of the same gender and age. The bone age is measured in years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia,...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A lethargic 2-month child was brought in with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting for 6 days. What is the appropriate initial investigations?

      Your Answer: AXR

      Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Explanation:

      The most commonly requested biochemistry tests for renal function are the urea and electrolytes. They supply important information when it comes to homeostasis and excretion. Glomerular filtration rate is also the essential standard marker of kidney health and is assessed by checking the creatinine levels. In this case as the child has lost fluids and electrolytes, this test will indicate the extent of the loss and allow for more appropriate replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is not associated with arachnodactyly?

      Your Answer: Homocystinuria

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tuner’s syndrome is not associated with arachnodactyly.Arachnodactyly is seen in the following conditions:- Marfan syndrome- Homocystinuria- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome- Congenital contractural arachnodactylyOther rare syndromes include:- Loeys-Dietz syndrome- Antley-Bixler syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Lujan-Frinz syndrome- Haim-Munk syndrome- Marden-Walker syndrome- Spondylocostal dysostosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - A 4-year-old boy presents with offensive stool, clubbing of fingers, and recurrent chest...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with offensive stool, clubbing of fingers, and recurrent chest pain. Choose the single most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Sweat test

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease. A defective gene causes a thick, sticky build-up of mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and eventually, respiratory failure. In the pancreas, the mucus prevents the release of digestive enzymes that allow the body to break down food and absorb vital nutrients. Since the digestive enzymes are not being made, the food is not completely digested making them bulky, smelly, and hard to flush away. Finger clubbing is a prominent feature of cystic fibrosis on most patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is worried that her daughter might be using illicit substances. The patient is sweating and appears agitated, talkative and is repeatedly clenching her jaw. She has generalized piloerection. She has most likely taken which of the following substances?

      Your Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)

      Explanation:

      3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception (awareness of surrounding objects and conditions). It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens, producing feelings of increased energy, pleasure, emotional warmth, and distorted sensory and time perception. MDMA’s effects last about 3 to 6 hours, although many users take a second dose as the effects of the first dose begin to fade. Over the course of the week following moderate use of the drug, a person may experience:irritabilityimpulsiveness and aggressiondepressionsleep problemsanxietymemory and attention problemsdecreased appetitedecreased interest in and pleasure from sex

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?

      Your Answer: Folliculitis

      Correct Answer: Tinea corporis

      Explanation:

      Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has a known history of asthma and type 1 diabetes.His arterial blood gas analysis reveals:pH: 7.05pO2: 8 kPapCO2: 8 kPaBase excess: -12 mmol/LHCO3-: 15 mmol/LWhich of the following interpretations is correct?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      In this case scenario, the pH is too low to be fully explained by a respiratory acidosis. Usually, if there is a metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system will try to compensate by hyperventilation and reduced pCO2. In this case, however, the pCO2 is raised suggesting the presence of a respiratory component.Therefore, this boy has mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis, most probably due to severe exacerbation of this asthma, which led to diabetic ketoacidosis.Note:Normal values:pH: 7.35 – 7.45pO2: 10 – 14 kPapCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPaBase excess (BE): -2 – 2 mmol/LHCO3: 22 – 26 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-week-old baby with abnormal facies presented to the paediatric clinic with recurrent chest infections. CXR showed an absent thymic shadow. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Explanation:

      DiGeorge syndrome usually presents at a young age with abnormal faces. Chest x-ray is characterised by an absent thymic shadow and recurrent infections due to an abnormal T-cell mediated immune response. Sometimes it presents by convulsions of the new-born due to hypocalcaemia as a result of a malfunctioning parathyroid gland and low levels of PTH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A 6 year old boy presents with a history of repeated respiratory and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a history of repeated respiratory and gastro-intestinal infections since birth. His birth was, however, uncomplicated. His mother claims that he's not growing as he should for his age. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary T cell immunodeficiency

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that interferes with the normal development of the child. It manifests with recurrent episodes of pneumonia accompanied by coughing, wheezing and dyspnoea. The appetite is normal but weight gain seems difficult. This condition also affects bowel habits with repeated gastrointestinal infections. The gold standard for the diagnosis is considered the sweat test which reveals abnormally high levels of Cl-.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      235.3
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg....

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg. He is otherwise well with no fever or history of trauma. Clinical examination reveals limited limb motion due to the pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Perthes’ disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ disease is a disease of the hip in children. It presents with pain that is typically located in the groin area. The pain is often present only during physical activity. Most children seek medical attention because of limping.

      Osgood–Schlatter disease is pain caused by inflammation of the patella tendon at the tibial insertion.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis occurs classically in adolescence (M:F = 3:2)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 35 cmH2O

      Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child whose head circumference is on the 3rd centile? Note that his height and weight are in the 75th centile.

      Your Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Congenital rubella syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of microcephaly in an asymptomatic 3-year-old child is congenital rubella syndrome.Microcephaly is defined as head circumference > two standard deviations below the mean.The causes of microcephaly include:- Genetic disorders: Down syndrome, Edward syndrome, Patau syndrome, Williams syndrome, Angelman syndrome, and Rett syndrome.- Infective: Meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV, rubella, varicella, HIVand Zika.- Acquired causes: Severe brain malformations, neurodegenerative diseases, hypoxic-ischemic injury, infarction, antenatal exposure to drugs, alcohol, and other toxins. Severe malnutrition and uncontrolled phenylketonuria in the mother are other causes of microcephaly in children.- Craniosynostosis- Neurometabolic disorders- Early non-accidental trauma- Fanconi anaemia- Other causes include: Familial and nonfamilial nonsyndromic microcephalyMost children with microcephaly have one or several associated symptoms:- Developmental delay- Seizures- Visual abnormalities- Short stature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Dementia

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital cytomegalovirus infection is characterized by which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: CMV cannot be transmitted through breast milk

      Correct Answer: Periventricular cerebral calcifications are an associated feature

      Explanation:

      One of the most common congenital viral infections is cytomegalovirus infection. The infection is even commoner than the other widely known diseases like down’s syndrome and spina bifida. It is caused by herpesvirus type 5 and is diagnosed using PCR of saliva. The clinical features include failure to thrive, intellectual disability, epilepsy, and microcephaly. The most common clinical complication is sensorineural deafness. The drug of choice for the treatment of neonatal CMV infection is ganciclovir, an anti-viral drug that has shown to prevent deafness. Cytomegalic inclusion disease is diagnosed at birth with marked neurological disability, resulting from microcephaly, intracerebral calcifications, and cerebral atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer: Devise an appropriate sleep management plan

      Correct Answer: Request an EEG

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding precocious puberty, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: More than 2% of girls affected by precocious puberty have inherited the condition from their mother

      Correct Answer: In about 5% of boys, precocious puberty is inherited from the father

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally earlier age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. The onset of normal puberty is triggered by gonadotropic-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus.In most of the familial cases, the condition is transmitted by affected father. In boys, this makes up about 5% of the cases.Full adult height potential is not achieved in patients of precious puberty, although there is an advanced bone maturation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Normotension and bradycardia

      Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Homocystinuria

      Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Explanation:

      Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Incorrect

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of...

    Incorrect

    • A paired t-test of blood measurements pre- and post-treatment yields a P-value of 0.256.Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: There must have been at least 20 repeat measurements made

      Correct Answer: The paired differences are not significantly different from zero on average

      Explanation:

      The paired sample t-test, sometimes called the dependent sample t-test, is a statistical procedure used to determine whether the mean difference between two sets of observations is zero. In a paired sample t-test, each subject or entity is measured twice, resulting in pairs of observations. Common applications of the paired sample t-test include case-control studies or repeated-measures designs.Statistical significance is determined by looking at the p-value. The p-value gives the probability of observing the test results under the null hypothesis. The lower the p-value, the lower the probability of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true. Thus, a low p-value indicates decreased support for the null hypothesis. However, the possibility that the null hypothesis is true and that we simply obtained a very rare result can never be ruled out completely. The cut-off value for determining statistical significance is ultimately decided on by the researcher, but usually a value of .05 or less is chosen. This corresponds to a 5% (or less) chance of obtaining a result like the one that was observed if the null hypothesis was true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Oxygen administration

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Idiopathic adrenalitis

      Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - Which of the following is the first symptom or sign of a congenital...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the first symptom or sign of a congenital cataract in a 1-year old?

      Your Answer: Clumsiness

      Correct Answer: A strabismus

      Explanation:

      The most obvious sign of a congenital cataract in a child less than 1 year would be a strabismus/squint. A 12 month old child is unable to complain of loss of visual acuity and the child is likely to see well in one eye ruling out clumsiness. Amblyopia may also be difficult to test at this age unless it presents with the strabismus. ‘White’ red reflexes usually only present in very mature congenital cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Doing up buttons unaided

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestones:Social and Emotional:- Copies adults and friends – Shows affection for friends without prompting – Takes turns in games – Shows concern for crying friend – Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” – Shows a wide range of emotions – Separates easily from mom and dad – May get upset with major changes in routine- Dresses and undresses self Language/Communication- Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps – Can name most familiar things – Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” – Says first name, age, and sex- Names a friend – Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) – Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time – Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentencesCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts – Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people – Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces – Understands what “two” means – Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon – Turns book pages one at a time – Builds towers of more than 6 blocks – Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handleMovement/Physical Development- Climbs well – Runs easily – Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) – Walks up and downstairs, one foot on each stepDoing up buttons is a skill more usually seen in 5-year-olds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at 4 months of age?

      Your Answer: The ability to respond to affection is not expected at around 4 months of age

      Correct Answer: The ability to string vowels together whilst babbling is not expected at around 4 months of age

      Explanation:

      Developmental milestones at 4 months of age:Social and Emotional:Smiles spontaneously, especially at people Likes to play with people and might cry when playing stops Copies some movements and facial expressions, like smiling or frowningLanguage/CommunicationBegins to babble Babbles with expression and copies sounds he hears Cries in different ways to show hunger, pain, or being tiredCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Lets you know if he is happy or sad Responds to affectionReaches for a toy with one hand Uses hands and eyes together, such as seeing a toy and reaching for it Follows moving things with eyes from side to side Watches faces closely Recognizes familiar people and things at a distance Movement/Physical DevelopmentHolds head steady, unsupported Pushes down on legs when feet are on a hard surface May be able to roll over from tummy to back Can hold a toy and shake it and swing at dangling toys Brings hands to mouth When lying on stomach, pushes up to elbows

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Decrease delta P

      Correct Answer: Increase delta P

      Explanation:

      The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several...

    Incorrect

    • We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several ethnic groups, taking into account differences in the age distributions of the groups.The appropriate analysis is:

      Your Answer: Student’s t-test

      Correct Answer: Linear regression analysis with age and ethnicity as predictors

      Explanation:

      Linear regression is a basic and commonly used type of predictive analysis. The overall idea of regression is to examine two things: (1) do a set of predictor variables do a good job in predicting an outcome (dependent) variable? (2) Which variables, in particular, are significant predictors of the outcome variable, and in what way do they–indicated by the magnitude and sign of the beta estimates–impact the outcome variable.These regression estimates are used to explain the relationship between one dependent variable and one or more independent variables. Three major uses for regression analysis are (1) determining the strength of predictors, (2) forecasting an effect, and (3) trend forecasting

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after he collapsed at a dance club and developed jerky movements of his upper limbs. On further questioning, it is revealed that the boy has been clumsier than usual and has frequently been dropping his toothbrush while brushing his teeth in the morning. From the drugs provided below, which one should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is an epilepsy syndrome characterized by myoclonic jerks, generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCSs), and sometimes, absence seizures. The seizures of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy often occur when people first awaken in the morning. Seizures can be triggered by lack of sleep, extreme fatigue, stress, or alcohol consumption. Onset typically occurs around adolescence in otherwise healthy children. The causes of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy are very complex and not completely understood. Mutations in one of several genes, including the GABRA1 and the EFHC1 genes, can cause or increase susceptibility to this condition. Although patients usually require lifelong treatment with anticonvulsants, their overall prognosis is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology And Hepatology (11/11) 100%
Neonatology (16/16) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (4/10) 40%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (15/17) 88%
Neurology And Neurodisability (11/12) 92%
Musculoskeletal (7/9) 78%
Nephro-urology (6/6) 100%
Child Development (2/5) 40%
Embryology (2/4) 50%
Ophthalmology (6/7) 86%
Cardiovascular (8/9) 89%
Endocrinology (14/15) 93%
Paediatric Surgery (9/11) 82%
Dermatology (7/8) 88%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (1/3) 33%
Renal (6/6) 100%
Respiratory (4/4) 100%
Genitourinary (3/3) 100%
Emergency Medicine (11/12) 92%
Nutrition (2/3) 67%
Adolescent Health (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
ENT (8/8) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (4/4) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
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