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  • Question 1 - At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the rate of uterine blood flow per minute?

      Your Answer: 300 to750 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 500 to 750 ml/min

      Explanation:

      The average volume of uterine blood flow at term is 500-750 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks of gestational age. She voices concern as she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest and arms and is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins. She wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them.

      Which of the following is the best advice you can give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Vascular spiders or angiomas, are of no clinical significance during pregnancy as these are common findings and are form as a result of hyperestrogenemia associated with normal pregnancies. These angiomas, as they will resolve spontaneously after delivery, does not require any additional workup or treatment.
      Reassurance to the patient is all that is required in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has been seen in fertility clinic phones regarding the timing of her progesterone blood test. She has regular 35 day menstrual cycles. When testing for ovulation what day of her cycle should she have the test on?

      Your Answer: 7

      Correct Answer: 28

      Explanation:

      The mid-luteal progesterone sample should be taken 7 days before the expected period i.e. day 21 in a 28-day cycle or day 28 of a 35 day cycle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4729
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Incorrect

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings.

      Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical polyp

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms.

      You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy.

      What is the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give vaccine for chicken pox

      Correct Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.

      Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.

      As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.

      If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.

      Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      75.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?

      Your Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis

      Explanation:

      Activation of Antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      336.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In twin deliveries: Which is true? ...

    Correct

    • In twin deliveries: Which is true?

      Your Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health.

      Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: The foetus cannot metabolise the coumarin derivatives, so their effect on the foetus is increased.

      Correct Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
      Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
      Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
      The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:

      Your Answer: Cord entrapment

      Explanation:

      Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There...

    Correct

    • A young woman complained of itching and discharge from her vaginal area. There is red vulva and yellowish discharge on inspection.

      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      This patient has got thrush or a fungal infection in the vaginal area. Candida infection is most likely based on the white discharge and itching. A vaginal clotrimazole antifungal treatment is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles presents with a history of menorrhagia for the last 6 years. Her menstrual cycles are normal, but she has bled excessively for eight days every month, and her haemoglobin level was 90g/L one month ago. She's already on iron supplementation. She has a history of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN3) in addition to the anaemia, albeit her yearly smear test has been normal since the laser treatment six years ago. She is also undergoing hypertension treatment. Physical examination is unremarkable. She is not willing for endometrial ablation or hysterectomy until her menopause. Which of the following medical therapies would be the best for her to utilize between now and the time she is expected to hit menopause, which is around the age of 50?

      Your Answer: HRT given to women with vasomotor symptoms, while they are still menstruating, is likely to increase the incidence of AD in the future.

      Correct Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis or dysfunctional uterine haemorrhage are the most likely causes of heavy periods.
      Because she refuses to have a hysterectomy or endometrial ablation, hormonal therapy must be administered in addition to the iron therapy she is already receiving.
      Any of the choices could be employed, but using therapy only during the luteal phase of the cycle in someone who is virtually surely ovulating (based on her typical monthly cycles) is unlikely to work.

      Danazol is prone to cause serious adverse effects (virilization), especially when used for a long period of time.
      GnRH agonists would cause amenorrhoea but are more likely to cause substantial menopausal symptoms, and the °fa contraceptive pill (OCP) is generally best avoided in someone using hypertension medication.

      Treatment with norethisterone throughout the cycle is likely to be the most successful of the treatments available.
      If a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena®) had been offered as an alternative, it would have been acceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • The external carotid artery develops from which pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: 3rd

      Correct Answer: 1st

      Explanation:

      The external carotid develops from the 1st arch. The common and internal carotid develop from the 3rd arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following hormones are required for alveolar morphogenesis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and hPL

      Correct Answer: Progesterone, Prolactin and hPL

      Explanation:

      The changes seen in breast tissue with the menstrual cycle are accentuated during pregnancy. Deposition of fat around glandular tissue occurs, and the number of glandular ducts is increased by oestrogen, while progesterone and human placental lactogen (hPL) increase the number of gland alveoli. Prolactin is essential for the stimulation of milk secretion and during pregnancy prepares the alveoli for milk production. Although prolactin concentration increases throughout pregnancy, it does not then result in lactation since it is antagonized at an alveolar receptor level by oestrogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Normal height

      Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Embryonic pole become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: 5 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The embryonic pole becomes visible on transvaginal ultrasound at around 5 and a half to 6 weeks gestation when it measures around 3mm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly...

    Incorrect

    • During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:

      Your Answer: Fallopian tube hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Corpus luteal cyst

      Explanation:

      Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling...

    Correct

    • You see a patient who is 32 weeks pregnant. She complains of tingling to the right buttock and shooting pain down the leg. You suspect Piriformis syndrome. Regarding Piriformis which of the following statements are true?

      Your Answer: Insertion is onto the greater trochanter

      Explanation:

      The proximal attachment of the piriformis muscles is from the anterior surface of sacrum and it attaches distally to the superior border of the greater trochanter of the femur. It is innervated by the anterior rami of S1 and S2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: FSH

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization?

      Your Answer: 1 in 5000

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tubal sterilization is a safe and effective surgical procedure that permanently prevents pregnancy. However, pregnancy can occur in 1 in 200 cases, according to international sources. In the 1st year after tubal sterilization, the estimated failure rate is 0.1-0.8% respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Normal closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) is brought about by a number of mechanisms. Upon delivery the new born babies first breath inflates the lungs and this causes a rise in pO2. Oxygen is known to cause constriction of the DA in vivo and in vitro. In addition the decreased vascular resistance means the pressure within the lumen of the DA drops aiding closure. In addition on inflation of the lungs, the lungs produce bradykinin which stimulates smooth muscle constriction of the ductus. The most important factor is thought to be the drop in Prostaglandin E2. Prostaglandin E2 maintains patency of the Ductus in the unborn child but after birth is metabolised in the lungs and its levels fall rapidly within 3 hours of birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to premature uterine contractions. Upon interview, it was noted the she has history of untreated mitral valve stenosis. Tocolysis was then planned after a necessary evaluation was performed and revealed that there is absence of contraindications.

      Which of the following would be considered the drug of choice for tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin antagonists

      Explanation:

      Tocolysis is an obstetrical procedure to prolong gestation in patients, some of which are experiencing preterm labour. This is achieved through various medications that work to inhibit contractions of uterine smooth muscle.

      There is no definitive first-line tocolytic agent by the American College of Obstetrics and Gynecology (ACOG) but nifedipine is most commonly used. However, in severe aortic stenosis, nifedipine can cause ventricular collapse and dysfunction.

      The therapeutic target in the treatment of preterm labour is currently the pharmacological inhibition of uterine contractions with the use of various tocolytic agents. Tocolytic agents are used to maintain pregnancy for 24–48 hours to allow corticosteroids administration to act and to permit the transfer of the mother to a centre with a neonatal intensive care unit.

      Oxytocin inhibitors work by competitively acting at the oxytocin receptor site. Oxytocin acts to increase the intracellular levels of inositol triphosphate. The medications currently in this class are atosiban and retosiban. Maternal nor fetal side effects have not been described for this tocolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).

    When she presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).

      When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.

      She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.

      What is the most suitable advice for this woman?

      Your Answer: Cease the OCP and commence hypotensive treatment with methyldopa.

      Correct Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.

      Explanation:

      The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.

      If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.

      It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.

      Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the...

    Incorrect

    • An 19-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of painful menses for the past year. She was given NSAIDs at first, then OCPs after the NSAIDs failed to control her symptoms. OCP has also struggled to regulate the painful menses.

      Which of the following would be the best next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Dilation and curettage

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Adolescents who fail to respond to first- or second-line treatment and have recurrent symptoms or have symptoms that worsen over time should be re-evaluated for other possible and serious causes of secondary dysmenorrhea such as endometriosis, uterine leiomyomas, polyps, or pelvic pathologies.

      When pelvic pathology is suspected, abdominal and transvaginal ultrasonography should be used as first-line investigation. However, transvaginal ultrasound is more accurate and the preferred option if possible.

      CT scan is not indicated in the assessment of dysmenorrhea.

      D&C and laparoscopy can be considered as treatment options once a diagnosis has been established but can not be used as primary steps in diagnosis of dysmenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding lymph drainage of the fallopian tubes where does the majority of lymph drain to?

      Your Answer: Lumbar nodes

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic vessels from the ovaries, joined by vessels from the uterine tubes and most from the fundus of the uterus, follow the ovarian veins as they ascend to the right and left lumbar (caval/aortic) lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates...

    Incorrect

    • During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue Factor

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A patient arrives on labour ward she is 37 weeks pregnant. Her last...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives on labour ward she is 37 weeks pregnant. Her last pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 4 years ago. Contractions are 5 minutes apart and on examination the cervix is 5cm dilated. What is the risk of uterine rupture with vaginal delivery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25 per 10,000

      Explanation:

      Consideration of the risk of scar rupture is probably the most important consideration when determining whether delivery should be by elective Caesarean section or by trial of vaginal delivery.
      Most published studies do not differentiate between scar dehiscence and rupture, however, analysis of observational and comparative studies indicates that the excess risk of uterine rupture following trial of labour compared with women undergoing repeat elective Caesarean section is considerably lower than 1 per cent (25/10000); indeed, some studies do not demonstrate any increased risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are considered correct regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxin requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroid disease is the second most common endocrine disorder after diabetes in pregnancy. Thyroid disease poses a substantial challenge on the physiology of pregnant women and has significant maternal and fetal implications. Research shows during pregnancy, the size of the thyroid gland increases by 10% in countries with adequate iodine stores and by approximately 20% to 40% in countries with iodine deficiency. During pregnancy, thyroid hormone production increases by around 50% along with a similar increase in total daily iodine requirements.

      The different changes occurring in thyroid physiology are as follow:
      – An increase in serum thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) leading to an increase in the total T4 and total T3 concentrations
      – Stimulation of the thyrotropin (TSH) receptor by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) which increases thyroid hormone production and subsequently reduces serum TSH concentration.

      Therefore, compared to the non-pregnant state, women tend to have lower serum TSH concentrations during pregnancy.
      The need to adjust levothyroxine dose manifests itself as early as at 4-8 weeks of gestation, therefore justifying the adjustment of levothyroxine replacement to ensure that maternal euthyroidism is maintained during early gestation. Most of well-controlled hypothyroid pregnant women need increased dosage of thyroid hormone after pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a double stranded RNA virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      RNA viruses are almost always single stranded whilst DNA viruses are almost always double stranded. The exceptions are rotavirus and Parvovirus B19 respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (3/6) 50%
Embryology (3/4) 75%
Obstetrics (7/7) 100%
Clinical Management (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Biophysics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Passmed