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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?
Your Answer: The significance level (p) is always set to 5%
Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level
Explanation:The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.
The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.
A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.
The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.
The level of significance is set at p <0.05.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding the treatment of bladder cancer, a study concerned with the usage of a combined or monotherapy was conducted. A forest plot was used for the visual representation of the data.
Which of the following is true regarding forest plots?Your Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies
Explanation:Being the part of a meta analysis, forest plots are more valued as evidence then randomised control trials.
The notion that forest plots can only be used if the results are substantial is not true. They are good indicators of the significance of the data. If the diamond intersects the central line, the data is rendered significant. It also aggregates means and confidence intervals from studies conducted in the past which makes the study much more reliable as errors associated with individual studies tend to have less of an impact in this way.
The suggestion that forest plots are primarily used for qualitative data is factually incorrect. Forest plots require numerical values to function.
All in all, forest plots help us in determining whether or not there is a significant trend in that particular field of study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism.
Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?Your Answer: Periportal cells
Correct Answer: Centrilobular cells
Explanation:The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases
Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.
Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.
The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:
Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.
Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.
Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.
Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.
Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?
Your Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion
Explanation:Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.
It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.
It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?
Your Answer: Interosseous membrane
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.
The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.
Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?Your Answer: Black body, white shoulder, full cylinder pressure; 13700 KPa, single gas, requires a single stage pressure regulator
Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The renal glomerulus is able to filter 180 litres of blood per day, as determined by the starling forces present in the glomerulus. Ninety-nine percent of which is reabsorbed thereafter.
Water is reabsorbed in the highest proportion in which segment of the nephron?Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:Sixty-seven percent of filtered water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. The driving force for water reabsorption is a transtubular osmotic gradient established by reabsorption of solutes (e.g., NaCl, Na+-glucose).
Henle’s loop reabsorbs approximately 25% of filtered NaCl and 15% of filtered water. The thin ascending limb reabsorbs NaCl by a passive mechanism, and is impermeable to water. Reabsorption of water, but not NaCl, in the descending thin limb increases the concentration of NaCl in the tubule fluid entering the ascending thin limb. As the NaCl-rich fluid moves toward the cortex, NaCl diffuses out of the tubule lumen across the ascending thin limb and into the medullary interstitial fluid, down a concentration gradient as directed from the tubule fluid to the interstitium. This mechanism is known as the counter current multiplier.
The distal tubule and collecting duct reabsorb approximately 8% of filtered NaCl, secrete variable amounts of K+ and H+, and reabsorb a variable amount of water (approximately 8%-17%).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Adenosine
Explanation:Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.
Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.
Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a bottle of sugared orange squash at anaesthetic assessment . He appears to have consumed 120 mL of the bottle's contents.
What is the minimal safe fasting time prior to proceeding with a general anaesthetic in this patient?Your Answer: 6 hours
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which statement best describes the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer: It predicts brain damage during cardiopulmonary bypass
Correct Answer: It decreases during normal sleep
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) is one of several systems used in anaesthesiology as of 2003 to measure the effects of specific anaesthetic drugs on the brain and to track changes in the patient’s level of sedation or hypnosis. It is a complex mathematical algorithm that allows a computer inside an anaesthesia monitor to analyse data from a patient’s electroencephalogram (EEG) during surgery. It is a dimensionless number (0-100) that is a summative measurement of time domain, frequency domain and high order spectral parameters derived from electroencephalogram (EEG) signals.
Sleep and anaesthesia have similar behavioural characteristics but are physiologically different but BIS monitors can be used to measure sleep depth. With increasing sleep depth during slow-wave sleep, BIS levels decrease. This correlates with changes in regional cerebral blood flow when measured using positron emission tomography (PET).
BIS shows a dose-response relationship with the intravenous and volatile anaesthetic agents. Opioids produce a clinical change in the depth of sedation or analgesia but fail to produce significant changes in the BIS. Ketamine increases CMRO2 and EEG activity.
BIS is unable to predict movement in response to a surgical stimulus. Some of these are spinal reflexes and not perceived by the cerebral cortex.
BIS is used during cardiopulmonary bypass to measure depth of anaesthesia and an index of cerebral perfusion. However, it cannot predict subtle or significant cerebral damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure
Explanation:BMR is lower in females than males.
It decreases with increasing age.
There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)
BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman gives a two-week history of fatigue, muscle cramps, and paraesthesia of her fingers and toes. She has low serum calcium and low serum parathyroid hormone levels on investigations.
She appears slightly confused, likely due to hypocalcaemia, and cannot give a full account of her past medical history, but can recall that she recently was admitted to the hospital.
What is the most likely cause of her hypoparathyroidism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is injury or removing the parathyroid glands. They can be injured accidentally during surgery to remove the thyroid as they are located posterior to the thyroid gland.
A result of both low parathyroid hormone and low calcium is likely to mean that the parathyroid glands are not responding to hypocalcaemia. The hypocalcaemia can cause confusion, and the stay in the hospital is likely to refer to her surgery.
While a parathyroid adenoma is fairly common and can cause hypoparathyroidism, it much more likely causes hyperparathyroidism.
Chronic kidney disease is likely to cause hypocalcaemia, which would increase parathyroid hormone production in an attempt to increase calcium levels, causing hyperparathyroidism. Vitamin D is activated by the kidneys and then binds to calcium to be absorbed in the terminal ileum so that a deficiency would cause hyperparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein
Explanation:The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.
It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.
The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g of amitriptyline.
A Glasgow coma score of 6 was discovered, as well as a pulse rate of 140 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.
Which of the following ECG changes is most likely to indicate the onset of life-threatening arrhythmias?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolongation of the QRS complex
Explanation:Arrhythmias and/or hypotension are the most common causes of death from tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose.
The quinidine-like actions of tricyclic antidepressants on cardiac tissues are primarily responsible for their toxicity. Conduction through the His-Purkinje system and the myocardium slows as phase 0 depolarisation of the action potential slows. QRS prolongation and atrioventricular block are caused by slowed impulse conduction, which also contributes to ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension.
Arrhythmias can also be caused by abnormal repolarization, impaired automaticity, cholinergic blockade, and inhibition of neuronal catecholamine uptake, among other things.
Acidaemia, hypotension, and hyperthermia can all exacerbate toxicity.
The anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants, as well as the blockade of neuronal catecholamine reuptake, cause sinus tachycardia. Sinus tachycardia is usually well tolerated and does not require treatment. It can be difficult to tell the difference between sinus tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia with QRS prolongation.
A QRS duration of more than 100 milliseconds indicates a higher risk of arrhythmia and should be treated with systemic sodium bicarbonate.
The tricyclic is dissociated from myocardial sodium channels by serum alkalinization, and the extracellular sodium load improves sodium channel function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar content affect the body weight to a different level.
Which one of the following test will determine a statistically significant difference among the diets?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.
Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.
Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.
ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding ketamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be used in the management of refractory status epilepticus
Explanation:Ketamine is a phencyclidine (hallucinogenic) derivative that is administered in a dose of 2 mg/kg and acts by blocking NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors of glutamate.
It is a powerful bronchodilator agent and is, therefore, an intravenous anaesthetic of choice in bronchial asthma (halothane is an inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice for bronchial asthma). It is also used in the management of refractory status epilepticus.
It is an acid solution with an elimination half-life of three hours.
It has S (+) enantiomer and R (-) enantiomer. the S(+) enantiomer is two to four times more potent than the R(-) and is less likely to produce hallucinations.
Its use is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease because it increased sympathetic outflow leading to tachycardia and increased cardiac output which in turn increases the myocardial oxygen demand.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group
Explanation:Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.
Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.
The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the wrist to indicate the degree of neuromuscular blockade.
Which single muscle or group of muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve is best for monitoring the twitch function during neuromuscular blockade?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis
Explanation:In anaesthesia, adductor pollicis neuromuscular monitoring with ulnar nerve stimulation is commonly used. It is the gold standard for measuring the degree of block and comparing neuromuscular blocking drugs and their effects on other muscles.
Electrodes are usually placed over the ulnar nerve at the wrist to monitor the adductor pollicis.
Neuromuscular blocking drugs have different sensitivity levels in different muscle groups.
To achieve the same level of blockade, the diaphragm requires 1.4 to 2 times the amount of neuromuscular blocking agent as the adductor pollicis muscle. The small muscles of the larynx and the ocular muscles are two other respiratory muscles that are less resistant than the diaphragm (especially corrugator supercilii).
The abdominal muscles, Orbicularis oculi, peripheral muscles of the limbs, Geniohyoid, Masseter, and Upper airway muscles are the most sensitive to neuromuscular blocking agents.
The C8-T1 nerve roots, which are part of the medial cord of the brachial plexus, form the ulnar nerve. It enters the hand via the ulnar canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum, after following the ulnar artery at the wrist.
The nerve then splits into two branches: superficial and deep. The palmaris brevis is supplied by the superficial branch, which also provides palmar digital nerves to one and a half fingers. The dorsal surface of the medial/ulnar 1.5 fingers, as well as the corresponding skin over the hand, are also supplied by it (as well as the palmar surface).
The ulnar nerve’s deep branch runs between the abductor and flexor digiti minimi, which it supplies. It also innervates the opponens, and with the deep palmar arch, it curves around the hook of the hamate and laterally across the palm. All of the interossei, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and, in most cases, the flexor pollicis brevis are supplied there.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.
Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause
Explanation:Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.
During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.
The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.
Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.
Which of the following physiological characteristics of a 5-year-old most closely resembles those of a healthy adult?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dead space ratio
Explanation:Whatever the age, the dead space ratio is 0.3. It’s the dead space (Vd) to tidal volume ratio (Vt).
The glottis is the narrowest point of the upper airway in an adult, while the cricoid ring is the narrowest point in a child.
A child’s airway resistance is much higher than an adult’s. The resistance to airflow increases as the diameter of a paediatric airway shrinks. The radius (r) to the power of 4 is inversely proportional to airway resistance (r4). As a result, paediatric patients are more susceptible to changes in airflow caused by a small reduction in airway diameter, such as caused by oedema.
The compliance of a newborn’s lungs is very low (5 mL/cmH2O), but it gradually improves as lung size and elasticity grow. Lung compliance in an adult is 200 mL/cmH2O.
In children, minute ventilation (mL/kg/minute) is much higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.
Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm to enter the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).
When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.
Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:
Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
2 / 400
6 / 100
10 / 25
14 / 6.25
Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 hours
Explanation:Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.
Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:
Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg.
The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg
Explanation:Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.
The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.
The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.
Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.
Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.
The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.
His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.
What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine
Explanation:Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.
Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.
Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.
The following are some of the risk factors:
Positive family history
Male
Children
An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine useDystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:
Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):
1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximumBenzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).
Midazolam:
1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam
Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):
Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass with 0.6. This water is diffused into distinct compartments.
Which fluid compartment can be measured indirectly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intracellular volume
Explanation:The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.
For a man, it is subdivided into:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).The ECF volume is further divided into:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
Plasma = 3 litres
Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.Directly measured fluid compartments:
Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.Indirectly measured fluid compartments:
Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post tetanic count of 5
Explanation:A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.
Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.
During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5 min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular fibrillation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone may be administered following a third DC shock
Explanation:Ventricular fibrillation (VT) is an arrhythmia caused by a distortion in the organized contraction of the ventricles leading to an inability to pump blood out into the body.
Amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug used for the treatment of ventricular and atrial fibrillations. It is the gold standard of treatment for refractory pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF).
Guidelines for emergency treatment state that only the rescuer carrying out chest compressions on the patient may stand near the defibrillator as it charges.
Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) during cardiac arrest is required for 2 minute cycles.
Hypovolaemia is as a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) can be reversed using fluid resuscitation, whereas hypotension during cardiac arrest is either persistent or undetectable and is therefore irreversible.
Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia are treated using calcium salts, but calcium chloride is often preferred over calcium gluconate.
During a pulseless VT or VF, a single precordial thump will be effective if administered within the first seconds of the occurrence of a shockable rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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