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  • Question 1 - You are instructed by a senior to administer Mannitol to an RTA patient...

    Correct

    • You are instructed by a senior to administer Mannitol to an RTA patient with increased intracranial pressure.

      Mannitol is a low molecular weight compound that freely filters at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed.
      Out of the following, which is a contraindication to the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Severe pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.

      Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:
      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You plan to use plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a...

    Correct

    • You plan to use plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that needs suturing.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of 1% lidocaine, in this case, is true?

      Your Answer: Lidocaine works by blocking fast voltage-gated sodium channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.
      Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.
      Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.
      The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).
      Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Lidocaine's mechanism of action as a local aesthetic is as follows: ...

    Correct

    • Lidocaine's mechanism of action as a local aesthetic is as follows:

      Your Answer: Blocks influx of Na+ through voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Explanation:

      Local anaesthetics prevent generation/conduction of nerve impulses by reducing sodium permeability and increasing action potential threshold; inhibits depolarization, which results in blockade of conduction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following describes the site of a Meckel's diverticulum: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes the site of a Meckel's diverticulum:

      Your Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s lies on the antimesenteric surface of the middle-to-distal ileum, approximately 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal junction. It appears as a blind-ended tubular outpouching of bowel, about 2 inches long, occurring in about 2% of the population, and may contain two types of ectopic tissue (gastric and pancreatic). The rich blood supply to the diverticulum is provided by the superior mesenteric artery.Proximal to the major duodenal papilla the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery (branch of the coeliac trunk) and distal to the major duodenal papilla it is supplied by the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery). The arterial supply to the jejunoileum is from the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man suffered a severe road traffic accident and has been brought...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man suffered a severe road traffic accident and has been brought to the hospital. As part of his treatment, he requires a blood transfusion and experiences a transfusion reaction.

      The most common type of transfusion reaction is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      During or shortly after transfusion, febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, present with an unexpected temperature rise (38oC or 1oC above baseline, if baseline is 37oC). This is usually a one-off occurrence. The fever is sometimes accompanied by chills.

      The most common type of transfusion reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which occur in about 1 in every 8 transfusions.

      The most common event leading to symptoms of febrile transfusion reactions is cytokine accumulation during storage of cellular components (especially platelet units). White cells secrete cytokines, and pre-storage leucodepletion has reduced this risk.

      Recipient antibodies (raised as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies) reacting to donor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) or other antigens can also cause febrile transfusion reactions. Donor lymphocytes, granulocytes, and platelets all contain these antigens.

      Treatment is reassuring. Other causes should be ruled out, and antipyretics like paracetamol can help with fever relief. If another cause of fever is suspected, the transfusion should be stopped; however, if other causes of fever have been ruled out, it can be restarted at a slower rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding the lumbar plexus, which of the following is a direct muscular branch?...

    Correct

    • Regarding the lumbar plexus, which of the following is a direct muscular branch?

      Your Answer: Nerve to quadratus lumborum

      Explanation:

      The lumbar plexus gives rise to several branches which supply various muscles and regions of the posterior abdominal wall and lower limb. These branches include the Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral and obturator nerves.

      In addition, the lumbar plexus gives off muscular branches from its roots, a branch to the lumbosacral trunk and occasionally an accessory obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and heart failure is complaining of worsening oedema, bloating, and a loss of appetite. She has ascites and peripheral oedema on examination. Her oedema is being controlled by an oral diuretic, but it appears that this is no longer enough. You discuss her care with the on-call cardiology registrar, who believes she is very likely to have significant gut oedema that is interfering with her diuretic absorption and that she will need to change her medication.

      Which of the following oral diuretics is most likely to help you overcome this problem?

      Your Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is primarily used in patients with heart failure who have failed to respond to high doses of furosemide. Bumetanide and furosemide differ primarily in terms of bioavailability and pharmacodynamic potency. In the intestine, furosemide is only partially absorbed, with a bioavailability of 40-50 percent. Bumetanide, on the other hand, is almost completely absorbed in the intestine and has a bioavailability of about 80%. As a result, when it has a better bioavailability than furosemide, it is commonly used in patients with gut oedema.

      When taken alone, Bendroflumethiazide is a moderately potent diuretic that is unlikely to control her oedema.

      Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral oedema and high intracranial pressure.

      Acetazolamide is a weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase. It’s a rare occurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Flumazenil is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:...

    Correct

    • Flumazenil is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for the reversal of the sedative effects of benzodiazepines after anaesthesia, sedation and similar procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students...

    Correct

    • You've been asked to give a discussion to a group of medical students about skeletal muscle physiology and its use in clinical medicine. They pose a series of difficult questions to you.

      Which of the following definitions for the A-band of the sarcomere is correct?

      Your Answer: A band that contains the entire length of a single thick filament (myosin)

      Explanation:

      Myofibrils, which are around 1 m in diameter, make up each myofiber. The cytoplasm separates them and arranges them in a parallel pattern along the cell’s long axis. These myofibrils are made up of actin and myosin filaments that are repeated in sarcomeres, which are the myofiber’s basic functional units.

      Myofilaments are the filaments that make up myofibrils, and they’re made mostly of proteins. Myofilaments are divided into three categories:

      Myosin filaments are thick filaments made up mostly of the protein myosin.
      Actin filaments are thin filaments made up mostly of the protein actin.
      Elastic filaments are mostly made up of the protein titin.
      The sarcomere is a Z-line segment that connects two adjacent Z-lines.
      The I-bands are thin filament zones that run from either side of the Z-lines to the thick filament’s beginning.
      Between the I-bands is the A-band, which spans the length of a single thick filament.
      The H-zone is a zone of thick filaments that is not overlaid by thin filaments in the sarcomere’s centre. The H-zone keeps the myosin filaments in place by surrounding them with six actin filaments each.
      The M-band (or M-line) is a disc of cross-connecting cytoskeleton elements in the centre of the H-zone.
      The thick filament is primarily made up of myosin. The thin filament is primarily made up of actin. Actin, tropomyosin, and troponin are found in a 7:1:1 ratio in thin filaments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular Physiology
      • Physiology
      148.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old male visits his family physician with the complaint of a high-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits his family physician with the complaint of a high-grade fever for the past five days. A complete blood count report shows the presence of neutrophilia.

      Which one of the following facts regarding neutrophilia is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is typically caused by typhoid fever

      Correct Answer: It can be caused by eclampsia

      Explanation:

      A total neutrophil count of greater than 7.5 x 109/L is called neutrophilia. Typhoid fever usually causes leukopenia or neutropenia. Both localised and generalised bacterial infections can cause neutrophilia.

      Metabolic disorders such as
      – gout
      – eclampsia
      – uraemia
      can also cause neutrophilia.

      Acute neutrophilia, in which immature neutrophils can be seen, is referred to as a left shift and can be seen in conditions such as appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      519.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (5/5) 100%
Anaesthesia (3/3) 100%
Abdomen (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular Physiology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed