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  • Question 1 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the styloid process and hyoid bone

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck:

      Your Answer: Prevertebral fascia

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck which has the following boundaries:
      Apex: Union of the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone
      Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
      Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius
      Base: Middle one third of the clavicle
      Roof: Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
      Floor: The anterolateral portion of prevertebral fascia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The muscle which has an antagonistic action to the serratus anterior muscle and...

    Correct

    • The muscle which has an antagonistic action to the serratus anterior muscle and is one of the retractors of the scapula is the?

      Your Answer: Rhomboid major

      Explanation:

      Protraction is accomplished by the actions of the serratus anterior, pectoralis major, and pectoralis minor muscles. Retraction is accomplished by the actions of the trapezius, rhomboids, and latissimus dorsi muscles.

      The rhomboid major arises from the second, third, fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is inserted into a narrow tendinous arch attached to the root of the spine of the scapula and the inferior angle. By its insertion in the inferior angle of the scapula, it acts on this angle and produces a slight rotation of the scapula on the side of the chest. It also retracts the scapula by working with the trapezius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Correct

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to...

    Correct

    • During thymectomy the surgeon accidentally nicks a vein that lies just posterior to the thymus. Which of the following vessels is likely to be injured?

      Your Answer: Left brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The thymus is located superficially in the anterior mediastinum. The left brachiocephalic vein courses through the mediastinum to join the right brachiocephalic vein and form the superior vena cava on the right side of the thorax. The left brachiocephalic vein, being superficial, courses just deep to the thymus so that it may be susceptible to compression by an adjacent tumour. The left pulmonary vein, left bronchial vein and right pulmonary artery are deep, and enter and exit the lung at its root, thus are not near the thymus. The right superior intercostal vein drains the 2nd to the 4th intercostal spaces and drains into the arch of the azygos vein. It is not, therefore, closely related with the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when...

    Correct

    • Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of...

    Correct

    • An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of the statements about the right lung made by the demonstrator is correct?

      Your Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      The root of the lungs on both sides are similar in that the pulmonary veins are anterior and inferior while the bronchus is posterior. However, on the right side, the pulmonary arteries are anterior to the bronchus while on the left side the pulmonary arteries are superior to the bronchus. The lingual is only found on the left lung. The mediastinum is the space in the thorax between the two pleural sacs and does not contain any lung. The right lung, having three lobes, is slightly larger than the left lung. On both sides, the phrenic nerves passes in front of the root of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical...

    Correct

    • During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical plexus of nerves that is embedded in the carotid sheath is most susceptible to injury?

      Your Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The ansa cervicalis is a loop of nerves that are part of the cervical plexus. They lie superficial to the internal jugular vein in the carotid triangle. Branches from the ansa cervicalis innervate the sternohyoid, sternothyroid and the inferior belly of the omohyoid. The superior root of the ansa cervicalis is formed by a branch of spinal nerve C1. These nerve fibres travel in the hypoglossal nerve before leaving to form the superior root. The superior root goes around the occipital artery and then descends embedded in the carotid sheath. It sends a branch off to the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle and is then joined by the inferior root. The inferior root is formed by fibres from spinal nerves C2 and C3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Correct

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries? ...

    Correct

    • The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries?

      Your Answer: Vertebral

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is part of the vertebrobasilar system. It is formed by the confluence of the two vertebral arteries which arise from the subclavian arteries. These two vertebral arteries merge at the level of cranial nerve VI at the junction between the pons and the medulla oblangata to form what is know as the basilar artery. This vertebrobasilar system supplies the upper spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum, and posterior part of brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Correct Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing...

    Correct

    • The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing tumour. The function of which of the following structures will be affected?

      Your Answer: Ciliary muscle

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve (CNIII). It offers motor and parasympathetic innervation to many of the ocular structures. The motor fibres innervate a number of the extraocular muscles. While the parasympathetic fibres supply the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles of the eye, and the sympathetic fibres innervates the superior tarsal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm,...

    Correct

    • The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?

      Your Answer: Marginal

      Explanation:

      The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.

      The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.

      Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.

      The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.

      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A football player sustained an injury to his ankle. The wound went through...

    Correct

    • A football player sustained an injury to his ankle. The wound went through the skin, subcutaneous tissue and flexor retinaculum. Which other structure passing under the retinaculum may be injured?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The flexor retinaculum is immediately posterior to the medial malleolus. The structures that pass under the flexor retinaculum from anterior to posterior are: tendon of the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus. The tibial nerve is the only one which lies behind the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with...

    Correct

    • A victim of mob justice was brought to the A & E with a stab wound in the anterior chest 2 cm lateral to the left sternal border. He underwent an emergency thoracotomy that revealed clots in the pericardium, with a puncture wound in the right ventricle. To evacuate the clots from the pericardial cavity the surgeon slipped his hand behind the heart at its apex. He extended his finger upwards until its tip was stopped by a line of pericardial reflection which forms the:

      Your Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus

      Explanation:

      Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this space.

      Cardiac notch: indentation of the ‘of the heart’ on the superior lobe of the left lung.

      Hilar reflection: the reflection of the pleura onto the root of the lung to continue as mediastinal pleura.

      Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.

      Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      111.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain? ...

    Correct

    • Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
      The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Correct

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over...

    Correct

    • Which of these infectious agents tends to affect people under 20 and over 40 years old, can cause acute encephalitis with cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages, along with haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe. A lumbar puncture will reveal clear cerebrospinal fluid with an elevated lymphocyte count?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhagic lesions of the temporal lobe are typical of Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE). It tends to affect patients aged under 20 or over 40 years, and is often fatal if left untreated. In acute encephalitis, cerebral oedema and petechial haemorrhages occur and direct viral invasion of the brain usually damages neurones. The majority of cases of herpes encephalitis are caused by herpes simplex virus-1 (HSV-1), and about 10% of cases of herpes encephalitis are due to HSV-2, which is typically spread through sexual contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of circadian rhythm

      Correct Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph...

    Correct

    • A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal...

    Correct

    • What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (21/22) 95%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Head & Neck (10/10) 100%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Neurology (6/8) 75%
Physiology (1/3) 33%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Thorax (4/4) 100%
Pathology (5/5) 100%
Abdomen (2/2) 100%
Passmed