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  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Emergency caesarean delivery

      Correct Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Where is fetal DHEA produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is fetal DHEA produced?

      Your Answer: Adrenals

      Explanation:

      DHEA is formed in the mother’s adrenal gland as well as the fetal adrenal glands. These weak androgens are transported by the blood to the placenta and are converted into oestradiol, estrone and estriol in the trophoblast.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks. Although the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, if infection does occur earlier, particularly before 10 weeks, then complications are typically more severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Fibrinogen is activated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Explanation:

      Fibrinogen is activated by thrombin which converts it into fibrin which forms a mesh to trap red blood cells and form a clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies.

      A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules.

      Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements regarding hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women at...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding hormone replacement therapy in postmenopausal women at the age of 55 is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It is not recommended for treating postmenopausal women presenting with osteoporosis who are older than 60 to 65 years and where the management of osteoporosis is the only concern

      Correct Answer: Combination with Alendronate is usually encouraged

      Explanation:

      Taking hormone replacement therapy for more than 5 years can increase the risk of developing breast cancer. HRT is not recommended as treatment for osteoporosis alone in postmenopausal women older than 60. Raloxifene reduces risk of vertebral fracture in post menopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
    Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy.
      Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine.
      What would be your advice to her?

      Your Answer: Considering to start Oral hypoglycemic agents

      Correct Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks

      Explanation:

      Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
      An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.

      It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.

      Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.

      Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal lady presents to antenatal clinic at 19 weeks of her gestation.

      This is considered as the best time for which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Amniocentesis

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Between 18-20 weeks of gestation is the best time to perform an ultrasound for the identification of any physical or anatomical abnormalities including neural tube defects.

      Maternal serum screening for Down syndrome is best performed between 15-17 weeks of pregnancy and this screening includes analysis of alpha fetoprotein, estriol, and beta-HCG in maternal blood. Conducting tests on accurate dates is necessary to obtain reliable results.

      Amniocentesis which is very accurate for the diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies including Down syndrome, is best performed between 16-18 weeks of gestation and it carries a risk of 1 in 200 for miscarriage. Rh negative women will need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      Chorionic villus sampling is best performed between 10-12 weeks of gestation and carries a 1 in 100 risk of miscarriage, this test is also very much accurate for diagnosis of chromosomal anomalies. Rh negative women need Rh D immunoglobulin (anti-D).

      It is best to perform rubella screen before conception than during pregnancy, this is because rubella vaccine is not recommended to be given to a pregnant mother as its a live vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 47-year-old woman is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy(HRT) after...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy(HRT) after her menopause. She's still having normal menstrual cycles and hasn't experienced any hot flashes or other issues. She is especially concerned about Alzheimer's disease (AD), as her mother was diagnosed with the condition at the age of 75 and is now confined to a nursing facility. Which of the following is the best piece of advice about using HRT and the risk of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: HRT given from the time of menopause at the age of approximately 50 years, reduces the decline of cognitive function, often seen as an early manifestation of AD.

      Explanation:

      Although there have been some mixed results regarding the use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and the prevalence of Alzheimer’s disease (AD), there is little question that HRT started during menopause lowers cognitive decline, which is a common early symptom of AD.
      This is in contrast to the effect shown when HRT is started at the age of 60-65, when the risk of Alzheimer’s disease rises.
      There are no statistics on the effect of HRT on the incidence of Alzheimer’s disease when it is started before menopause, but it is apparent that it does not slow the progression of the disease or make advanced dementia less severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by: ...

    Correct

    • Luteal phase deficiency is characterised by:

      Your Answer: Has inadequate luteal progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase occurs after the ovulation. Luteal defect means that the luteal phase is shorter than 10 days and women will find it difficult to sustain the pregnancy. There is decreased progesterone, LH and FSH production in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the RCOG advice regarding timing of Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin following abortion?

      Your Answer: Anti-D IgG must be given at time of abortion

      Correct Answer: Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

      Explanation:

      All non-sensitised RhD negative women should receive Anti-D IgG within 72 hours following abortion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where...

    Correct

    • The arcuate line forms part of the border of the pelvic brim. Where is it located?

      Your Answer: Ilium

      Explanation:

      Arcuate means ‘bow shaped’ and there are different arcuate lines in anatomical terms. Regarding the pelvic brim this is composed of the arcuate line of the ilium, pectineal line and prominences of sacrum and pubic symphysis (as demonstrated in the images below). As can be seen the arcuate line is a smooth rounded border on the internal surface of the ilium inferior to the iliac fossa and Iliacus. Image sourced from Wikipedia Note: The pelvic outlet is also called the inferior aperture. The pelvic brim is the superior aperture

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?...

    Correct

    • Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?

      Your Answer: 110-160

      Explanation:

      The normal fetal heart rate is between 110-150 bpm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered complications of gestational trophoblastic disease, except:

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a group of tumours defined by abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Trophoblast cells produce human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).

      GTD is divided into hydatidiform moles (contain villi) and other trophoblastic neoplasms (lack villi). The non-molar or malignant forms of GTD are called gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN).
      Hydatidiform mole (HM) is associated with abnormal gametogenesis and/or fertilization. Risk factors include extremes of age, ethnicity, and a prior history of an HM which suggests a genetic basis for its aetiology.

      GTD is best managed by an interprofessional team that includes nurses and pharmacists. Patients with molar pregnancies must be monitored for associated complications including hyperthyroidism, pre-eclampsia, and ovarian theca lutein cysts. Molar pregnancy induced hyperthyroidism should resolve with the evacuation of the uterus, but patients may require beta-adrenergic blocking agents before anaesthesia to reverse effects of thyroid storm. Pre-eclampsia also resolves quickly after the evacuation of the uterus. Theca lutein cysts will regress spontaneously with falling beta-HCG levels. However, patients must be counselled on signs and symptoms of ovarian torsion and ruptured ovarian cysts.

      A single uterine evacuation has no significant effect on future fertility, and pregnancy outcomes in subsequent pregnancies are comparable to that of the general population, despite a slight increased risk of developing molar pregnancy again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago.

      She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure.

      Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.

      Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.

      Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is associated with reduced milk production whilst breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Cabergoline

      Explanation:

      Domperidone and metoclopramide are D2 dopamine receptor antagonists. They are primarily used to promote gastric motility. They are also known as galactagogues and they promote the production of milk. Cabergoline and bromocriptine are prolactin inhibitors and they reduce milk production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help to protect neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Maternal exposure to dietary factors during pregnancy can influence embryonic development and may modulate the phenotype of offspring through epigenetic programming. Folate is critical for nucleotide synthesis, and preconceptional intake of dietary folic acid (FA) is credited with reduced incidences of neural tube defects in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old women has a transvaginal ultrasound reported as showing a 6cm x 5cm cystic mass of the right ovary with multiple septa noted and varying degrees of echogenicity within locules. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mucinous cystadenoma

      Explanation:

      The characteristics of the mucinous cystic adenoma of the ovaries is the presence of a large tumour which is multicystic and the penetration of the peritoneum into the cavities forming septas. The serous tumours can only be differentiated on the bases of the contents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?

      Your Answer: CA 125

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.

    On speculum...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with a complaint of blood-stained vaginal discharge.

      On speculum examination, her ectocervix and vagina show signs of atrophy.

      No evidence of malignant cells is seen on cervical cytology, although no endocervical cells were visualised.

      Choose the most suitable next step for management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness.

      Correct Answer: Hysteroscopy and dilatation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic hysteroscopy with dilatation and curettage (D&C) is the most suitable step for immediate management of this patient (correct answer). This would aid in determining if an endometrial lesion exists and enable histologic examination of any endometrium that may be present.
      Assessment of endometrial thickness via ultrasound examination is commonly used to decide if a patient requires D&C. In postmenopausal women, an endometrial thickness of more than 4mm indicates need for D&C.

      However, this method is more beneficial in younger postmenopausal women. In women who are 70 years or older, postmenopausal bleeding should be considered to be due to a malignancy until confirmed otherwise.

      In this patient, a vaginal swab for culture or a colposcopy would not be appropriate.

      Similarly, laparoscopy is not indicated unless the bleeding continued despite a normal hysteroscopy and D&C.

      If the endometrial thickness is less than 4mm, a malignancy is less likely to be present; however, the risk cannot be completely excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with: ...

    Correct

    • The risk of postpartum uterine atony is associated with:

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Multiple studies have identified several risk factors for uterine atony such as polyhydramnios, fetal macrosomia, twin pregnancies, use of uterine inhibitors, history of uterine atony, multiparity, or prolonged labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding the pelvic outlet, what structure marks the posterior boundary? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the pelvic outlet, what structure marks the posterior boundary?

      Your Answer: sacral prominence

      Correct Answer: Tip of the coccyx

      Explanation:

      The bony pelvis is made up of a girdle with a central canal. The rim that surrounds the upper opening of the canal is called the pelvic inlet, while the lower rim is the called the pelvic outlet. The pelvic outlet is diamond-shaped and is bounded posteriorly by the tip of the sacrum, and anteriorly by the pubic symphysis, with its lateral boundaries being the ischial tuberosities and the sacrotuberous ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant woman visits to you at 17 weeks of gestation with complaint of eruption or rash, followed by a 2-day history of malaise, low grade fever and rhinorrhea. You suspect measles and order serology tests for her.

      Serology report shows that lgM against measles is positive with a negative lgG.

      Among the following which is the most appropriate next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Contact tracing

      Explanation:

      The given case scenario describes a typical case of measles in a pregnant woman, which is confirmed by serologic studies. Positive lgM in serology is suggestive of acute infection, while a negative lgG confirms that the infection is in early phase without any seroconversion.
      Conservative management of the symptoms and its potential complications is the only management plan therapeutically available after contracting measles. ‘Notification’ and contact tracing are the other very important issues to be considered.
      Measles is a notifiable disease and healthcare professionals are mandated on reporting all the identified cases of measles to the authorized public health units. The main objective of this notification is to conduct a contact tracing.

      MMR vaccine is not useful once measles is contracted, as the vaccine is used for prevention of measles and as prophylaxis in post-exposure cases. For those with contact to a case of measles, MMR vaccine within 72 hours of contact may have a protective effect, but all measles-containing vaccines like MMR and MM RV are contraindicated throughout pregnancy even as prophylaxis.

      As the circulating maternal antibodies will cross placenta and enters into the fetal circulation, a positive test does not confirm infection in the fetus. So serologic testing of the fetus is not useful.

      NHIG is not useful in treating an established case of measles, as it is used as a post-measles exposure prophylactic for patients such as pregnant women, premature babies, etc who are contraindicated to MMR vaccine.

      As both symptoms and lgM levels indicate measles infection, repeating measles-specific serologic test is not useful in this case. In general no test is indicated, unless its result has an impact on the further management of the case or any prognostic value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.

      On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.

      Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.

      A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.

      Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption

      Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.

      The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone is responsible for contraction of myoepithelial cells in lactation?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is responsible for the let down mechanism that occurs during breast feeding in which the myothelial cells contract and push the milk into the ductules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The midwife asks for your advice about a 33 year old woman who...

    Correct

    • The midwife asks for your advice about a 33 year old woman who she has just seen at her booking appointment. The patient had an uncomplicated pregnancy 10 years ago. This is her second pregnancy. There is no significant personal or family history. On examination the patients blood pressure is 120/75, BMI 32.5kg/m2. The midwife asks your advice on testing for gestational diabetes. What would you advise?

      Your Answer: OGTT at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future.

      What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      It is important to be aware of which ant-epileptics induce cytochrome P450. Of the above Topiramate and Phenytoin are moderate and strong inducers respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both...

    Correct

    • The ovaries produce androgen and progesterone. What is the common precursor for both of these hormones?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol is the common precursor for progesterone and androgen production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge....

    Correct

    • You see a 23 year old women in clinic complaining of vaginal discharge. The lab phone to tell you microscopy and staining shows a gram negative diplococcus. Which organism is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      The most common gram negative diplococci include Neisseria, haemophilus and Moraxella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 115 g/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin decreases from 13.3 g/dL to 10.5 g/dL from the start of pregnancy i.e. First trimester till the 3rd trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old women wants to speak to you regarding infections in pregnancy. Her two year old son has sensorineural deafness as a result of infection in her previous pregnancy. What was the most likely infection?

      Your Answer: CMV

      Explanation:

      TORCH infections are responsible for perinatal complications. CMV is the most common amongst them. Primary infection often produces no symptoms or mild non-specific flu-like symptoms in the mother. The diagnosis is often made after abnormalities are seen in the foetus on ultrasound scan. The main features seen in an affected foetus are FGR, microcephaly, ventriculomegaly, ascites or hydrops. Some foetuses which are infected may not show any features on ultrasound, but may later be found to have neurological damage such as blindness, deafness or developmental delay. The neonate can also be anaemic and thrombocytopenic, with hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice and a purpureal rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • Tamoxifen is associated with an increased risk of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen is an oestrogen antagonist in breast tissue but it acts as a partial oestrogen agonist on the endometrium increasing the risk of hyperplasia and has been linked to endometrial cancer. Tamoxifen improves bone density in post-menopausal women. It is an off license treatment for gynaecomastia. Reduced lactation is a potential side effect of Tamoxifen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?...

    Incorrect

    • In the earliest phase of wound healing platelets are held together by what?

      Your Answer: Type 2 Collagen

      Correct Answer: Fibrin

      Explanation:

      The 1st stage of wound healing is haemostasis. Even in incised wounds a small haematoma forms. Here the clotting cascade is activated by tissue factor and endothelial cells resulting in activation of platelets. This results in platelet aggregation and the laying down of a fibrin mesh that is cross linked and holds the platelets in place.
      Wound healing is typically divided into phases:
      1. Haemostasis Phase
      2. Inflammatory phase
      3. Proliferation phase
      4. Remodelling phase

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old, 16 week pregnant patient presents with vaginal discharge. There is heavy growth of N. gonorrhoea as shown on swabs taken. Which treatment course is most advisable?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2 g oral as a single dose

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone 1 mg intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is a diplococcus bacteria known to infect the female genital tract. The bacteria is sexually transmitted and can cause an ascending infection in the uterus and fallopian tubes. According to the BASHH guidelines (British Association for Sexual Health and HIV), indication for therapy include confirmation of intracellular diplococci on microscopy or a confirmed positive NAAT. Treatment of gonorrhoea in pregnancy is as follows: Ceftriaxone 1g intramuscularly as a single dose with azithromycin 2g oral as a single dose. Pregnant individuals are not to be treated with quinolones or tetracyclines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is already in her second pregnancy and is 22 weeks pregnant. She presented to the medical clinic for evaluation of a vulval ulcer. A swab was taken and revealed a diagnosis of herpes simplex type II (HSV-2) infection. She was surprised about this diagnosis since neither she nor her husband has ever had this infection before. She insisted on knowing the source of the infection and was very concerned about her baby’s well-being and she asked how her condition may affect the baby.

      Which of the following statements is considered true regarding her situation?

      Your Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes can be asymptomatic or have mild symptoms that go unrecognized. When symptoms occur, genital herpes is characterised by one or more genital or anal blisters or ulcers. Additionally, symptoms of a new infection often include fever, body aches and swollen lymph nodes.

      HSV-2 is mainly transmitted during sex through contact with genital or anal surfaces, skin, sores or fluids of someone infected with the virus. HSV-2 can be transmitted even if the skin looks normal and is often transmitted in the absence of symptoms.

      In rare circumstances, herpes (HSV-1 and HSV-2) can be transmitted from mother to child during delivery, causing neonatal herpes. Neonatal herpes can occur when an infant is exposed to HSV during delivery. Neonatal herpes is rare, occurring in an estimated 10 out of every 100 000 births globally. However, it is a serious condition that can lead to lasting neurologic disability or death. The risk for neonatal herpes is greatest when a mother acquires HSV for the first time in late pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy in a baby born with shoulder dystocia who suffered...

    Correct

    • You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy in a baby born with shoulder dystocia who suffered a brachial plexus injury. Which of the following nerve roots are likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal shoulder impacts on the maternal symphysis or sacrum during vaginal delivery. About 10% of babies with shoulder dystocia will suffer a brachial plexus injury, the most common one being Erb-Duchenne palsy. In Erb’s palsy, the upper nerve roots C5 and C6 are damaged due to excessive widening of the angle between the head and the shoulder. This causing temporary paralysis in the affected arm whereby the infant will present with its hand hanging limp by his side, internal rotation of the forearm, plus wrist and finger flexion. This sign is called the ‘waiter’s tip hand’. The palsy usually resolves spontaneously in a large proportion of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days? ...

    Correct

    • What is the life span of the corpus luteum in days?

      Your Answer: 14-16

      Explanation:

      After the release of the oocyte, the theca and the granulosa cells form the corpus luteum which undergoes extensive vascularization for continued steroidogenesis. Progesterone is secreted by the luteal cells and is synthesized from cholesterol. The luteal phase lasts for 14 days and if implantation does not occurs the corpus luteum starts to degenerate. As B-HCG produced by the implanted embryo maintains it and without it luteolysis occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain.

      On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate.

      Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.

      Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.

      In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.

      In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.

      An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.

      In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Changing of cervical mucous to thick and scanty

      Correct Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin

      Explanation:

      An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: It has been shown to reduce perinatal mortality

      Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits

      Explanation:

      Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • High levels of alpha feto protein are found in all, EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels elevated: Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly); Omphalocele; Gastroschisis.

      Pregnant maternal serum AFP low levels: Down syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia with incidence rates in the UK approximately 30 per 100,000 The majority of patients are postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the most common cause of sepsis in the puerperium? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cause of sepsis in the puerperium?

      Your Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Significant puerperal pyrexia is defined as a temperature of 38ºC or higher on any two of the first 10 days postpartum, exclusive of the first 24 hours. A mixed flora normally colonizes the vagina with low virulence. Puerperal infection is usually polymicrobial and involves contaminants from the bowel that colonize the perineum and lower genital tract. Following delivery, natural barriers to infection are temporarily removed and therefore organisms with a pathogenic potential can ascend from the lower genital tract into the uterine cavity. Placental separation exposes a large raw area equivalent to an open wound, and retained products of conception and blood clots within the uterus can provide an excellent culture medium for infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is contained within the deep perineal pouch?

      Your Answer: Proximal portion of urethra

      Explanation:

      The proximal portion of urethra in females or membranous urethra in males is in the deep perineal pouch

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      P wave = Atrial depolarisation
      QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
      T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
      U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation

      Explanation:

      Radiotherapy causes ionisation, primarily of water. This leads to hydroxyl and other free radicals being generated. Free radicals are highly reactive and cause DNA damage to cells via their reactions with them. Free radicals are relatively short lived and eventually form stable compounds. The DNA damage leads to cellular death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner because of secondary amenorrhoea since the last 12 months.

      She has a history of primary infertility

      Of the hormone assays listed in the options, identify the assay that would indicate pregnancy if its result is significantly elevated.

      Your Answer: Serum luteinising hormone {LH).

      Explanation:

      The levels of oestradiol (E2), progesterone, and prolactin (PRL) are all elevated during early pregnancy. However these elevations cannot be solely relied on to determine if pregnancy has occurred since increased levels of these hormones can also occur in pathologic states in non-pregnant women or, in some cases, even during menstrual cycles.

      The levels of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are suppressed in pregnancy because of the elevated E2 and progesterone levels.

      The correct answer is elevated levels of luteinising hormone (LH). This is because the beta sub-units of LH and human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) are almost identical and therefore, hCG is measured as LH in almost all LH assays (correct answer).

      The LH levels can be slightly raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome; however, it is unlikely that the levels would increase above 30 mIU/mL in this condition.

      The mid-cycle levels of LH can go up to 100-150 mIU/mL. If the levels are more than 200 mlU/mL, it usually indicates pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers...

    Correct

    • All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Correct

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as ...

    Correct

    • Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is Adenomyosis. If endometrial tissue is found at a distant site to the uterus it is termed endometriosis. Fibroids are smooth muscle tumours (Leiomyoma’s) sometimes called myoma’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:

      Your Answer: Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Ovulation in the menstrual cycle usually occurs over 4 days. There is an increase in basal body temperature at the time of ovulation due to the effect of progesterone.

      A high Day 21 progesterone level indicates ovulation and the release of an egg.

      Dysmenorrhea is described as painful menstruation. The symptoms start at the time of ovulation and persist till menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      The principal screening test for detecting maternal HBV infection is the serologic identification of HBsAg. Screening should be performed in each pregnancy, regardless of previous HBV vaccination or previous negative HBsAg test results.

      A test for HBsAg should be ordered at the first prenatal visit. Women with unknown HBsAg status or with new or continuing risk factors for HBV infection (e.g., injection drug use or a sexually transmitted infection) should be screened at the time of admission to a hospital or other delivery setting.

      Interventions to prevent perinatal transmission of HBV infection include screening all pregnant women for HBV, vaccinating infants born to HBV-negative mothers within 24 hours of birth, and completing the HBV vaccination series in infants by age 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 28 year old patient is treated for hydatidiform mole with methotrexate. What...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old patient is treated for hydatidiform mole with methotrexate. What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?

      Your Answer: Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is a folic acid antagonist. It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). DHFR catalyses the conversion of dihydrofolate to the active tetrahydrofolate which is required for DNA synthesis. It is either administered as a single intramuscular injection or multiple fixed doses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.

      Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.

      What are your plans for her?

      Your Answer: Antiandrogen pill

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      Hirsutism
      Infertility
      Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      Diabetes
      Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Drugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.

      Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the...

    Correct

    • You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T-score is -1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?

      Your Answer: Osteopenia

      Explanation:

      Her T-score puts her in the osteopenic range. The presence of fragility fractures is more important in the osteoporotic patient. Olecranon fracture is not a typical fragility fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Correct

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old G1P0 patient at 24 weeks of gestation visits your office complaining of some shortness of breath that is more intense with exertion and denies any chest pain. She is concerned as she has always been very athletic and is unable to maintain the same degree of exercise she was accustomed prior to becoming pregnant. Patient also informed she has no significant past medical history and is not on any medication.

      On physical examination, her pulse is 72 beats per minute, with a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg. Cardiac examination is normal and her lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion.

      Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step to pursue in the workup of this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Patient’s presentation and physical examination findings are most consistent with physiologic dyspnea, which is common during pregnancy. This breathing difficulty which is due to an increase in the tidal volume of lung will present itself as an increased awareness of breathing and can occur as early as the end of first trimester. Any minute increase in the ventilation occurs during pregnancy can make patients feel as if they are hyperventilating and contribute to the feeling of dyspnea.

      Patient should be reassured and educated regarding these normal changes of pregnancy, also should be counselled to modify her exercise regimen accordingly to her changed tolerance.

      Systolic ejection murmurs are due to increased blood flow across the aortic and pulmonic valves which is a normal finding in a pregnancy. So there is no need for this patient to be referred to a cardiologist or to order an ECG.
      About 1 in 6400 pregnancies present with pulmonary embolism and there will be clinical evidence of DVT in many of these cases. Dyspnea, chest pain, apprehension, cough, hemoptysis, and tachycardia are the most common symptoms of PE and physical examination shows accentuated pulmonic closure sound, rales, or a friction rub. If there is a strong suspicion for PE, the patient should be followed up with a ventilation-perfusion scan, which will confirm PE if presented with large perfusion defects and ventilation mismatches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?...

    Correct

    • Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?

      Your Answer: 110-160

      Explanation:

      The normal FHR is 110-160

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Endometriosis is an example of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Endometriosis is an example of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pathological hypertrophy

      Correct Answer: Pathological hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a condition in which the endometrial tissue lies outside the endometrial cavity. There are 4 theories which explain this. First is pathological hyperplasia resulting in menstrual regurgitation and implantation, second is the coelomic epithelium transformation, third is immunogical factors and the fourth is via the lymphatic or vascular spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has...

    Correct

    • A young couple visited your clinic for taking your opinion. The woman has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and is on methotrexate and sulfasalazine; and they are planning to have a baby in next three months.

      What will be the most appropriate management in this patient during her pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate and continue sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis and its prognosis during pregnancy are highly unpredictable, as the disease can improve in 75% of the cases and gets worse in 25%. During conception and pregnancy, it is advisable to avoid those rheumatoid arthritis medications which possess high risk in causing congenital disabilities. Most common such contraindicated remedies include methotrexate and leflunomide.
      Drugs like Prednisone, Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and TNF inhibitors are also not considered safe during pregnancy, so if required these should be used under specialist supervision.

      Sulfasalazine and Antimalarials such as hydroxychloroquine are safe and can be used without much complications during pregnancy. In this given case, the patient should be advised to stop methotrexate and to continue sulfasalazine during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.

      Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.

      In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?

      Your Answer: Give anti-D now

      Explanation:

      As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.

      Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
      eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
      In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.

      All the other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old pregnant woman presents to the clinic for a routine check-up. She is at the 5th week of gestation. Except for morning nausea, she denies any problems with her pregnancy so far. The patient is allergic to penicillin. Physical exam is unremarkable and appropriate for gestational age. Routine screening lab tests were ordered. VDRL screening returned positive and was confirmed by the FTA-ABS test.

      Which of the following is considered the best management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Penicillin allergy skin testing and penicillin desensitization, if necessary

      Explanation:

      Penicillin is the treatment of choice for treating syphilis. For treatment of syphilis during pregnancy, no proven alternatives to penicillin exist. Treatment guidelines recommend desensitization in penicillin-allergic pregnant women, followed by treatment with penicillin. Syphilis in pregnancy is associated with mental retardation, stillbirth and sudden infant death syndrome; therefore it should be treated promptly.

      – Data are insufficient to recommend ceftriaxone for treatment of maternal infection and prevention of congenital syphilis.
      – Erythromycin and azithromycin should not be used, because neither reliably cures maternal infection or treats an infected foetus.
      – Tetracycline and doxycycline are contraindicated in pregnancy and ceftriaxone is much less effective than penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient who is experiencing pelvic pain is being cared for at your clinic. She describes bilateral pain that began gradually and was accompanied by fever, vaginal discharge, and mild dysuria.

      Her pelvic examination demonstrates uterine, adnexal, and cervical motion tenderness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the pain?

      Your Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) refers to acute and subclinical infection of the upper genital tract in women, involving any or all of the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries; this is often accompanied by involvement of the neighbouring pelvic organs. It results in endometritis, salpingitis, oophoritis, peritonitis, perihepatitis, and/or tubo-ovarian abscess.

      Lower abdominal pain is the cardinal presenting symptom in women with PID. The abdominal pain is usually bilateral and rarely of more than two weeks’ duration. The character of the pain is variable, and in some cases, may be quite subtle. The recent onset of pain that worsens during coitus or with jarring movement may be the only presenting symptom of PID. The onset of pain during or shortly after menses is particularly suggestive.

      Other non-specific complaints include urinary frequency and abnormal vaginal discharge.

      Ovarian cyst, uterine leiomyoma, appendicitis or ectopic pregnancy do not present with fever and vaginal discharge although tenderness is noted in appendicitis and ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, these options do not explain the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney? ...

    Incorrect

    • The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) lies within which part of the kidney?

      Your Answer: Renal Pelvis

      Correct Answer: Renal Cortex

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the main site for the production of renin. It plays an important role in the regulation of the blood pressure. These structures are mainly located in the cortex of the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Regarding placental anatomy: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding placental anatomy:

      Your Answer: Fetal blood vessels develop in the mesenchymal core of the chorionic villi

      Explanation:

      The chorionic plate represents the fetal surface of the placenta, which in turn is covered by the amnion. The amnion is composed of a single layered epithelium and the amnionic mesenchyme, an avascular connective tissue. The amnionic mesenchyme is only weakly attached to the chorionic mesenchyme and can easily be removed from the delivered placenta. The chorionic mesenchyme contains the chorionic vessels that are continuous with the vessels of the umbilical cord. Within the mesoderm of secondary villi, haematopoietic progenitor cells develop and start to differentiate. At about day 20 post-conception, first placental blood cells and endothelial cells develop independent of the vascular system of the embryo proper.13 14 The development of first placental vessels transforms the respective villi into tertiary villi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their...

    Correct

    • A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their contraception method, refraining from sexual activity when a pregnancy might otherwise be possible. They want to avoid having a child for the next two years. For the past twelve months, the lady has kept track of her cycles, which have ranged from 26 to 29 days in duration. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: From day 6 to day 17,

      Explanation:

      To provide suitable advice to this couple, the candidate must be aware of the following facts:
      Because the luteal phase is 14 days long, regardless of the follicular phase length, ovulation happens 14 days before the period.
      As a result, ovulation in this lady might have occurred as early as day 12 or as late as day 15 of her cycle.
      In the presence of adequate and normal cervical mucus, sperm survival has been demonstrated to be far longer than previously thought, with intercourse occurring up to 6 days before the known period of ovulation, resulting in pregnancy.
      Intercourse should be stopped six days before the earliest ovulation in this woman (i.e. on day six).
      – It is generally accepted that the ovulated egg can be fertilised for approximately 24-36 hours.
      Intercourse should not be restarted for at least two days after the most recent ovulation.
      This would be day 17 for this woman.
      Between days 6 and 17 of the cycle, abstinence is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old pregnant woman attends clinic for a fetal scan at 31 weeks. She complains of difficulty breathing and a distended belly. U/S scan was done showing polyhydramnios and an absent gastric bubble. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal atresia

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia of the foetus interrupts the normal circulation of the amniotic fluid. This causes polyhydramnios and subsequent distension of the uterus impacting proper expansion of the lungs. This would explain the difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Observation, steroids and antihypertensives

      Explanation:

      Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.

      As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.

      Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.

      Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.

      Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.

      On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.

      Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 25-year old Asian woman comes to your clinic at 36 weeks of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year old Asian woman comes to your clinic at 36 weeks of gestation. She was diagnosed with breech at 32 weeks. She is not in labor and a manual examination of the uterus is suggestive of breech position.

      Which one of the following would be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasonography is performed for confirmation, as well as for the evaluation of maternal pelvis, fetal size and viability in cases were breech presentation is suspected on manual examination. As there is a chance for spontaneous correction of breech presentation into cephalic during 36 to 37 weeks, this should be considered in every future visit. The chances for spontaneous version reduces to 25% if breech position persists beyond this period of time.

      It an external cephalic version should be offered to all women with breech presentation, provided there are no contraindications or indication for cesarean delivery due to other reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - What type of drug is clavulanic acid? ...

    Correct

    • What type of drug is clavulanic acid?

      Your Answer: Beta-lactamase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is most often combined with a penicillin to form Augmentin or Co-amoxiclav for greater antibiotic efficacy. The drug works by irreversibly binding to enzymes present in bacteria which posses the Beta-lactamase enzyme. This enzyme is responsible for inactivating Beta-Lactam antibiotics such as penicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who is pregnant has a blood pressure reading of 160/87 mmHg. You considered Pre-eclampsia. What symptom might be expected in a patient with uncomplicated pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Abnormal liver function tests

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Extreme headache, vision defects, such as blurring of the eyes, rib pain, sudden swelling of the face, hands or feet are all consistent with pre-eclampsia. Women with the mentioned symptoms should have their blood pressure checked immediately. They should also be checked for proteinuria.

      Diarrhoea is not related to pre-eclampsia. Pruritus would be more related to pregnancy cholestasis. Meanwhile, bruising and abnormal LFTs are common in complicated pre-eclampsia but not in an uncomplicated one.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound? ...

    Incorrect

    • What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 4.5 MHz

      Correct Answer: 3.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal...

    Correct

    • Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?

      Your Answer: Foramen Ovale

      Explanation:

      Oxygenation of fetal blood occurs in the placenta before it returns in the umbilical vein which joins the left branch of the portal vein. It bypasses the capillaries of the liver by going through the ductus venosus, which is obliterated after birth and becomes the ligamentum venosum. The oxygenated blood enters the inferior vena cava and is transported to the right atrium and
      then through the patent foramen ovale to the left atrium and on to the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, the blood flows into the aorta and through the fetal vascular network. Blood returning from the head of the foetus passes through the superior vena cava to the right atrium and straight on to the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. However, it does not enter the pulmonary
      circulation, being short-circuited by the ductus arteriosus to the aorta. Aortic blood is carried via the umbilical arteries back to the placenta for reoxygenation. At birth, the three short circuits, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus, close.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the...

    Correct

    • Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?

      Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is known to increase the risk of endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Explanation:

      The risk factors of endometrial cancer include obesity, diabetes, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of colorectal and ovarian carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure? ...

    Correct

    • The median umbilical ligament is a remnant of what structure?

      Your Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      The median umbilical ligament is the remnant of the Urachus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome ...

    Correct

    • Beta and Delta Thalassemia are associated with abnormalities to which chromosome

      Your Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Fetal haemoglobin (HBF) is the main haemoglobin type in the foetus and persists after birth for around 6 months. Fetal haemoglobin is composed of two alpha and two gamma subunits The alpha globulin chain is coded for by genes on Chromosome 16. Alpha Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome16 defects The beta and delta globulin chains are coded for by genes on Chromosome 11. Beta and Delta Thalassemia are therefore associated with Chromosome 11 Defects

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia?

      Your Answer: Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia

      Explanation:

      A type II deceleration is due to placental insufficiency which can result in fetal distress and asphyxia. The fetal heart rate is lowest at the start of the contraction and returns to normal after the contraction is complete.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk...

    Correct

    • Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.

      A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are FALSE? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are FALSE?

      Your Answer: It crosses the Ureter posteriorly

      Explanation:

      The Uterine artery typically arises from the anterior branch of the internal iliac artery. It crosses the ureter ANTERIORLY. It is the primary source of arterial supply to the uterus and its branches anastomose with branches of the ovarian and vaginal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Clotting factor problem

      Explanation:

      Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman with primary infertility presents with secondary amenorrhoea that has been ongoing for twelve months. She states that she has been thinking about starting a family and was wondering if ovulation induction therapy was an option for her.

      Which one of the following would be most valuable in predicting a poor response to ovulation induction therapy?

      Your Answer: Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

      Explanation:

      The tests listed can all be performed during the work-up of a woman with secondary amenorrhoea. They are useful in that they cam diagnosis the most likely cause for the amenorrhoea as well as guide the treatment required if the patient wanted to become pregnant. Of these, the hormone test best able to predict a poor response to ovulation-induction therapy is the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) assay. If there are high levels of FSH, most of the ovulation-induction therapies are ineffective, although the rare spontaneous pregnancy can occur.

      To maximise the chance of pregnancy in patients with elevated FSH levels, the most effective technique is an ovum donation from a young woman. The ovum would be fertilised in the laboratory and transferred to the uterus of the woman with the high FSH level after administering hormonal preparation of her uterus.

      If the FSH level is normal, ovulation-induction therapy is usually effective. For these patients, correction of thyroid function will be necessary if the thyroid function is not normal. Dopamine agonist therapy is indicated if the prolactin level is elevated. Clomiphene or gonadotrophin therapy can be used where the luteinising and oestradiol levels are low, normal, or minimally elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for...

    Correct

    • A pregnant female who is a known diabetic presents to the clinic for a consultation and enquires about the harmful effects of vitamin deficiencies. A deficiency of which vitamin can lead to teratogenic effects in the child?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women need to get enough folic acid. The vitamin is important to the growth of the foetus’s spinal cord and brain. Folic acid deficiency can cause severe birth defects known as neural tube defects. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for folate during pregnancy is 600 micrograms (µg)/day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur? ...

    Correct

    • In relation to ovulation, when does the LH surge occur?

      Your Answer: 24-36 hours before ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation usually occurs on day 14 in a typical 28-day cycle. Luteinizing hormone levels spike as a result of increased oestrogen levels secreted from maturing follicles. This LH spike occurs about 24-36 hours before the release of the oocyte from the mature follicle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment.

      Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - Which is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer?

      Your Answer: Norethisterone

      Explanation:

      Multiple epidemiological risk factors have been identified in patients who have adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.
      – Endogenous factors
      – Obesity
      – Nulliparity
      – An individual who has had a late menopause (aged >52 y)
      – Unopposed oestrogen
      – Tamoxifen
      – Family history
      – Individuals with a family history of endometrial cancer appear to be at increased risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2.  The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle. 

      Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?

      Your Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
      Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
      eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
      Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.

      In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning.  Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation.  In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.

      Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc

      Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.

      Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
      It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
      All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
      Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
      Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
      Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
      Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
      Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
      Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
      This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old pregnant female presented with severe pain in the lower abdomen and excessive vaginal bleeding at 35 weeks gestation. Which of the following investigations should be done?

      Your Answer: US abdomen

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound of abdomen should be done to rule out the cause of the excessive bleeding in this patient, this could confirm the very high suspicion of rupture of the placenta in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right?

      Your Answer: Increased [H+]

      Explanation:

      The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right: Increased temperature Increased H+ (i.e. acidosis) Increased 2,3 DPG Increased pCO2 The following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left: Increasing pCO shifts the curve to the left Decreased temperature Decreased [H+] (alkalosis) Decreased 2,3 DPG The Oxygen Dissociation Curve for fetal haemoglobin lies to the left of the normal adult Oxygen Dissociation Curve as it has a higher affinity for Oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact...

    Correct

    • According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact membranes should be offered amniotomy if there is inadequate progress of the active second stage of labour (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) after how long?

      Your Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Multiparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 30 minutes Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section Nulliparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 2 hours If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:...

    Correct

    • The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm or establish gestational age:

      Your Answer: Crown rump length

      Explanation:

      Fetal ultrasound scanning is considered an essential part of routine antenatal care with first trimester scans recommended for confirming viability, accurate estimation of gestational age and determining the number of foetuses. Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is measured in early pregnancy primarily to determine the gestation age (GA) of a foetus and is most reliable between 9+0 to 13+6 weeks’ gestation, but not beyond.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding feto-maternal blood circulation, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: In the umbilical vein the pressure is approximately 20 mmHg

      Correct Answer: At term the placenta receives 70% of uterine blood flow

      Explanation:

      The placenta is important for regulating feto-maternal blood circulation, ensuring that the two circulatory systems do not come into direct contact. The placenta receives 70-80% of the uterine blood flow into the decidual spiral arteries where nutrient, waste and gaseous exchange with fetal blood takes place via the villous core fetal vessels. Deoxygenated blood arrives at the placenta via two uterine arteries while oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood is circulated back to the foetus via a single umbilical vein. The pressure in the umbilical vein is about 20 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following takes part in the arterial supply of the ovary?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Uterine arteries

      Explanation:

      The ovarian arteries, arising from the abdominal aorta and the ascending uterine arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery all supply the ovaries. They terminate by bifurcating into the ovarian and tubal branches and anastomose with the contralateral branches providing a collateral circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint? ...

    Correct

    • The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint?

      Your Answer: Synovial

      Explanation:

      The SIJ is a synovial joint. The Pubic Symphysis is a Secondary Cartilaginous

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is 36 weeks pregnant comes to see you as she has developed tingling to the right lateral thigh over the past 3 weeks. On examination there are no skin changes and no muscle weakness. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral Nerve entrapment

      Correct Answer: Meralgia Paraesthetica

      Explanation:

      Raised pressure with the pelvis can cause a number of nerve entrapment syndromes. This is entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (or lateral femoral cutaneous nerve) also known as Meralgia Paraesthetica. Pregnancy is a risk factor. Shingles can effect this nerve but the rash would usually present itself within 14days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge.  She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence.  She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria. 

      On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted.  Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus. 

      Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application

      Explanation:

      Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.

      Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.

      An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.

      In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.

      To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.

      Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.

      Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.

      Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the muscles assessed by urodynamic testing?

      Your Answer: Detrusor and urethral sphincter muscles

      Explanation:

      Urodynamics is a broad term that comprises cytometry, urethral pressure measurement, leak point pressure, pressure flow studies, EMG and videourodynamics. They assess the function of the bladder and urethra as a functional unit. This may provide information such as the site of bladder outlet obstruction, overactivity of the detrusor and sphincter weakness. In muscular terms the detrusor and sphincter muscles are being assessed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - Engagement of the foetus can be defined as: ...

    Correct

    • Engagement of the foetus can be defined as:

      Your Answer: When the greatest biparietal diameter of the fetal head passes the pelvic inlet

      Explanation:

      Engagement means when the fetal head enters the pelvic brim/inlet and it usually takes place 2 weeks before the estimated delivery date i.e. at 38 weeks of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - The inferior 1/3 of the rectum is principally supplied by which artery? ...

    Correct

    • The inferior 1/3 of the rectum is principally supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Middle rectal artery

      Explanation:

      Remember the inferior rectal artery supplies the anus. The middle rectal artery is the principle supply to the lower 1/3 rectum. The rectal arteries do form an anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old lady at 16 weeks of gestation who had histories of second-trimester pregnancy losses, presented with backache and pre-menstrual-like cramping along with increased vaginal discharge for the past one week.

      Pelvic examination shows that her cervix is dilated by 4 cm and effaced 80%.

      What will be the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cervical insufficiency

      Explanation:

      This woman has signs and symptoms suggestive of cervical insufficiency, whose clinical features include pelvic pressure, premenstrual-like cramping and backache with increased vaginal discharge. Usually these symptoms will persist for several days to weeks.
      Cervical insufficiency is seen between 14 – 20 weeks of gestation, which is presented as soft effaced cervix, with minimal dilation on physical examination and a 4 cm dilated and more than 80% effaced cervix will be the clinical presentation in a more advanced case.

      Placental abruption presents with painful vaginal bleeding, whereas Placenta Previa presents as painless vaginal bleeding. Both cases will lead to shock but will not show any features of cervical insufficiency.

      Anaemia, polyhydramnios, large for gestational age uterus and severe hyperemesis gravidarum are the commonly associated symptoms of a twin pregnancies.

      New menstrual cycle after an abortion is expected to be presented with cervical dilation however signs of effacement will not be present along with it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.

      Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis?

      Your Answer: 14+0 weeks

      Correct Answer: 15+0 weeks

      Explanation:

      The best time to perform amniocentesis is at the gestational age of 15 weeks or more. There is increased risk of abortion, respiratory problems and fetal talipes if amniocentesis is performed before the gestational age of 14 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 year old lady presents to the gynaecology clinic with a one month history of vulval soreness and lumps. She smokes several packs of tobacco cigarettes a day. A biopsy confirms vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia. What is her risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Vulvar Intraepithelial Neoplasia (VIN) is a non-invasive squamous type lesion that carries a 15% chance of developing into squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection, or chronic inflammatory conditions such as lichen sclerosis and lichen planus, can cause changes in the basal cells of the vulvar epithelium. Other risk factors of VIN include multiple sexual partners, cigarette smoking, and immunocompromised states. Diagnosis is by clinical examination and a biopsy confirms neoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 26 year old patient following her first visit to antenatal clinic. She is 9 weeks pregnant and bloods have shown her to be non-immune to Rubella. She is concerned about congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). What is the most appropriate advice to give?

      Your Answer: Advise vaccination after birth regardless of breast feeding status

      Explanation:

      Congenital rubella infection that occurs after 16 weeks gestation does not typically cause fetal abnormalities. This however plays no part in vaccination advice. Rubella vaccine is live and should not be given during pregnancy. The mother should be offered vaccination after giving birth. It is safe for the vaccine (typically given as combined MMR) to be administered if the mother is breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?...

    Correct

    • Which period during pregnancy has the highest risk of maternal-fetal Toxoplasma Gondii transmission?

      Your Answer: 26-40 weeks

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasma Gondii is an intracellular parasite which is excreted in cat faeces and then transferred to humans through secondary hosts. During pregnancy, it can be transmitted to the neonate. The risk of transplacental transmission from mother to foetus is greater in later pregnancy i.e. 26-40 weeks but during this time period it is less dangerous as compare to the transmission during 0-10 weeks of gestation. It may lead to abortion, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications, cerebral palsy and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta...

    Correct

    • A newborn male infant, born to a 30-year-old gravida 3 para 0 aborta 2 woman, who did not receive any prenatal care, is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit for growth restriction. The mother who presented for labor at approximately 38 weeks of gestation, had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery due to fetal heart rate abnormalities. 

      The newborn's Apgar scores were 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively and his weight was 2.5 kg.  Physical examination shows microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft palate and hypoplasia of the distal phalanges.

      A history of which of the following will be obtained on further evaluation of the mother?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin use

      Explanation:

      This infant will most likely be diagnosed as having fetal hydantoin syndrome, which occurs due to an in utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine, valproate etc. 

      Multiple antiepileptics, due to their ability to cross placenta, have teratogenic effects which will result in low folate and high oxidative metabolite levels in the fetus. This likely combined effect results deformities like cleft lip and palate, wide anterior fontanelle, distal phalangeal hypoplasia and cardiac anomalies like pulmonary stenosis, aortic stenosis etc in the fetus. There will be developmental delay and poor cognitive outcomes as a result of neural tube defects and microcephaly associated with this. Therefore, prior to conception, those patients who require antiepileptics for seizure control during pregnancy should titrate it to the lowest dose and must started on high-dose (4 mg) folic acid supplementation to minimize the risk of such congenital malformations.

      Fetal alcohol syndrome commonly presents with microcephaly and midfacial hypoplasia, but is not association with cleft lip or palate.

      Cocaine use during pregnancy can be associated with preterm delivery, abruptio placentae and fetal growth restriction; but there is no evidence to prove its association with congenital defects.

      Fetal renal failure with associated oligohydramnios that results in pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, and limb defects are the complications associated with the use of lisinopril and other angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors during pregnancy; but it does not cause cleft lip or palate.

      Most infants with congenital syphilis are asymptomatic at birth and those with symptoms typically have rhinitis or “snuffles, hepatomegaly and a maculopapular rash none of which are seen in this patient.

      Fetal hydantoin syndrome results from the in-utero exposure to antiepileptic drugs like phenytoin, carbamazepine etc and is usually presented with microcephaly, a wide anterior fontanelle, cleft lip and palate, and distal phalangeal hypoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - What is the average lifespan of a basophil (white blood cell)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average lifespan of a basophil (white blood cell)?

      Your Answer: 30 days

      Correct Answer: 3-4 days

      Explanation:

      Basophils are granulocytic white blood cells. They express IgE antibody on their surface and react to release prostaglandins and leukotrienes to mediate an inflammatory, allergic reaction.
      Blood Cell Lifespans:
      Red Blood Cells 120 days
      Platelets 5-9 days
      White blood cells 2-5 days

      Neutrophils (up to 5 days)
      Basophils (2 to 3 days)
      Eosinophils (2 to 5 days)
      Monocytes (1 to 5 days)
      Lymphocytes (variable)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence? ...

    Correct

    • Evidence from meta-analysis of RCTs is what level of evidence?

      Your Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      The levels of evidence range from I-IV:
      1a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) or metanalysis of randomized controlled trials: highest level of evidence.
      1b: Individual randomized controlled trial (with narrow confidence interval)
      1c: All or none randomized controlled trials
      2a: Systematic reviews (with homogeneity) of cohort studies
      2b: Individual cohort study or low quality randomized controlled trials (e.g. <80% follow-up)
      2c: Outcomes Research; ecological studies
      3a: Systematic review (with homogeneity) of case-control studies
      3b: Individual case-control study
      4: Case series (and poor quality cohort and case-control studies)
      5: Expert opinion without explicit critical appraisal, or based on physiology, bench research or first principles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old 'grand multiparous' woman, who has previously delivered seven children by normal vaginal delivery, spontaneously delivers a live baby weighing 4750gm one hour ago after a three-hour long labour period. Shortly after, an uncomplicated third stage of labour, she goes into shock (pulse 140/min, BP 80/50 mmHg). At the time of delivery, total blood loss was noted at 500mL, and has not been excessive since then. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine rupture.

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffered a uterine rupture. It occurs most often in multiparous women and is less often associated with external haemorrhage. Shock develops shortly after rupture due to the extent of concealed bleeding.

      Uterine inversion rarely occurs when after a spontaneous and normal third stage of labour. Although it can lead to shock, it is usually associated with a history of controlled cord traction or Dublin method of placenta delivery before the uterus has contracted. This diagnosis is also strongly considered when shock is out of proportion to the amount of blood loss.

      An overwhelming infection is unlikely in this case when labour occurred for a short period of time. Uterine atony and amniotic fluid embolism are more associated with excessive vaginal bleeding, which is not evident in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - Regarding CTG (cardiotocography) analysis what is the normal range for variability? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding CTG (cardiotocography) analysis what is the normal range for variability?

      Your Answer: 5-25 bpm

      Explanation:

      Fetal hypoxia may cause absent, increased or decreased variability. Other causes of decreased variability include: normal fetal sleep-wake pattern, prematurity and following maternal administration of certain drugs including opioids.

      Variability Range:
      Normal – 5 bpm – 25bpm
      Increased – >25 bpm
      Decreased – <5 bpm
      Absent – <2 bpm

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - 48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test...

    Incorrect

    • 48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?

      Your Answer: Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
      10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis? ...

    Correct

    • During pregnancy which hormone(s) inhibit lactogenesis?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen and Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Prolactin levels rise steadily during pregnancy during which time it promotes mammary growth (along with the other hormones mentioned below). Oestrogen and progesterone inhibit lactogenesis and it is only with the loss of these placental steroid hormones at term that Prolactin exhibits its lactogenic effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin < 115 g/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately ...

    Correct

    • Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately

      Your Answer: 750ml/min

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - Which of the following inhibit Glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following inhibit Glucagon?

      Your Answer: Uraemia

      Explanation:

      Glucagon release is inhibited by increased blood glucose, ketones, free fatty
      acids, insulin, raised urea levels and somatostatin. Glucagon is produced by alpha cells of the pancreas and increases the plasma glucose level by stimulating glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Turner's syndrome is characterised by : ...

    Correct

    • Turner's syndrome is characterised by :

      Your Answer: Streak ovaries

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome, a condition that affects only females, results when one of the X chromosomes (sex chromosomes) is missing or partially missing. Turner syndrome can cause a variety of medical and developmental problems, including short height, failure of the ovaries to develop and heart defects. Streak ovaries are a form of ovarian dysgenesis and are associated with Turner syndrome. Occasionally they may be functional and secondary sexual characteristics may develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - APGAR's score includes all the following, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • APGAR's score includes all the following, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Blood pH

      Explanation:

      Elements of the Apgar score include colour, heart rate, reflexes, muscle tone, and respiration. Apgar scoring is designed to assess for signs of hemodynamic compromise such as cyanosis, hypoperfusion, bradycardia, hypotonia, respiratory depression or apnoea. Each element is scored 0 (zero), 1, or 2. The score is recorded at 1 minute and 5 minutes in all infants with expanded recording at 5-minute intervals for infants who score 7 or less at 5 minutes, and in those requiring resuscitation as a method for monitoring response. Scores of 7 to 10 are considered reassuring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - What is the male infertility rate in CF patients? ...

    Correct

    • What is the male infertility rate in CF patients?

      Your Answer: 98%

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is the most common fetal genetic disease in Caucasians and has an autosomal recessive inheritance. It is caused by an abnormal chloride channel due to a defect in the CFTR gene. Complications range from haemoptysis, respiratory failure, biliary cirrhosis, diabetes and male infertility. Men with CF are infertile in 98% of the cases due to failure of development of the vas deference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is fetal nutrition dependant on?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Fetal nutrition is dependant upon multiple factors such as maternal nutritional state, quality of maternal diet, malnutrition, anorexia nervosa, metabolic rate of the mother or whether they suffer from malabsorption syndrome or other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer: Internal anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The internal anal sphincter is innervated by the splanchnic nerves. Sympathetic nerve supply from the inferior hypogastric plexus (for contraction) and parasympathetic supply from nervi erigentes (for relaxation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - What is the normal pH value of an umbilical arterial sample of a...

    Correct

    • What is the normal pH value of an umbilical arterial sample of a new born term baby?

      Your Answer: 7.2

      Explanation:

      The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, and preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4. A pH below 7.1 therefore indicates acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile...

    Correct

    • You review a patient in the fertility clinic. The ultrasound and biochemical profile are consistent with PCOS. She has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. You plan to initiate Clomiphene. According to NICE guidance how long should treatment continue for (assuming patient remains non-pregnant)?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Treatment with Clomiphene should not exceed 6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Hysterectomy

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - How long does involution of the uterus take after parturition? ...

    Incorrect

    • How long does involution of the uterus take after parturition?

      Your Answer: 24-72 hours

      Correct Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      In the period immediately after the delivery of the placenta, known as the puerperium, the female reproductive system begins to undergo some physiological changes to return to a non-pregnant state. One of these changes is uterine involution. The myometrium contracts, constricting blood vessels which impedes blood flow. It is thought that the uterine tissues then undergo apoptosis and autophagy. It takes about 4-6 weeks for the uterus to decrease is size from about 1 kg to 60 grams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average volume of blood loss during the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: 35-40ml

      Explanation:

      Normal menstrual blood loss is about 40-45 ml. More than 80 ml per period is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the...

    Correct

    • After a vaginal delivery, a patient suffers a perineal tear. On examination the laceration involves the external anal sphincter and has partially torn the internal anal sphincter. Which of the following classifies this tear?

      Your Answer: 3c

      Explanation:

      During childbearing the vagina and perineum are prone to lacerations that may involve the skin or can extend into the anal sphincter complex. It is important to be able to identify obstetric and anal sphincter injuries to provide adequate care and prevent complications. In the classification of obstetric tears according to RCOG guidelines:

      First degree tear: injury to the perineal skin and/or the vaginal mucosa
      Second degree tears: Injury to perineum involving perineal muscles but not the anal sphincter.
      Third-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex:
      Grade 3a tear: Less than 50% of external anal sphincter (EAS) thickness torn.
      Grade 3b tear: More than 50% of EAS thickness torn.
      Grade 3c tear: Both EAS and internal anal sphincter (IAS) torn.
      Fourth-degree tear: Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (EAS and IAS)
      and anorectal mucosa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence ...

    Incorrect

    • Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence

      Your Answer: I

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Level I: Evidence obtained from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial. Level II-1: Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization. Level II-2: Evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one centre or research group. Level II-3: Evidence obtained from multiple time series designs with or without the intervention. Dramatic results in uncontrolled trials might also be regarded as this type of evidence. Level III: Opinions of respected authorities, based on clinical experience, descriptive studies, or reports of expert committees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease.

      Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy.

      Explanation:

      This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.

      The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the failure rate of tubal sterilization?

      Your Answer: 1 in 5000

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tubal sterilization is a safe and effective surgical procedure that permanently prevents pregnancy. However, pregnancy can occur in 1 in 200 cases, according to international sources. In the 1st year after tubal sterilization, the estimated failure rate is 0.1-0.8% respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Regarding electronic fetal monitoring, which one of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding electronic fetal monitoring, which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Has high specificity but low sensitivity

      Correct Answer: Has low specificity but high sensitivity

      Explanation:

      There are different ways of monitoring fetal heart rate during pregnancy. It can be done by just auscultation or by electronic fetal heart rate monitoring which is done with the help of an ultrasound machine and has a low specificity but high sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome occurs in approximately 1 in every 20,000 live female births

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of affected foetuses will survive to term

      Explanation:

      The incidence of 45,XO turner syndrome is around 1 in 8000 live births. Approximately 1% of monosomy X female embryos survive. Phenotypically they are females and 90% do not develop secondary sexual characteristics and hormone replacement is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old lady with known stage III cervical cancer presents to A&E with lower abdominal and unilateral flank pain. From the following list what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ureteric Obstruction

      Explanation:

      In stage III cervical cancer there is involvement of the pelvic wall and ureter which may result in abdominal pain and hydronephrosis.

      2010 FIGO classification of cervical carcinoma

      Stage
      0 – Carcinoma in situ
      1 – Confined to the cervix (diagnosed microscopy)
      1A1 – Less than 3mm depth & 7mm lateral spread
      1A2 – 3mm to 5mm depth & less than 7mm lateral spread
      1B1 – Clinically visible lesion or greater than A2 & less than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      1B2 – Clinically visible lesion, Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2 – Invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or lower 1/3 vagina
      2A1 – Involvement of the upper two-thirds of the vagina, without parametrical invasion & Less than 4cm
      2A2 – Greater than 4 cm in greatest dimension
      2B – Parametrial involvement
      3 – Extends to Pelvic side wall or lower 1/3 vagina or hydronephrosis
      3A – No pelvic side wall involvement
      3B – Pelvic side wall involved or hydronephrosis
      4 – Extends beyond true pelvis
      4A – Invades mucosa bladder and rectum
      4B – Distant Metastasis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks....

    Correct

    • A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking a combined oral contraceptive pill in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship. When should she start again?

      Your Answer: Start immediately

      Explanation:

      Following an abortion or miscarriage, combined oral contraceptive pills should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.

      At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?

      Your Answer: Days 6-12

      Explanation:

      Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Correct

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      The major constituents of breast milk are lactose, protein, fat and water. However, the composition of breast milk is not constant; early lactation differs from late lactation, one feed differs from the next, and the composition can even change
      during a feed. Artificial infant formulas cannot therefore be identical to breast milk. In addition to IgA, breast milk contains small amounts of IgM and IgG and other factors such as lactoferrin, macrophages, complement and lysozymes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. The mother asks you if this will be permanent. What percentage of babies will have permanent neurological dysfunction as a result of brachial plexus injury secondary to shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      of cases there is no permanent neurological disability. Shoulder dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy (Erb-Duchenne palsy) where there is injury to C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus (C5 to T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Besides infertility, the most common symptoms of a luteal phase defect is:

      Your Answer: Vaginal dryness

      Correct Answer: Early abortion

      Explanation:

      Luteal phase defect is an ovulatory disorder of considerable clinical importance that is implicated in infertility and recurrent spontaneous abortion. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding missed abortion, all of the following are CORRECT, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Per vaginal bleeding may be one of the presenting symptoms

      Correct Answer: Immediate evacuation should be done once the diagnosis is made

      Explanation:

      Expectant management has been reported with unpredictable success rate ranging from 25–76%. Waiting for spontaneous expulsion of the products of conception would waste much time, during which women may suffer uncertainty and anxiety. However, when additional surgical evacuation is needed owing to failure, they may suffer from an emotional breakdown. It is thus not recommended for missed early miscarriage due to the risks of emergency surgical treatment and blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except:

      Your Answer: Moderate bleeding

      Explanation:

      Normal labour is characterized by spontaneous onset, rhythmical uterine contractions along with vertex presentation. Cervical dilatation starts from the 1st stage of labour and intensity of the uterine contractions increases with passing time. Bleeding occurs after the child is expelled and the average loss is about 250-500 ml in a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding molding of the fetal head, which one is true?

      Your Answer: Does NOT have time to occur in breech delivery

      Explanation:

      Molding allows the skull bones of the fetal head some mobility during the normal delivery of foetus as the skull changes its shape to accommodate passage through the mothers pelvis. However this does not occur in breach delivery where the skull is in circular shape. Babies born breech typically have craniofacial and limb deformations resulting from their in utero position. These babies characteristically have a long, narrow head, (“dolichocephaly” or “type 1”), with a prominent occipital shelf, redundant skin over the neck, overlapping lambdoidal sutures, and an indentation below their ears (from shoulder compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (29/35) 83%
Endocrinology (10/11) 91%
Microbiology (5/6) 83%
Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology (16/24) 67%
Physiology (6/13) 46%
Clinical Management (15/25) 60%
Anatomy (9/13) 69%
Data Interpretation (4/5) 80%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Embryology (4/5) 80%
Biophysics (4/4) 100%
Epidemiology (2/3) 67%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed