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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the A&E with breathlessness, fatigue and palpitations. Anamnesis does not reveal any syncope or chest pain in the past. on the other hand, these symptoms were present intermittently for a year. Clinical examination reveals a pan-systolic murmur associated with giant V waves in the jugular venous pulse. Chest auscultation and resting ECG are normal. 24 hour ECG tape shows a short burst of supraventricular tachycardia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Ebstein’s anomaly is characterised by apical displacement and adherence of the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve to the underlying myocardium, thereby displacing the functional tricuspid orifice apically and dividing the right ventricle into two portions. The main haemodynamic abnormality leading to symptoms is tricuspid valve incompetence. The clinical spectrum is broad| patients may be asymptomatic or experience right-sided heart failure, cyanosis, arrhythmias and sudden cardiac death (SCD). Many Ebstein’s anomaly patients have an interatrial communication (secundum atrial septal defect (ASD II) or patent foramen ovale). Other structural anomalies may also be present, including a bicuspid aortic valve (BAV), ventricular septal defect (VSD), and pulmonary stenosis. The morphology of the tricuspid valve in Ebstein anomaly, and consequently the clinical presentation, is highly variable. The tricuspid valve leaflets demonstrate variable degrees of failed delamination (separation of the valve tissue from the myocardium) with fibrous attachments to the right ventricular endocardium.The displacement of annular attachments of septal and posterior (inferior) leaflets into the right ventricle toward the apex and right ventricular outflow tract is the hallmark finding of Ebstein anomaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Heart failure
Correct Answer: Type A Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPWS)
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A new-born baby is found to have a loud heart murmur but is otherwise well 6-hour baby after birth.Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Pulmonary atresia
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Tetralogy of Fallot usually is diagnosed after a baby is born, often after the infant has an episode of turning blue during crying or feeding (a tet spell). A loud heart murmur is usually present.An atrial septal defect is present at birth, but many babies do not have any signs or symptoms.Coarctation of the aorta is usually diagnosed after the baby is born. How early in life the defect is diagnosed usually depends on how mild or severe the symptoms are. New-born screening using pulse oximetry during the first few days of life may or may not detect coarctation of the aorta.In babies with a more serious condition, early signs usually include:pale skinirritabilityheavy sweatingdifficulty breathingBabies born with pulmonary atresia will show symptoms at birth or very soon afterwards. They may be cyanotic. However, it is not uncommon for a heart murmur to be absent right at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 12 year old boy presents with a 2 day history of a tree climbing accident in which a small branch gave way, leaving him suspended by one arm. He can move his arm into any position but is unable to use his hand effectively.Which of the following structures has he most likely damaged in the accident?
Your Answer: The C6 nerve root
Correct Answer: The T1 nerve root
Explanation:The boy is most likely to have sustained an injury to his brachial plexus as a result of upward traction of his arm for an extended period of time. We can rule out the topmost nerve roots of the brachial plexus, C6 and C7 as these supply the larger muscles of the arm responsible for moving the shoulder, the elbow and the wrist. The anatomical structure affected is therefore the T1 nerve root which is responsible for movement of the muscles in the hand. This type of injury is called a Klumpke’s Palsy, which is the result of a hyper-abducted trauma to the arm, damaging the C8 and T1 nerve roots. While the radial and ulnar nerve also innervate the hand, the history given points to Klumpke’s palsy as the best explanation for this mechanism of injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?
Your Answer: Ellis van Creveld Syndrome
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination following the successful administration of a median nerve block?
Your Answer: The palm of the hand is totally anaesthetised
Correct Answer: Inability to abduct the thumb
Explanation:Successful administration of median nerve block can be confirmed by the inability to abduct the thumb. The median nerve supplies all the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, apart from the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the outer two fingers: so these two fingers can still be flexed. There is a sensory loss to the thumb, index, middle and half of the ring fingers. Absence of thumb abduction due to paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis is a good test for median nerve paralysis.Other options:- The radial nerve supplies the extensors – hence wrist drop does not occur in this scenario. – The ulnar nerve supplies the skin of the ulnar side of the hand. Hence anaesthesia will not affect this area. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the interossei muscles of the hand, which affect abduction and adduction of the fingers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy is presented with arthritis, cough and non-blanching purpura. His coagulation profile is normal. His CBC: Hb 11.8 TLC 7.2*10^9 Plt 286*10^9. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: ITP
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP)
Explanation:The best answer is Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP). This patient has a characteristic rash and the labs are consistent with this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his parents with complaints of pain in his legs when walking. Musculoskeletal and neurological examination is unremarkable. The blood pressure in his right arm is 160/90. His femoral pulses are present but were harder to feel than normal. On auscultation, you find an ejection click at the base, accompanied by an ejection systolic murmur heard loudest at the right upper sternal edge, but audible also at the mid-left sternal edge and back. His ECG has findings suggestive of left ventricular hypertrophy, but his chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?
Your Answer: Pulmonary stenosis
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Coarctation of Aorta (CoA).Infants with CoA present within the first few weeks of life with signs suggestive of congestive cardiac failure and general circulatory shock. In these patients, the aorta is supplied by the right ventricle, via the ductus arteriosus. Pathophysiology:When the left ventricle supplies the aorta via the aortic isthmus, children are usually asymptomatic or may present with occasional complaints of leg pain. Associated cardiac anomalies are uncommon but for a bicuspid aortic valve, which is present in approximately 50% of cases. Good collateral circulation usually develops in these patients, which in the long term, causes notching of ribs. Clinical Presentation:Clinically, there may be hypertension in the upper limbs (or higher BP readings than in the lower limbs), and leg pulses are absent, or weak and delayed. A systolic click and aortic ejection systolic murmur are heard, caused by the bicuspid aortic valve. Management:The primary medical management is to treat hypertension. After stabilization, the patient can undergo definitive surgical repair. Transcatheter balloon angioplasty of the coarctation is controversial, but ballooning +/- stenting of re-coarctation following surgery is commonly performed.Systemic hypertension may occur following repair, even in the absence of re-coarctation necessitating the re-initiation/continuation of antihypertensive therapy in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?
Your Answer: All the laryngeal muscles are paralysed on the affected side, apart from the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side
Explanation:The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left sternal edge. Which one of the following statements about examination techniques is correct?
Your Answer: Feeling femoral pulses is mandatory
Explanation:Heart murmurs are common in healthy infants, children, and adolescents. Although most are not pathologic, a murmur may be the sole manifestation of serious heart disease. Historical elements that suggest pathology include family history of sudden cardiac death or congenital heart disease, in utero exposure to certain medications or alcohol, maternal diabetes mellitus, history of rheumatic fever or Kawasaki disease, and certain genetic disorders. Physical examination should focus on vital signs| age-appropriate exercise capacity| respiratory or gastrointestinal manifestations of congestive heart failure| and a thorough cardiovascular examination, including features of the murmur, assessment of peripheral perfusion, and auscultation over the heart valves. Red flags that increase the likelihood of a pathologic murmur include a holosystolic or diastolic murmur, grade 3 or higher murmur, harsh quality, an abnormal S2, maximal murmur intensity at the upper left sternal border, a systolic click, or increased intensity when the patient stands. Electrocardiography and chest radiography rarely assist in the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?
Your Answer: Persistent arterial duct
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia
Explanation:Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl is brought to the ER after collapsing at a party. Her friends state that she complained about palpitations prior to collapsing. On further history, it is revealed that she recently visited the dermatologist and was given an antibiotic prescription for an infected toe. She is reported to be allergic to penicillin. Her mother died of a sudden cardiac event when the girl was just 3 years old. An uncle and aunt also passed away suddenly at a young age. ECG shows sinus rhythm and a corrected QT interval of 550 ms. Which of the following most likely lead to the collapse in this young girl?
Your Answer: Lown–Ganong–Levine syndrome
Correct Answer: Congenital long QT syndrome
Explanation:Congenital LQTS arises from mutations in genes that code for ion channels within myocytes.These mutations all cause ventricular action potentials to be prolonged, resulting in a lengthened QT interval on ECG. The congenital long-QT syndrome (LQTS) is a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia syndrome that represents a leading cause of sudden death in the young. LQTS is typically characterized by a prolongation of the QT interval on the ECG and by the occurrence of syncope or cardiac arrest, mainly precipitated by emotional or physical stress.LQTS type 1Most common type of congenital LQTSDefect: loss of function mutation on the KCNQ1 gene located on chromosome 11p → defective slow delayed rectifier voltage-gated potassium channelSubtypesJervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome Associated with congenital deafnessAutosomal recessiveAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmiasRomano-Ward syndrome No associated deafnessAutosomal dominantAssociated with ventricular tachyarrhythmias
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?
Your Answer: Primitive ventricle
Correct Answer: Endocardial cushions
Explanation:The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 17 year old patient, who reports to the clinic following an apparent transient ischaemic attack, is demonstrated to have a small right homonymous hemianopia with partial sparing of central vision.Where is the lesion most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Occipital pole
Correct Answer: Occipital cortex
Explanation:The most common cause of homonymous hemianopia (HH) is a stroke. In this condition there is bitemporal field loss. Lesions posterior to the optic chiasm, in the brain parenchyma are most likely to be the cause of the HH. In this case the retention of central vision indicates that the area of injury may be in the occipital cortex, sparing the occipital pole. The occipital pole receives sensory fibres from the macular, and has a dual blood supply protecting it from total infarction. Lesions of the optic tract can be ruled out as these cause total vision loss in the affected eye. Parietal or temporal nerve lesions cause affect the inferior and superior parts of the visual field respectively causing homonymous quadrantinopias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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A 8 year old girl with suspected patent foramen ovale, presented with her parents for the confirmation of the diagnosis. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transoesophageal Echocardiography
Explanation:A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?
Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?
Your Answer: Loud P2
Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound
Explanation:Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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A woman gives birth to a baby which is cyanosed 6 hours after birth. Which of the following heart conditions might the baby have?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a common congenital heart lesion that presents with severe cyanosis that is likely to appear in the first day of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 17-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother with complaints of poor feeding and tachypnoea a week after experiencing a coryzal illness. His cardiac examination is unremarkable apart from a third heart sound being present. His chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly and bilateral interstitial shadowing. Blood investigations, renal function, and anti-streptolysin O test (ASCOT) are all within normal limits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kawasaki disease
Correct Answer: Coxsackie myocarditis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis based on the clinical presentation is myocarditis secondary to Coxsackie virus infection.Myocarditis is an important cause of acquired heart failure. The other infective causes of myocarditis are influenza and adenoviruses, and bacterial causes as seen with Borrelia burgdorferi (Lyme disease). Rheumatic fever is unlikely if the ASO titres are within normal limits. While pancarditis may occur as part of Kawasaki disease| the patient is unlikely to present in failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A dental surgeon infiltrates local anaesthetic at the mandibular foramen to carry out a block of the right inferior alveolar nerve. Which of the following might occur as a result of the procedure?
Your Answer: Ineffective block for the incisor teeth
Correct Answer: Numbness of the lower teeth on the right side
Explanation:The inferior alveolar nerve supplies all the teeth of the respective hemimandible. It transverses the inferior alveolar canal and is a branch of the trigeminal nerve’s mandibular division. Therefore, in this case, the teeth of the right hemimandible will be numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer: Left axis deviation
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 13 year old girl presented with signs of shortness of breath, chest pain, non-productive cough, oedema of the lower extremities and cyanosis of the fingertips. She has a history of a ventricular septal defect not surgically corrected. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Your Answer: Aortal dissection
Correct Answer: Shunt reversal
Explanation:A ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common form of congenital heart defects and is characterised by the presence of a hole in the wall that separates the right from the left ventricle. Medium or large defects can cause many complications. One of these complication is Eisenmenger syndrome, characterised by reversal of the shunt (from left-to-right shunt into a right-to-left) ,cyanosis and pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?
Your Answer: Mitral valve stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6-months-old boy develops QT interval prolongation. Which of the following is NOT a cause of QT prolongation in this boy?
Your Answer: Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome
Correct Answer: Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome
Explanation:Normal QT interval in a 6 months old baby is < 0.44 seconds. A duration exceeding this value is referred to as QT interval prolongation, which is associated with some important congenital syndromes that include Brugada syndrome which is characterized by vasovagal syncope and sudden cardiac death, Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome which is associated with congenital deafness, Andersen syndrome which is marked by bone deformities, and Timothy syndrome with associated heart disease and immunodeficiency. Romano-Ward syndrome is the commonest cause of congenital QT prolongation with no associated extra-cardiac manifestations. Lown-Ganong-Levine syndrome is characterized by a shortened PR interval and a normal QRS duration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?
Your Answer: Right lower zone
Correct Answer: Right upper zone
Explanation:The azygos lobe is usually well seen on the chest radiograph, where it is limited by the azygos fissure, a fine, convex (relative to the mediastinum) line that crosses the apex of the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coarctation of Aorta
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy sustained a fracture of his right elbow, which damaged the ulnar nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. A month later, he still has a total ulnar nerve paralysis. Which of the following can be observed on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table
Explanation:Among the given options, the inability to grip a sheet of paper between his fingers when the hand is placed flat on the table is the feature of ulnar nerve injury. Rationale:The ulnar nerve (usually) supplies sensation to the skin of the fifth and the ulnar side of the fourth finger, front and back. Following the injury of the nerve, the following functions are impaired:- There is a sympathetic interruption, with the absence of sweating in the affected area. – The thenar muscles are supplied by the median nerve and are therefore spared. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the muscles of the hypothenar eminence. – Although the ring and little fingers are held in the clawed position when the nerve is injured at the wrist, a high lesion paralyses the long flexors to these two fingers and results in the loss of this sign. The test for paralysis of the palmar interossei, supplied by the ulnar nerve, is the inability to adduct the fingers and thus to be unable to grip a sheet of paper between them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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