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Question 1
Correct
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The resting pulse in pregnancy is:
Your Answer: Increased by 10 to 15 bpm
Explanation:During pregnancy cardiac output increases by 30 to 50%. As a result, the resting pulse speeds up from a normal of about 70 bpm to 80 or 90 bpm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:
Your Answer: 40 weeks after last menstrual period
Explanation:Expected date of delivery/estimated due date (EDD) is a calculated date (i.e., an estimation), determined by counting forward 280 days (40 weeks) from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Fetal blood is returned to the umbilical arteries & the placenta via the:
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: Hypogastric arteries
Explanation:In the foetus, the hypogastric artery ascends along the side of the bladder, and runs upward on the back of the anterior wall of the abdomen to the umbilicus, converging toward its fellow of the opposite side. Having passed through the umbilical opening, the two arteries, now termed umbilical, enter the umbilical cord, where they are coiled around the umbilical vein, and ultimately ramify in the placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which one of the following features indicates fetal asphyxia?
Your Answer: Type II (late) decelerations with tachycardia
Explanation:A type II deceleration is due to placental insufficiency which can result in fetal distress and asphyxia. The fetal heart rate is lowest at the start of the contraction and returns to normal after the contraction is complete.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding oestrogen is correct?
Your Answer: Can not be detected in the blood of postmenopausal women
Correct Answer: It is produced in the corpus luteum
Explanation:Oestrogen is secreted by the corpus luteum and is responsible for the proliferation of the endometrium to prepare it for the implantation of the zygote.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A serum progesterone value less than 5ng/ml can exclude the diagnosis of viable pregnancy with a certainty of:
Your Answer: 100%
Explanation:Serum progesterone has been proposed as a useful test to distinguish a viable pregnancy from a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. Low progesterone values are associated with miscarriages and ectopic pregnancies, both considered non-viable pregnancies, and high progesterone concentrations with viable pregnancies. A single progesterone measurement for women in early pregnancy presenting with bleeding or pain and inconclusive ultrasound assessments can rule out a viable pregnancy. The probability of a non-viable pregnancy was raised from 62.9% to 96.8%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Regarding cardiac output in pregnancy which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: Cardiac output increases by approximately 40-50% during pregnancy
Explanation:In a non pregnant adult female the cardiac output is 4.5L/min, by the 20 week of pregnancy the cardiac output increases by 40% to 6.3L/min. During early stages of labour it increases further still by 17% to 7.3L/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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CTG showing early decelerations is :
Your Answer: From increased vagal tone secondary to head compression
Explanation:Early decelerations: a result of increased vagal tone due to compression of the fetal head during contractions. Monitoring usually shows a symmetrical, gradual decrease and return to baseline of FHR, which is associated with a uterine contraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Correct
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia with incidence rates in the UK approximately 30 per 100,000 The majority of patients are postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Correct
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When does ovulation occur?
Your Answer: 36 hours after LH surge
Explanation:Ovulation occurs in the mid stage of the menstrual cycle, usually 36 hours after the LH surge. It is this LH surge which is necessary for the ovulation to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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Excessive increased level of β-HCG is expected in:
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Explanation:Human chorionic gonadotropin levels dynamically increase during early gestation and the levels are significantly greater in viable pregnancies than in ectopic gestation, biochemical pregnancy, or spontaneous abortions. Similarly, the hCG concentrations are significantly higher in multiple pregnancy as compared with singleton.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the primary form of haemoglobin in a 6 week old foetus?
Your Answer: HbF
Correct Answer: Hb Gower 1
Explanation:HB gower 1 is the predominant embryonic haemoglobin when the foetus is 6 weeks old and is replaced by adult haemoglobin by the age of 5 months post natally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 36 weeks of gestation arrives in the ED via ambulance and precipitously delivers a male child. The child coughs and has a strong cry. He is very active. Acrocyanosis is noted. Heart rate is 98 bpm and breathing is strong. What is this child’s Apgar score?
Your Answer: 7
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The Apgar test scores appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration and is generally done at 1 and 5 minutes after birth but may be repeated if the child continues to score low (Table). This child’s score is as follows: Appearance, 1; Pulse, 1; Grimace, 2; Activity, 2; Respiration, 2 (APGAR score = 8). A score of 3 or less is generally regarded as critically low, 4 to 6 is fairly low, and 7 to 10 is generally normal. Contrary to common belief, the Apgar score is not used to decide if a neonate requires resuscitation. Decisions about resuscitation are based on emergency assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation.5,6
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Correct
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In a pregnant lady with polyhydramnios, the cause could be:
Your Answer: Foetus with oesophageal-atresia
Explanation:An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Correct
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Ovulation may be indicated by all the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Mid-cycle elevation in prolactin
Explanation:An elevation in serum PRL is associated with a variety of reproductive disorders, including amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, anovulation and/or luteal phase defects with subsequent infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Spinnbarkheit is a term which means:
Your Answer: Thinning of the cervical mucous
Correct Answer: Threading of the cervical mucous
Explanation:Spinnability (or Spinnbarkeit), which measures the capacity of fluids to be drawn into threads, represents an indirect measurement of the adhesive and elastic properties of mucus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following increases during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Tidal Volume
Explanation:Ventilation begins to increase significantly at around 8 weeks of gestation, most likely in response to progesterone-related sensitization of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide and the increased metabolic rate. Significant alterations occur in the mechanical aspects of ventilation during pregnancy. Minute ventilation (or the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 minute) is the product of tidal volume and respiratory rate and increases by approximately 30–50 per cent with pregnancy. The increase is primarily a result of tidal volume, which increases by 40 per cent (from 500 to 700 mL), because the respiratory rate remains unchanged. The increase in minute ventilation is perceived by the pregnant woman as shortness of breath, which affects 60–70 per cent of women. This physiological dyspnoea is usually mild and affects 50 per cent of women before 20 weeks gestation, but resolves immediately postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Correct
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Maternal serum prolactin levels in pregnancy are highest:
Your Answer: On the 3rd to 4th day postpartum
Explanation:Prolactin is necessary for the secretion of milk by the cells of the alveoli. The level of prolactin in the blood increases markedly during pregnancy, and stimulates the growth and development of the mammary tissue, in preparation for the production of milk. However, milk is not secreted then, because progesterone and oestrogen, the hormones of pregnancy, block this action of prolactin. After delivery, levels of progesterone and oestrogen fall rapidly, prolactin is no longer blocked, and milk secretion begins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Correct
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Polyhydramnios is associated with which one of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oesophageal atresia/TE fistula may be suspected prenatally with ultrasound findings of polyhydramnios, absence of fluid in the stomach, small sized abdomen, or the presence of a dilated proximal oesophageal pouch. An underlying disease is only found in 17 % of cases in mild polyhydramnios. In contrast, an underlying disease is detected in 91 % of cases in moderate to severe polyhydramnios. The literature lists the following potential aetiologies: fetal malformations and genetic anomalies (8–45 %), maternal diabetes mellitus (5–26 %), multiple pregnancies (8–10 %), fetal anaemia (1–11 %), other causes, e.g. viral infections, Bartter syndrome, neuromuscular disorders, maternal hypercalcemia. Viral infections which can lead to polyhydramnios include parvovirus B19, rubella, and cytomegalovirus. Other infections, e.g. toxoplasmosis and syphilis, can also cause polyhydramnios.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?
Your Answer: Iron
Correct Answer: Folic Acid
Explanation:Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes of polyhydramnios is more common?
Your Answer: Twin pregnancy
Correct Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation:Maternal disorders, such as diabetes, in-utero infections, drug usage, placental abnormalities and fetal conditions as congenital and chromosomal abnormalities, Rh iso-immunization, and multiple gestations, are generally associated with polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities such as duodenal, oesophageal, or intestinal atresia of the foetus are the most common malformations that typically cause gastro-intestinal obstruction and interfere with fetal swallowing and/or absorption resulting with polyhydramnios. However, in about 70% of cases, none of the aforementioned aetiologies are causes of polyhydramnios, and it is referred to as idiopathic or isolated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?
Your Answer: Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils (PMNs)
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:PMNs phagocytise debris and kill bacteria via free radicals (AKA respiratory burst). They also break down damaged tissue. PMNs typically undergo apoptosis after 48 hours. They are then engulfed and degraded by macrophages. Macrophages therefore become the predominant cell type in the wound on days 3-4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Peripheral resistance
Explanation:The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizzinessA pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Correct
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During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?
Your Answer: Tissue Factor
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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The second stage of labour involves:
Your Answer: Expulsion of the foetus
Explanation:First stage: The latent phase is generally defined as beginning at the point at which the woman perceives regular uterine contractions. A definition of active labour is having contractions more frequent than every 5 minutes, in addition to either a cervical dilation of 3 cm or more or a cervical effacement of 80% or more.
Second stage: fetal expulsion begins when the cervix is fully dilated, and ends when the baby is born.
Third stage: placenta delivery – The period from just after the foetus is expelled until just after the placenta is expelled is called the third stage of labour or the involution stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Correct
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Regarding amniotic fluid volume:
Your Answer: Maybe predicted by ultrasound
Explanation:Amniotic fluid can be measured with the help of ultrasound to gauge the amniotic fluid index. The normal value ranges between 8-18.
Amniocentesis is a procedure by which amniotic fluid is removed. In rhesus disease, it appears yellow due to raised bilirubin levels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Correct
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In the absence of any gross pelvic abnormality, cephalopelvic disproportion can be correctly diagnosed by?
Your Answer: Trial of labour
Explanation:Cephalo-pelvic disproportion exists when the capacity of the pelvis is inadequate to allow the foetus to negotiate the birth canal. This may be due to a small pelvis, a nongynecoid pelvic formation, a large foetus, an unfavourable orientation of the foetus, or a combination of these factors. Diagnosis of CPD may be made when there is failure to progress, but not all cases of prolonged labour are the result of CPD. Use of ultrasound to measure the size of the foetus in the womb is controversial, as these methods are often inaccurate and may lead to unnecessary caesarean section; a trial of labour is often recommended even if size of the foetus is estimated to be large.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
