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Question 1
Incorrect
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Where do the cells belonging to the mononuclear phagocyte system originate?
Your Answer: Liver
Correct Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:The macrophage originates from a committed bone marrow stem cell. It is called the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell. This differentiates into a monoblast and then into a promonocyte and finally matures into a monocyte. When called upon they leave the bone marrow and enter into the circulation. Upon entering the tissue they transform into macrophages. Tissue macrophages include: Kupffer cells (liver), alveolar macrophages (lung), osteoclasts (bone), Langerhans cells (skin), microglial cells (central nervous system), and possibly the dendritic immunocytes of the dermis, spleen and lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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After a prolonged coronary artery bypass surgery, a 60-year old gentleman was transfused 3 units of fresh-frozen plasma and 2 units of packed red cells. Two days later, the nurse noticed that he was tachypnoeic and chest X-ray showed signs consistent with adult respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following variables will be low in this patient?
Your Answer: Oncotic pressure of alveolar fluid
Correct Answer: Compliance of the lung
Explanation:Acute or adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a reaction to several forms of lung injuries and is commonly associated with sepsis and SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome), severe traumatic injury, severe head injury, narcotics overdose, drowning, pulmonary contusion, and multiple blood transfusions. There is an increase in risk due to pre-existing liver disease or coagulation abnormalities. It results due to indirect toxic effects of neutrophil-derived inflammatory mediators in the lungs. ARDS is defined by the 1994 American–European Consensus Committee as the acute onset of bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (pa(O2)) to fraction of inspired oxygen Fi(O2) ratio of less than 200 mmHg and a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of less than 18 or the absence of clinical evidence of left arterial hypertension. ARDS is basically pulmonary oedema in the absence of volume overload or poor left ventricular function. This is different from acute lung injury, which shows a pa(O2)/Fi(O2) ratio of less than 300 mmHg. Pathogenesis of ARDS starts from damage to alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, causing increased permeability. Damage to surfactant-producing type II cells disrupts the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, causing micro atelectasis and poor gas exchange. There is a decrease in lung compliance and increase in work of breathing. Eventually, there is resorption of alveolar oedema, regeneration of epithelial cells, proliferation and differentiation of type II alveolar cells and alveolar remodelling. Some show resolution and some progress to fibrosing alveolitis, which involves the deposition of collagen in alveolar, vascular and interstitial spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?
Your Answer: Superior ulnar collateral
Explanation:The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of these antibiotics is the first choice treatment for infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Your Answer: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Piperacillin
Explanation:Piperacillin is an extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic of the ureidopenicillin class. It is normally used with a beta-lactamase inhibitor such as tazobactam. The combination has activity against many Gram-positive and Gram-negative pathogens and anaerobes, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Piperacillin is sometimes referred to as an anti-pseudomonal penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol was given to the patient?
Your Answer: B Flucytosine
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole
Explanation:Ketoconazole is a synthetic imidazole antifungal drug used primarily to treat fungal infections. It inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol by blocking demethylation at the C14 site of the ergosterol precursor. Amphotericin B and Nystatin impair permeability of the cell membrane. Flucytosine interferes with DNA synthesis, while the target of griseofulvin is the microtubules
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?
Your Answer: 12%
Correct Answer: 2%
Explanation:The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 18 -year-old female is diagnosed with folliculitis in the left axilla. What is the most likely organism that could cause this condition?
Your Answer: Clostridium tetani
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Folliculitis is the inflammation of the hair follicles. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the following segments of bowel is most likely to have preserved arterial supply?
Your Answer: Descending colon
Correct Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the end of the transverse colon and all distal structures in the gastrointestinal tract i.e. splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum would all be deprived of blood if it were occluded. The caecum receives blood from the superior mesenteric artery so it would not be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-years-old man presented to the emergency department complaining of a squeezing sensation in his chest that has spread to his neck with associated worsening shortness of breath. Which of these laboratory tests would you ask for in this patient:
Your Answer: Creatine kinase-MB
Explanation:Creatine kinase-MB is a test that usually is ordered when the patient has chest pain as a cardiac marker. When a heart attack is suspected and a troponin test (which is more specific for heart damage), is not available CK-MB is ordered. There are 3 forms of CK: CK-MM, CK-BB and CK-MB. CK-MB is commonly found in heart tissue, therefore injured heart muscle cells release CK-MB into the blood. Elevated CK-MB levels indicate that it is probable that a person has recently had a heart attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal was brought in to the oncology ward for chemotherapy. In which of the following lymph nodes of this patient would you likely find metastases?
Your Answer: Periaortic
Correct Answer: Internal iliac
Explanation:The efferent lymphatics from the anal canal proceed to the internal iliac lymph nodes. This would most likely form the site of enlargement in the lymphatics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?
Your Answer: Dust inhalation
Correct Answer: Liver flukes
Explanation:Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.
Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.
Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.
Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.
Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 12
Correct
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One sensitive indicator of heavy alcohol dependence is:
Your Answer: Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
Explanation:Elevated serum gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) may be the only laboratory abnormality in patients who are dependent on alcohol. Heavy drinkers may also have an increased MCV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of a worsening shortness of breath, fever, agitation and cough. Oxygen saturation was 67% in room air. Her respiratory status continued to deteriorate therefore she was intubated. She was admitted to the intensive care unit for management. Chest X-ray demonstrated bilateral perihilar opacities. The patient failed conventional treatment and died several days later. At autopsy, the lung shows growth of type 2 pneumocytes and thickened alveolar walls. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Correct Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:Acute (or adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening lung condition characterised by a non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema that leads to acute respiratory failure. The most common risk factors for ARDS include trauma with direct lung injury, sepsis, pneumonia, pancreatitis, burns, drug overdose, massive blood transfusion and shock. Acute onset of dyspnoea with hypoxemia, anxiety and agitation is typical. Chest X ray most commonly demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Histological changes include the exudative, proliferative and fibrotic phase. ARDS is mainly a clinical diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?
Your Answer: Fascia lata
Correct Answer: Perineal membrane
Explanation:The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 15
Incorrect
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the action of the semimembranosus muscle is:
Your Answer: Extension of the hip and extension of the knee
Correct Answer: Extension of the hip and flexion of the knee
Explanation:the semimembranosus is situated at the back and medial side of the thigh. It arises from the upper and outer impression on the tuberosity of the ischium, above and lateral to the biceps femoris and semitendinosus. It is inserted mainly into the horizontal groove on the posterior medial aspect of the medial condyle of the tibia. it flexes the knee and assists in extension of the hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A patient with this condition has extracellular fluid volume expansion:
Your Answer: Burns
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is a syndrome comprising of signs of nephrosis, including proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and oedema. It is a component of glomerulonephritis, in which different degrees of proteinuria occur. Essentially, loss of protein through the kidneys leads to low protein levels in the blood , which causes water to be drawn into soft tissues (oedema). Severe hypoalbuminemia can also cause a variety of secondary problems, such as water in the abdominal cavity (ascites), around the heart or lung (pericardial effusion, pleural effusion), high cholesterol, loss of molecules regulating coagulation (hence increased risk of thrombosis). The most common sign is excess fluid in the body due to the serum hypoalbuminemia. Lower serum oncotic pressure causes fluid to accumulate in the interstitial tissues. Sodium and water retention aggravates the oedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following organs of the abdominal cavity is completely covered by the peritoneum?
Your Answer: Pancreas
Correct Answer: Spleen
Explanation:Of the organs listed, the spleen is the only organ that is completely intraperitoneal, that is entirely in the peritoneum. Other completely intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, liver, appendix and the small intestines. The kidney, Inferior vena cava, aorta and the suprarenal glands are all retroperitoneal organs. The pancreas and the duodenum are partially retroperitoneal, with the tail of the pancreas in the peritoneum found in the splenorenal ligament while only the first part of the duodenum is intraperitoneal. For the intraperitoneal organs remember SALTD SPRSS
S = Stomach
A = Appendix
L = Liver
T = Transverse colon
D = Duodenum (only the 1st part)
S = Small intestines
P = Pancreas (only the tail)
R = Rectum (only the upper 3rd)
S = Sigmoid colon
S = Spleen
For retroperitoneal, just remember SADPUCKER:
S = suprarenal glands
A = Aorta and IVC
D = Duodenum (all but the 1st part)
P = Pancreas (all but the tail)
U = Ureter and bladder
C = Colon (ascending and descending)
K = Kidneys
E = Oesophagus
R = Rectum (Lower two-thirds)
For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:
P = Pancreas
C = Colon (only ascending and descending)
D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?
Your Answer: Trigeminal
Explanation:The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following key features will be seen in an organ undergoing atrophy?
Your Answer: A greater number of centrioles
Correct Answer: A greater number of autophagic vacuoles
Explanation:Atrophy is characterised by the breakdown of intracellular components along with organelles and packing them into vacuoles known as autophagic vacuoles. This is an adaptive response that separates the damaged cellular structures from the rest of the cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Elevated mean corpuscular volume with hypersegmented neutrophils and low reticulocyte index is seen in on the blood count of a middle-aged lady about to undergo elective surgery. On enquiry, she mentions feeling tired for a few months. Which of the following investigations should be carried out in her to reach a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate
Explanation:Elevated levels of MCV indicates megaloblastic anaemia, which are associated with hypersegmented neutrophils. Likely causes include vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. Megaloblastic anaemia results from defective synthesis of DNA. As RNA production continues, the cells enlarge with a large nucleus. The cytoplasmic maturity becomes greater than nuclear maturity. Megaloblasts are produced initially in the marrow, before blood. Dyspoiesis makes erythropoiesis ineffective, causing direct hyperbilirubinemia and hyperuricemia. As all cell lines are affected, reticulocytopenia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia develop. Large, oval blood cells (macro-ovalocytes) are released in the circulation, along with presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus
Explanation:A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?
Your Answer: Digastric
Explanation:The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:
– The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric
– The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid
– The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The passage of leukocytes through the wall of the blood vessels is best described by which of the following terms?
Your Answer: Chemotaxis
Correct Answer: Diapedesis
Explanation:The steps involved in leukocyte arrival and function are:
1. margination: cells migrate from the centre to the periphery of the vessel
2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls
3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes, interaction of these results in adhesion
4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product
5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 24
Correct
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A correct statement about the RECTUM:
Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems
Explanation:The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Anterior scalene
Correct Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?
Your Answer: Blood transfusion
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin D
Explanation:Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?
Your Answer: Middle cerebral veins
Correct Answer: Internal cerebral veins
Explanation:The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following cytokines produced by the T cell induce MHC-II proteins?
Your Answer: Interleukin-1
Correct Answer: γ-Interferon
Explanation:Interferons elicit a non-specific antiviral activity by inducing specific RNA synthesis and expression of proteins in neighbouring cells. Common interferon inducers are viruses, double-stranded RNA and micro-organisms. INF-γ is produced mainly by CD4+, CD8+ T cells and less commonly by B cells and natural killer cells. INF-γ has antiviral and antiparasitic activity but its main biological activity appears to be immunomodulatory. Among its many functions are activation of macrophages and enhanced expression of MHC-II proteins or macrophages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female who underwent coronary artery bypass graft developed post-operative acute renal failure. Her urinary catheter was left in place to monitor urine output. 6 days later she developed fever and chills. She also complained of suprapubic and left flank pain. She is found to have developed acute ascending pyelonephritis. Which of the following organism was most likely isolated during urine culture?
Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli with pili
Explanation:The most common cause of urinary tract infection is Escherichia coli. Pilated strains of E. coli ascend the urethra to infect the kidney and the bladder. Catheters have been associated with an increased risk of UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:
Your Answer: Anomalous left coronary artery
Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Explanation:The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?
Your Answer: Clostridium tetani
Explanation:Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.
Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of the statements about the right lung made by the demonstrator is correct?
Your Answer: It has a lingular segmental bronchus
Correct Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery
Explanation:The root of the lungs on both sides are similar in that the pulmonary veins are anterior and inferior while the bronchus is posterior. However, on the right side, the pulmonary arteries are anterior to the bronchus while on the left side the pulmonary arteries are superior to the bronchus. The lingual is only found on the left lung. The mediastinum is the space in the thorax between the two pleural sacs and does not contain any lung. The right lung, having three lobes, is slightly larger than the left lung. On both sides, the phrenic nerves passes in front of the root of the lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 33
Incorrect
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One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which is it?
Your Answer: Peroneus brevis muscle
Correct Answer: Extensor hallucis muscle
Explanation:The lower leg is made up of four fascial compartments separated from one another by septa that contain the muscles of the lower leg. The four compartments are ; anterior, lateral, deep posterior and superficial posterior compartments.
These are the compartments and there contents:
i) Anterior compartment: Tibialis anterior muscle, extensor hallucis longus muscle, extensor digitorum longus muscle, peroneus tertius muscles, deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial blood vessels
ii) Lateral compartment: Fibularis longus muscle, brevis muscles and superficial fibular nerve
iii) Deep posterior compartment: Tibialis posterior m., flexor hallucis longus m., flexor digitorum longus m. ,popliteus m. , tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and posterior tibial vessels such as the fibular artery.
iv) Superficial posterior compartment: Gastrocnemius m., soleus m., plantaris m., medial sural cutaneous nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 55-year old lady underwent a major surgery for repair of an aortic aneurysm. Her blood pressure was low throughout the intra-operative and the post-operative period, along with increasing serum creatinine and urea. Microscopic examination of her urine showed multiple granular and hyaline casts. What is the likely condition the patient is suffering from?
Your Answer: Nodular glomerulosclerosis
Correct Answer: Acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:The most common predisposing factor leading to acute tubular necrosis is ischemia, typically seen in hospitalized patients with low blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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Question 35
Correct
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What class of drugs does buspirone belong to?
Your Answer: Anxiolytic
Explanation:Buspirone is an anxiolytic agent and a serotonin-receptor agonist that belongs to the azaspirodecanedione class of compounds. It shows no potential for addiction compared with other drugs commonly prescribed for anxiety, especially the benzodiazepines. The development of tolerance has not been noted. It is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorders. It is also commonly used to augment antidepressants in the treatment of major depressive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Due to a plantarflexion–inversion ankle sprain, which is the first ligament to rupture?
Your Answer: Talotibial ligament
Correct Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament
Explanation:The anterior talofibular ligament passes from the anterior margin of the fibular malleolus. It is the most commonly injured ligament, as part of the lateral ligament of the ankle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in the neck, a man has the point of his shoulder (scapula) sagging and he has difficulty with full abduction of his arm. Which nerve is most likely injured?
Your Answer: Dorsal scapular
Correct Answer: Accessory (cranial nerve XI)
Explanation:Injury to the accessory nerve denervates the trapezius muscle so that the person will no longer be able to raise the acromion of the shoulder. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids i.e. major and minor and the levator scapulae so that injury to this nerve weakens retraction of the scapula. The greater occipital nerve is responsible for sensation of the posterior scalp. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle which is responsible for abduction of the arm and the suprascapular nerve is responsible for rotating the humerus laterally. Cutaneous nerves supply the skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?
Your Answer: Radial nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium of the stomach during the development of the gut?
Your Answer: Falciform ligament
Correct Answer: Greater omentum
Explanation:In a developing foetus, the stomach has two mesogastria from which most of the abdominal ligaments develop. These two mesogastria are the; ventral mesogastrium and the dorsal mesogastrium. During the embryological development of the gut, different organs develop in each mesogastrium; the spleen and pancreas in the dorsal mesogastrium while the liver in the ventral mesogastrium (with their associated ligaments). In the dorsal mesogastrium the following structures develop; the greater omentum (containing the gastrophrenic ligament and the gastrocolic ligament), gastrosplenic ligament, mesentery, splenorenal ligament and phrenicocolic ligament. The structures that develop from the ventral mesogastrium include the; lesser omentum (containing the hepatoduodenal ligament and the hepatogastric ligament) in association with the liver; the coronary ligament (left triangular ligament, right triangular ligament and hepatorenal ligament) and the falciform ligament (round ligament of liver and ligamentum venosum within).
There are also folds that develop from the dorsal mesogastrium which include; umbilical folds, supravesical fossa, medial inguinal fossa, lateral umbilical fold, lateral inguinal fossa and Ileocecal fold.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 40
Incorrect
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An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of the following clinical features will have prompted the doctor to check the serum magnesium level in this patient?
Your Answer: Dizziness
Correct Answer: Seizures
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterised by a low level of magnesium in the blood. The normal range for serum magnesium level is 0.75-1.05 mmol/l. In hypomagnesaemia serum levels of magnesium are less than 0.75 mmol/l. The cardiovascular and nervous systems are the most commonly affected. Neuromuscular manifestations include symptoms like tremor, tetany, weakness, apathy, delirium, a positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign, nystagmus and seizures. Cardiovascular manifestations include electrocardiographic abnormalities and arrhythmias e.g. ventricular fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 42
Correct
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In the kidney, the macula densa is an area of closely packed specialized cells lining the wall of the:
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule
Explanation:In the kidney, the macula densa is an area of closely packed specialised cells lining the region of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) lying next to the glomerular vascular pole. The cells of the macula densa are sensitive to the ionic content and water volume of the fluid in the DCT, producing signals that promote renin secretion by other cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 43
Incorrect
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What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles of a man who has undergone starvation for 7 days?
Your Answer: Muscle creatine phosphate
Correct Answer: Serum fatty acids
Explanation:Starvation is the most extreme form of malnutrition. Prolonged starvation can lead to permanent organ damage and can be fatal. Starved individuals eventually lose significant fat and muscle mass as the body uses these for energy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:
Your Answer: Dorsum of the foot
Correct Answer: Ampulla of the rectum
Explanation:The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the arteries in the neck are TRUE?
Your Answer: The carotid sinus is located below the origin of the external carotid artery
Correct Answer: The thyrocervical trunk typically gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, transverse cervical artery and suprascapular artery
Explanation:The thyrocervical trunk is one of the three branches of the first part of the subclavian artery and gives numerous branches which supply viscera of the neck, the brachial plexus, neck muscles and scapular anastomoses. The vertebral arteries are major arteries of the neck. They arise as branches from the subclavian arteries and merge to form the single midline basilar artery. The carotid sinus is a dilated area at the base of the internal carotid artery just superior to the bifurcation of the internal carotid and external carotid at the level of the superior border of thyroid cartilage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Where is factor VIII predominantly synthesised?
Your Answer: Hepatocytes
Correct Answer: Vascular endothelium
Explanation:Factor VIII is an important part of the coagulation cascade. Deficiency causes haemophilia A. It is synthesised predominantly by the vascular endothelium and is not affected by liver disease. In the circulation it is bound to von Willebrand factor and it forms a stable complex with it. It is activated by thrombin or factor Xa and acts as a co factor to factor IXa to activate factor X which is a co factor to factor Va. Thrombin cleaves fibrinogen in fibrin and forms a meshwork to trap RBC and platelets to form a clot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old pregnant woman develops high blood pressure at 20 weeks. She complains of headaches and swollen feet, and a test reveals proteinuria (350 mg/day). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia (PE) is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by the onset of high blood pressure (two separate readings taken at least 6 h apart of 140/90 or more) and often a significant amount of protein in the urine (>300 mg of protein in a 24-h urine sample). While blood pressure elevation is the most visible sign of the disease, it involves generalised damage to the maternal endothelium of the kidneys and liver, with the release of vasopressive factors only secondary to the original damage. Pre-eclampsia may develop at varying times within pregnancy and its progress differs among patients; most cases present pre-term. It has no known cure apart from ending the pregnancy (induction of labour or abortion). It may also present up to 6 weeks post partum. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include obesity, prior hypertension, older age, and diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:
Your Answer: Amyloidosis
Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis
Explanation:Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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Which of the following substances is most likely to cause pulmonary vasodilatation?
Your Answer: Histamine
Correct Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:In the body, nitric oxide is synthesised from arginine and oxygen by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and by sequential reduction of inorganic nitrate. The endothelium of blood vessels uses nitric oxide to signal the surrounding smooth muscle to relax, so dilating the artery and increasing blood flow. Nitric oxide/oxygen blends are used in critical care to promote capillary and pulmonary dilation to treat primary pulmonary hypertension in neonatal patients post-meconium aspiration and related to birth defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is likely to result in:
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:COPD leads to respiratory acidosis (chronic). This occurs due to hypoventilation which involves multiple causes, such as poor responsiveness to hypoxia and hypercapnia, increased ventilation/perfusion mismatch leading to increased dead space ventilation and decreased diaphragm function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Which type of thyroid tumour represents 75 - 80% of thyroid cancer cases? This type is predominant in children and in patients who have had a previous history of head or neck radiation.
Your Answer: Large-cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma
Explanation:Papillary thyroid carcinoma is the most common thyroid cancer. This cancer has a high cure rate with 10-year survival rates for all patients with papillary thyroid cancer estimated at 80% to 90%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures is not easily palpable?
Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid muscle
Correct Answer: Styloid process of the temporal bone
Explanation:The styloid process is a thin, pointed process that projects antero-inferiorly from the base of the petrous temporal bone. It can vary in length from a short, stubby process to a slender, four to five centimetre rod. It forms from the cranial elements of the second pharyngeal arch. The tympanic plate of the temporal bone ensheathes the base of this process. The pointed, projecting portion of the process provides attachment to the stylohyoid and stylomandibular ligaments, and to three muscles – the styloglossus, stylohyoid, and stylopharyngeus. As the styloid process is covered by the various muscles, it is not easily palpable in live subjects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 53
Correct
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Which of the following will be a seen in a patient with a plasma thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 14 mU/l (normal < 5 mU/l) and a low T3 resin uptake of 19% (normal 25–35%)?
Your Answer: Periorbital swelling and lethargy
Explanation:Low T3 resin uptake combined with raised TSH is indicative of hypothyroidism. Signs and symptoms include dull expression, facial puffiness, lethargy, periorbital swelling due to infiltration with mucopolysaccharides, bradycardia and cold intolerance. Anxiety, palpitations, tachycardia, raised body temperature, heat intolerance and weight loss are all seen in hyperthyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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You observe a procedure to harvest the left internal thoracic (mammary) artery to be used as a graft for coronary artery bypass surgery. The left internal thoracic artery is mobilised from the inside of the chest wall and divided near the caudal end of the sternum. After dividing the internal thoracic artery at its distal end, the specialist registrar asks you to name the artery that will now have increased blood supply so that adequate blood flow is maintained to the rectus abdominis on the left side. What would your answer be?
Your Answer: Superficial epigastric artery
Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The rectus abdominis muscle is supplied by the superior epigastric artery which is a branch of the internal thoracic artery. If the internal thoracic artery is thus ligated, blood would no longer flow to it. However, the superior epigastric artery communicates with the inferior epigastric artery (a branch of the external iliac artery). This means that blood could flow from the external iliac, to the inferior epigastric, to the superior epigastric to the rectus abdominis.
The superficial circumflex iliac artery and the superficial epigastric are two superficial branches of the femoral artery and do not supply the deep branches of the abdomen.
The deep circumflex iliac artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall; being too lateral it doesn’t supply blood to the rectus abdominis.
The distal portions of the umbilical arteries are obliterated in adults to form the medial umbilical folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 55
Incorrect
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During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:
Your Answer: Above the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament
Explanation:The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:
Your Answer: Cerebellum
Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus
Explanation:The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.
The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 55-year old patient with signs and symptoms of internal haemorrhage was brought in for emergency surgery to control the bleeding. Angiography results revealed an advanced duodenal tumour that had perforated the blood vessel immediately behind the first part of the duodenum. Which of the following is the most likely blood vessel that was ruptured by the cancer?
Your Answer: Splenic vein
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The gastroduodenal artery is the artery that lies just behind the first portion of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery would be the most likely artery to be perforated by a cancer in this area. The perforation is as a result of the spillage of the acidic content of the chyme in the duodenum. All the other blood vessels in the list would less likely be affected by the gastric expellant from the duodenum. The coronary vein is located in the lesser curvature of the stomach. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal arcade is located inferiorly to the first part of the duodenum on the head of the pancreas. The hepatic artery proper is a branch of the common hepatic artery that is located superior to the first portion of the duodenum. The splenic vein arises from the spleen; it forms the portal vein by joining the superior mesenteric vein. It is laterally detached from the duodenum. Both the left gastric vein and the splenic vein are located superior to the first portion of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 58
Incorrect
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Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: normal FEV1, arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Which of the following is most accurate about his residual volume?
Your Answer: Is part of vital capacity
Correct Answer: Cannot be measured directly with a spirometer
Explanation:Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after maximal expiration is done. Thus, this is not a part of vital capacity and cannot be measured with a spirometer directly. It can be measured by the methods such as body plethysmography or inert gas dilution. Expiratory reserve volume is vital capacity minus inspiratory capacity. Resting volume of lungs is he sum of residual volume and expiratory reserve volume. Lungs recoil inward until the recoil pressure becomes zero, which corresponds to a volume significantly lower than residual volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male smoker, presented with shortness of breath, chronic cough and haemoptysis over the last three months. He has developed a fat pad in the base of his neck, rounded face, acne and osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most likely pulmonary disease that is causing these symptoms and findings?
Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid
Correct Answer: Small-cell anaplastic carcinoma
Explanation:Small cell lung cancer is a highly aggressive form of lung cancer. It is thought to originate from neuroendocrine cells in the bronchus called Feyrter cells and is often associated to ectopic production of hormones like ADH and ACTH that result in paraneoplastic syndromes and Cushing’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 60
Incorrect
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What is the normal glomerular filtration rate?
Your Answer: 50 mL/min
Correct Answer: 125 mL/min
Explanation:The normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in humans is 125 mL/min. After the age of 40, GFR decreases progressively by about 0.4–1.2 mL/min per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:
Your Answer: Its amplitude remains constant during voluntary movements
Correct Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements
Explanation:Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 62
Correct
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The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?
Your Answer: Teres minor
Explanation:The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: The glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Gastrin
Explanation:Gastric acid secretion is stimulated by three factors:
– Acetylcholine, from parasympathetic neurones of the vagus nerve that innervate parietal cells directly
– Gastrin, produced by pyloric G-cells
– Histamine, produced by mast cells.
Gastric acid is inhibited by three factors:
– Somatostatin
– Secretin
– Cholecystokinin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A patient presented with continuous bleeding several hours after dental extraction. Which of the following findings is most often associated with clinical bleeding?
Your Answer: Prekallikrein deficiency
Correct Answer: Factor IX deficiency
Explanation:Factor IX deficiency, also called Haemophilia B or Christmas disease, is a disorder caused by missing or defective clotting factor IX. Deficiency of the factor IX causes irregular bleeding that can happen spontaneously or after mild trauma, surgery and dental extractions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Which organ is responsible for the secretion of enzymes that aid in digestion of complex starches?
Your Answer: Large intestine
Correct Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:α-amylase is secreted by the pancreas, which is responsible for hydrolysis of starch, glycogen and other carbohydrates into simpler compounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A neonate is diagnosed with cryptorchidism of the right side (undescended testis). Which is the LEAST likely place to find the testis?
Your Answer: Pelvic brim
Correct Answer: Perineum
Explanation:Embryologically the testes are retroperitoneal structures in the posterior abdominal wall, attached to the anterolateral abdominal wall by the gubernaculum. The gubernaculum ‘pulls’ the testes through the deep inguinal ring, inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring and over the pelvic brim. The gubernaculum is preceded by the processus vaginalis that is derived from the peritoneum anterior to the testes. The processus vaginalis pushes the muscle and fascial layers. These eventually make up the canal and the spermatic cord, into the scrotum. The gubernaculum persists as the scrotal ligament while part of the processus vaginalis remains as a bursa-like sac i.e. the tunica vaginalis testes. The testes therefore could be caught in any one of these places along its path of descending. The testes are never in the perineum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 67
Incorrect
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In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:
Your Answer: Trabeculated portion of the right atrium
Correct Answer: Coronary sinus
Explanation:The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae); however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following coagulation factors cross-links fibrin?
Your Answer: Factor II
Correct Answer: Factor XIII
Explanation:Factor XIII, also known as fibrin stabilizing factor, is an enzyme of the coagulation cascade that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of FXIII may cause bleeding tendency but paradoxically, it may also predispose to thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:
Your Answer: First costal cartilage
Correct Answer: Second costal cartilage
Explanation:The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following an MVA. His BP is 70/33 mmhg, heart rate of 140 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood resulting in his BP returning to 100/70 and his heart rate to 90 beats/min. What decreased following transfusion?
Your Answer: Pulmonary artery pressure
Correct Answer: Total peripheral resistance
Explanation:The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood to replace the volume lost. It is important not only to replace fluids but stop active bleeding in resuscitation. Fluid replacement will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling thus reducing total peripheral resistance and increasing cardiac output and cardiac filling pressures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?
Your Answer: Posterior cord
Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 73
Correct
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A 24 year old mother is breastfeeding her first child. Which of the following cellular adaptations occurred in her breast tissue to allow her to do this?
Your Answer: Lobular hyperplasia
Explanation:Under the influence of oestrogen in pregnancy, there is an increase in the number of lobules which will facilitate lactation.
Steatocytes occur due to loss of weight and nutritional deficit.
Metaplasia is a normal physiological process which is due to a change in normal epithelium with another type.
Lobular atrophy will result in a decreased capacity to provide milk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Female Health
- Pathology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman, who had been taking a combined oral contraceptive for 6 months, presented with inguinal pain and oedema of the left leg. Which of the following investigations would you recommend to help confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Venography
Correct Answer: Duplex scan
Explanation:Oral combined contraceptive pill (OCCP) is a drug used for birth control and treating a number of other conditions. Women who take the OCP have a higher risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), usually in the legs. Duplex ultrasonography is a safe and non-invasive technique which is used for diagnosing the presence of lower extremity thrombi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 75
Correct
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During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:
Your Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli
Explanation:The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Calculate the cardiac stroke volume of a patient whose oxygen consumption (measured by analysis of mixed expired gas) is 300 ml/min, arterial O2 content is 20 ml/100 ml blood, pulmonary arterial O2 content is 15 ml/100 ml blood and heart rate is 60/min.
Your Answer: 10 ml
Correct Answer: 100 ml
Explanation:By Fick’s principle, VO2 = Q × (CA (O2) − CV (O2)) where VO2 = O2 consumption, Q = cardiac output and CA(O2) and CV(O2) are arterial and mixed venous O2 content respectively. Thus, in the given problem, 300 ml O2/min = Q × (20−15) ml O2/100 ml. Thus, Q = 6000 ml blood/min. Then, we can calculate stroke volume by dividing the cardiac output with heart rate. Thus, stroke volume = 6000 ml/min divided by 60/min stroke volume = 100 ml.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:
Your Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and lateral umbilical fold
Correct Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery
Explanation:The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
Which among the following vertebrae marks the lowest extent of the superior mediastinum?
Your Answer: Seventh cervical
Correct Answer: Fourth thoracic
Explanation:The superior mediastinum lies between the manubrium anteriorly and the upper vertebrae of the thorax posteriorly. Below, it is bound by a slightly oblique plane that passes backward from the sternal angle to the lower part of the body of T4 and laterally by the pleura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 79
Correct
-
During gastrectomy, the operating surgeon ligates the short gastric arteries along the greater curvature of the stomach. Where do the short gastric arteries branch from?
Your Answer: Splenic artery
Explanation:Short gastric arteries arise from the splenic artery at the end or from its terminal divisions. They are about 5 or 7 in number, passing from the left to the right in between the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament to be distributed along the greater curvature of the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:
Your Answer: Zinc
Correct Answer: Vitamin B3
Explanation:Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.
Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.
Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.
Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Physiology
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 28 years old women presents with a history of chronic cough with fever for the past 2 months. A chest x ray revealed a diffuse bilateral reticulonodular pattern. A transbronchial biopsy was performed and histological examination showed focal areas of inflammation with epithelioid macrophages, Langhans cells and lymphocytes. Which of the immune reaction is responsible for this?
Your Answer: Polyclonal B-cell activation
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:A reactivated tuberculosis with granuloma formation is characteristic of type IV reaction. It is also called a delayed type of hypersensitivity reaction and takes around 2-8 days to deliver. It is a cell mediated response with the involvement of CD8 and CD4 cells and the release of IL-1 from macrophages that further activate these CD cells.
Granulomatous reactions are mostly cell-mediated.
Type I reactions are allergic and anaphylactic reactions and type II are complement-mediated immune reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
- Pathology
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer: B Carbenicillin
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis.Â
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?
Your Answer: Ulnar
Correct Answer: Basilic
Explanation:The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
Fine-needle aspiration is a type of biopsy procedure. When performing a fine-needle aspiration of the lungs, which is the most common complication of the procedure?
Your Answer: Air Embolism
Correct Answer: Pneumothorax
Explanation:Pneumothorax is the most common complication of a fine-needle aspiration procedure. Various factors, such as lesion size, have been associated with increased risk of pneumothorax .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?
Your Answer: FOLFOX
Correct Answer: CHOP
Explanation:CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 86
Correct
-
A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Acute meningitis is a medical emergency. All suspects should receive their first dose of antibiotics immediately and be transferred to hospital as soon as possible. If facilities for blood culture and/or lumbar puncture (LP) are immediately available, they should be performed before administration
of the first dose of antibiotics (see contraindications to LP below). Neither procedure should lead to a significant delay in antibiotic administration.
Administer ceftriaxone 80-100 mg/kg (maximum 2 g, 12 hourly) intravenously. The intramuscular or intraosseous route can be used if there is no vascular access. Penicillin allergy is not a contraindication to ceftriaxone in acute meningitis (C-1). Omit ceftriaxone only if there has been documented ceftriaxone anaphylaxis. Give chloramphenicol 25 mg/kg (maximum 500 mg) intravenously instead, if available. Administer adequate analgesia and transfer the patient immediately to hospital, detailing all administered
medication in the referral letter. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?
Your Answer: Solitary metastasis
Correct Answer: Schwannoma
Explanation:Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 42 year old women presents with end stage renal failure and is prepared to receive a kidney from her husband. HLA testing showed that they are not a 100% match and she is given immunosuppressant therapy for this. Three months later when her renal function tests were performed she showed signs of deteriorating renal function, with decreased renal output, proteinuria of +++ and RBCs in the urine. She was given antilymphocyte globulins and her condition reversed. What type of graft did this patient receive?
Your Answer: Syngraft
Correct Answer: Allograft
Explanation:Allograft describes a graft between two of the same species. As the donor and the recipients are history-incompatible, rejection of the graft is common and is controlled by immunosuppressive drug therapy. Isograft and syngraft are synonymous and referred to a graft transferred between genetically identical individuals e.g. identical twins. In this case rejection is rare as they are history-compatible.
Autograft refers to transfer of one part of the body to another location.
Xenograft is transfer of tissue from another species e.g. pig to human in valve replacement surgeries and rejection is very high.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Renal
- Pathology
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Acute interstitial nephritis
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis
Explanation:The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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Question 90
Correct
-
Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?
Your Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus
Explanation:The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
The thoracic duct :
Your Answer: Is the common trunk of all the lymphatic vessels on the right side of the head, neck and thorax
Correct Answer: varies in length from 38 to 45 cm
Explanation:The thoracic duct is the main drainage of lymph in the body. It varies in length from 38 to 45 cm and extends from the second lumbar vertebra to the root of the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 92
Correct
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Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?
Your Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7
Explanation:The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Neurology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
Which of the following muscles is innervated by the inferior branch of the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Your Answer: Arytenoid
Correct Answer: Posterior cricoarytenoid
Explanation:The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle, which is the sole abductor of the vocal folds, receives its innervation from the inferior laryngeal nerve which is a continuation of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteoblastoma
Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is diagnosed with emphysema and cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following condition may be the cause of both cirrhosis and emphysema in this patient?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a condition characterised by the lack of a protein that protects the lungs and liver from damage, called alpha1-antytripsin. The main complications of this condition are liver diseases such as cirrhosis and chronic hepatitis, due to accumulation of abnormal alpha 1-antytripsin and emphysema due to loss of the proteolytic protection of the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Respiratory
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Question 96
Incorrect
-
Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?
Your Answer: Thyroxin
Correct Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:
1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
2. LH (luteinizing hormone)
3. Growth hormone
4. Prolactin
5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).
The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:
1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
2. Oxytocin
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Physiology
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?
Your Answer: Chymotrypsin
Correct Answer: Pepsin
Explanation:Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
Which of the following physiological changes will you see in a young man who has been trekking in the Himalayas for 3 years?
Your Answer: Decreased production of erythropoietin
Correct Answer: Increased renal excretion of HCO3 –
Explanation:The atmospheric pressure is lower at high altitudes as compared with sea level. This leads to a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen. Once 2100 m (7000 feet) of altitude is reached, there is a drop in saturation of oxyhaemoglobin. The oxygen saturation of haemoglobin determines the oxygen content in the blood. The body physiological tries to adapt to high altitude by acclimatization. Immediate effects include hyperventilation, fluid loss (due to a decreased thirst drive), increase in heart rate and slightly lowered stroke volume. Long term effects include lower lactate production, compensatory alkali loss in urine, decrease in plasma volume, increased erythropoietin release and red cell mass, increased haematocrit, higher concentration of capillaries in striated muscle tissue, increase in myoglobin, increase in mitochondria, increase in aerobic enzyme concentration such as 2,3-DPG and pulmonary vasoconstriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
The vagus nerve passes through which of the following foramen?
Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Correct Answer: Jugular foramen
Explanation:The jugular foramen is a large foramen in the base of the skull. It is located behind the carotid canal and is formed in front by the petrous portion of the temporal bone, and behind by the occipital bone. Cranial nerves IX, X, and XI and the internal jugular vein pass through the jugular foramen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of recent-onset of itching and fatigue. On examination, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was found to be high. Barium radiography of the biliary tract showed a 'beaded' appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic cholelithiasis
Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterised by patchy inflammation, fibrosis and strictures in intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts. It is a chronic cholestatic condition with 80% patients having associated inflammatory bowel disease (likely to be ulcerative colitis). Symptoms include pruritus and fatigue. ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) or MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) are diagnostic. Disease can lead to complete obliteration of ducts, which can result in liver failure. Cholangiocarcinoma is also a recognised complication..
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
- Pathology
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Question 101
Correct
-
A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken to measure serum aldosterone and another substance. Which is most likely to be the other test that was prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Plasma renin
Explanation:The evaluation of a patient in whom hyperaldosteronism is first to determine that hyperaldosteronism is present (serum aldosterone) and, if it is present, to differentiate primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism. The aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) is the most sensitive means of differentiating primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism as it is abnormally increased in primary hyperaldosteronism, and decreased or normal but with high renin levels in secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 20 year old is brought to the A&E after he fell from a moving cart. The boy has sustained blunt abdominal injury, and the there is a possibility of internal bleeding as the boy is in shock. An urgent exploratory laparotomy is done in the A&E theatre. On opening the peritoneal cavity, the operating surgeon notices a torn gastrosplenic ligament with a large clot around the spleen. Which artery is most likely to have been injured in this case?
Your Answer: Left gastroepiploic
Correct Answer: Short gastric
Explanation:The short gastric arteries branch from the splenic artery near the splenic hilum to travel back in the gastrosplenic ligament to supply the fundus of the stomach. Therefore, these may be injured in this case.
The splenic artery courses deep to the stomach to reach the hilum of the spleen. It doesn’t travel in the gastrosplenic ligament although it does give off branches that do.
The middle colic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the transverse colon.
Gastroepiploic artery is the largest branch of the splenic artery that courses between the layers of the greater omentum to anastomose with the right gastroepiploic.
Left gastric artery, a branch of the coeliac trunk. It supplies the left half of the lesser curvature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
C5a (a complement component) is a potent?
Your Answer: Opsonin
Correct Answer: Anaphylotoxin
Explanation:C5a is a strong chemoattractant as well as an anaphylotoxin and is involved in the recruitment of inflammatory cells such as neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and T lymphocytes. It is also involved in activation of phagocytic cells, release of granule-based enzymes and generation of oxidants. All of which contribute to innate immune functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
A chef, whilst preparing food, cut her thumb with a knife. She transected the arteria princeps pollicis. This artery is a branch of the?
Your Answer: Ulnar artery
Correct Answer: Radial artery
Explanation:The radial artery branches into the arteria princeps pollicis as it turns medially into the deep part of the hand. The arteria princeps pollicis is distributed to the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the thumb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?
Your Answer: An increase in the ‘delayed rectifier’ current due to outward movement of inward K+ (IK)
Correct Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
Explanation:One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
Which of the following will be a likely sequelae of complete ileal resection?
Your Answer: Increased iron absorption
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:The ileum is a part of the small intestine and has a pH of around 7-8 (neutral or slightly alkaline). Its main function is absorption of products of digestion. The ileal wall has multiple villi, which in turn have numerous microvilli. This increases the surface area available for absorption significantly. The cells lining the ileum contain multiple enzymes such as protease and carbohydrase, which aid in the final stages of digestion. Villi contain lacteals which absorb the products of fat digestion, fatty acids and glycerol. Thus, ileal resection will lead to their decreased absorption and increased fat content in the stool. The ileum is also responsible for absorption of vitamin B12.
Maximum water absorption occurs in the colon followed by the jejunum. Hence, ileal resection is less likely to lead to fluid volume deficiency. Also, most minerals (like calcium, iron etc.) are absorbed in the duodenum, and thus will not be affected by ileal resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 107
Correct
-
Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints?
Your Answer: Sartorius
Explanation:The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, is one of the two jointed or biarticular muscles. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and part of the notch between the anterior superior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint. At the hip joint the sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh at the hip joint and flexes the leg at the knee joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 108
Correct
-
Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a specific target?
Your Answer: Chemotaxis
Explanation:The movement of leukocytes towards a chemical mediator is termed chemotaxis and the mediators likewise called chemoattractants.
Diapedesis is the squeezing of the leukocytes from the capillary wall into the intercellular space.
Endocytosis is engulfing of a small substance by the cells e.g. glucose, protein, fats.
Margination is lining of the WBC along the periphery of the blood vessel.
Adhesion is attachment with the vessel wall.
Phagocytosis is described as engulfing the bacteria or the offending substance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 109
Correct
-
Lung compliance is increased by:
Your Answer: Emphysema
Explanation:Lung compliance is increased by emphysema, acute asthma and increasing age and decreased by alveolar oedema, pulmonary hypertension, atelectasis and pulmonary fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:
Your Answer: Horizontal part of the duodenum
Correct Answer: Descending part of the duodenum
Explanation:The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
A patient with Paget's disease of the bone is predisposed to developing which type of cancer?
Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Paget’s disease of bone (PDB) is a focal disorder of bone. It is presumed benign in nature and mediated by abnormal osteoclast function. However osteosarcomas may occur in <1% of patients with Paget's disease of the bone. Osteosarcomas are osteogenic in origin, and consistently arise in sites of pagetic bone. This is not to be confused with Paget's disease of the breast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops acute renal failure. Which of the following physiological abnormalities of acute renal failure will be most life threatening for this patient?
Your Answer: Raised serum creatinine level
Correct Answer: Acidosis
Explanation:Acute renal failure (ARF) is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys, resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) and non-nitrogenous waste products that are normally excreted by the kidney. This accumulation may be accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia, changes in body fluid balance and effects on many other organ systems. Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia are the two most serious biochemical manifestations of acute renal failure and may require medical treatment with sodium bicarbonate administration and antihyperkalaemic measures. If not appropriately treated these can be life-threatening. ARF is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic laboratory findings, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, or inability of the kidneys to produce sufficient amounts of urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after complaining of sudden, severe upper back pain and a ripping sensation, that radiated to his neck. On arrival, his pulse was weak in one arm compared with the other however his ECG result was normal. Which of the following is most probably the cause of these findings and symptoms?
Your Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax
Correct Answer: Acute aortic dissection
Explanation:Acute aortic dissection is a serious condition in which the inner layer of the aorta tears and the blood flows in between the inner and middle layers of the aorta causing their separation (dissection). Aortic dissection can lead to rupture or decreased blood flow to organs. Clinical manifestations most often include the sudden onset of severe, tearing or ripping chest pain that can radiate to the shoulder, back or neck; syncope; altered mental status; dyspnoea; pale skin; stroke symptoms etc. The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection is based on clinical findings, imaging studies, electrocardiography and laboratory analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 30-year old lady was admitted to the general surgical ward after a diagnosis of perforation of the first part of the duodenum that resulted from a long standing ulcer. If this perforation led to the expulsion of the gastric content that resulted to the erosion of an artery found in this part of the duodenum (the posterior of the first part of the duodenum). Which of the following arteries is this most likely to be?
Your Answer: Left gastric
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal
Explanation:The proximal part of the duodenum is supplied by the gastroduodenal artery. This artery is found descending behind the first part of the duodenum after branching from the hepatic artery. If gastric content was to be expelled in the posterior portion of the first part of the duodenum, then this artery would be most likely to be damaged. The common hepatic artery and the left gastric artery are branches of the coeliac trunk that are found superior to the duodenum. The proper hepatic artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery also found superior to the duodenum. The superior mesenteric artery is found behind the pancreas as a branch of the aorta that is at the bottom of the L1 level. The right gastric artery arises above the pylorus from the proper hepatic artery and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach. The intestinal arteries supply the ileum and the jejunum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 115
Correct
-
A 59-year-old woman with hyperaldosteronism is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following diuretics promotes diuresis by opposing the action of aldosterone?
Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretic
Explanation:The term potassium-sparing refers to an effect rather than a mechanism or location. Potassium-sparing diuretics act by either antagonising the action of aldosterone (spironolactone) or inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the distal tubules (amiloride). This group of drugs is often used as adjunctive therapy, in combination with other drugs, for the management of chronic heart failure. Spironolactone, the first member of the class, is also used in the management of hyperaldosteronism (including Conn’s syndrome) and female hirsutism (due to additional antiandrogen actions).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen in:
Your Answer: Inhalation of a gas mixture enriched with CO2
Correct Answer: Elevation in systemic arterial pressure from 100 to 130 mmHg
Explanation:Constant cerebral blood flow is maintained by autoregulation in the brain, which causes an increase in local vascular resistance to offset an increase in blood pressure. There will be an increase in cerebral blood flow (and decrease in resistance to cerebral blood flow) with a decrease in arterial oxygen or an increase in arterial CO2. Similarly, a decrease in viscosity will also increase the blood flow. Due to increased brain metabolism and activity during a seizure, there will also be an increase in the cerebral blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
A terrorist running away from the police was shot in the back. The bullet hit his left lung halfway between its apex and the diaphragmatic surface. Which part of the lung was most likely to be injured?
Your Answer: Middle lobe
Correct Answer: Inferior lobe
Explanation:The oblique fissure of the left lung is so sharp that the posterior surface of the left lung is mostly composed of the inferior lobe so that the point halfway between the apex and the diaphragmatic surface of the lung would result in injury to the inferior lobe.
The hilum is the point on the medial surface of the lung where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the lung.
The lingual on the other hand is part of the superior lobe of the left lung and it is part of the anterior and superior sides of the lung.
The middle lobe is only found on the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 28-year old lady comes to the surgical clinic with a recently detected lump in her right breast. On examination, the lump is found to be 1cm, rubbery, mobile with no palpable axillary nodes. Mammography reveals no microcalcifications and the opposite breast appears normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma
Explanation:A benign breast tumour, fibroadenoma is common below the age of 30 years and occurs due to oestrogenic excess. It is characterised by proliferation of both glandular and stromal elements. Fibroadenomas are usually solitary and are mobile, not fixed to surrounding structures. The tumour is elastic, nodular and encapsulated with a grey-white cut surface. The two main histological types include intracanalicular and pericanalicular types, with both types often present in the same tumour. In the intracanalicular type, the stromal proliferation component predominates causing compression of ducts making them appear slit-like. In pericanalicular type, the fibrous stroma dominates around the ductal spaces so that they remain oval on cross section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Women's Health
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
What is the action of the muscle of the orbit that originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen?
Your Answer: Nasal rotation of the eyeball
Correct Answer: Elevation of the upper eyelid
Explanation:The levator palpebrae superioris is the muscle in the orbit that elevates the superior (upper) eyelid. The levator palpebrae superioris originates on the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone, just above the optic foramen and receives somatic motor input from the ipsilateral superior division of the oculomotor nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
An ECG of a 30 year old woman revealed low voltage QRS complexes. This patient is most probably suffering from?
Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: Pericardial effusion
Explanation:The QRS complex is associated with current that results in the contraction of both the ventricles. As ventricles have more muscle mass than the atria, they result in a greater deflection on the ECG. The normal duration of a QRS complex is 10s. A wide and deep Q wave depicts myocardial infarction. Abnormalities in the QRS complex maybe indicative of a bundle block, ventricular tachycardia or hypertrophy of the ventricles. Low voltage QRS complexes are characteristic of pericarditis or a pericardial effusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
Which of the following abnormalities can be seen in patients with hypermagnesemia?
Your Answer: Tetany
Correct Answer: Respiratory depression
Explanation:Hypermagnesemia is an electrolyte disturbance in which there is a high level of magnesium in the blood. It is defined as a level greater than 1.1 mmol/L. Symptoms include weakness, confusion, decreased breathing rate, and cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases is caused by intra-articular and/or extra-articular deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals, due to unknown causes?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Pseudogout or chondrocalcinosis is a rheumatological disease caused by the accumulation of crystals of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) in the connective tissues. It is frequently associated with other conditions, such as trauma, amyloidosis, gout, hyperparathyroidism and old age, which suggests that it is secondary to degenerative or metabolic changes in the tissues. The knee is the most commonly affected joint. It causes symptoms similar to those of rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:
Your Answer: The azygos vein passes through the opening at T10
Correct Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12
Explanation:The diaphragmatic openings are:
T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve
T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein
T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?
Your Answer: Histamine reduces gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion
Explanation:Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:
Your Answer: Pulsus parvus
Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?
Your Answer: L4
Correct Answer: S3
Explanation:The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman complains of pain in the proximal and distal interphalangeal joins, and back pain which has increased over the last 4 years and worsens after activity. X-rays reveal Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes in her interphalangeal joints and the presence of osteophytes in her spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gout
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Osteoarthritis is most common in older adults, predominating in women between the ages of 40 and 70; after this age, men and women are affected equally. It affects an entire joint, with disruption and potential loss of joint cartilage, along with other joint changes, including bone hypertrophy (osteophyte formation). The pain is usually gradual and is worse after activity, with occasional joint swelling. X-ray findings include marginal osteophytes, narrowing of the joint space, increased density of the subchondral bone, subchondral cyst formation, bony remodelling and joint effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is NOT true regarding malignant hyperpyrexia
Your Answer: It can be caused by suxamethonium
Correct Answer: It can be caused by nitrous oxide
Explanation:Malignant hyerpyrexia occurs in 1 in 150,000. All inhalational anaesthetic agents and suxamethonium, except nitrous oxide can cause malignant hyperpyrexia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the most abundant WBC seen in a smear from a healthy person.
Your Answer: Lymphocytes
Correct Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:neutrophils are the most abundant cell type of the WBC. These phagocytes are found normally in the blood and increase in number are seen during an acute inflammation. These the percentages of WBC in blood Neutrophils: 40 to 60%
Lymphocytes: 20 to 40%
Monocytes: 2 to 8%
Eosinophils: 1 to 4%
Basophils: 0.5 to 1%
Band (young neutrophil): 0 to 3%. eosinophils, basophils, neutrophils are known as granulocytes and monocytes and lymphocytes as agranulocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia
Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
A 45-year old lady underwent biopsy of a soft, fleshy mass involving her left breast. The biopsy showed lymphoid stroma with minimal fibrosis, surrounding sheets of large vesicular cells with frequent mitoses. Which condition is she most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Lobular carcinoma
Correct Answer: Medullary carcinoma of breast
Explanation:Medullary carcinoma is a malignant tumour of the breast with well-defined boundaries and accounts for 5% of all breast cancers. Other special features include a larger size of the neoplastic cells and presence of lymphoid cells at tumour edge. Differential diagnosis includes invasive ductal carcinoma. Prognosis is usually good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Women's Health
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Question 132
Correct
-
The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?
Your Answer: Anterior scalene
Explanation:The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a likely cause of jaundice?
Your Answer: Common bile duct obstruction if the serum amino transferases are elevated and alkaline phosphatase is low
Correct Answer: Hepatic disease if plasma albumin is low and serum aminotransferase elevations > 500 units
Explanation:Jaundice can occur due to any of the possible causes and treatment depends upon diagnosing the correct condition. Mild hyperbilirubinemia with normal levels of aminotransferase and alkaline phosphatase is often unconjugated (e.g., due to haemolysis or Gilbert’s syndrome rather than hepatobiliary disease). Moderate or severe hyperbilirubinemia along with increased urinary bilirubin (bilirubinuria), high alkaline phosphatase or aminotransferase levels suggest hepatobiliary disease. Hyperbilirubinemia produced by any hepatobiliary disease is largely conjugated. In this case, other blood tests include hepatitis serology for suspected hepatitis, prothrombin time (PT) or international normalised ratio (INR), albumin and globulin levels, and antimitochondrial antibody levels (suspected primary biliary cirrhosis). Low albumin and high globulin levels suggest chronic rather than acute liver disease. In cases where there is only a an elevation of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) levels should be checked – the levels of which will be found high in hepatobiliary disease, but not in bone disorder which can also lead to elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. In diseases of hepatobiliary origin, aminotransferase elevations > 500 units suggest a hepatocellular cause, whereas disproportionate increases of alkaline phosphatase (e.g., alkaline phosphatase > 3 times normal and aminotransferase < 200 units) suggest cholestasis. Because hepatobiliary disease alone rarely causes bilirubin levels > 30 mg/dl, higher levels are suggestive of a combination of severe hepatobiliary disease and haemolysis or renal dysfunction. Imaging is best for diagnosing infiltrative and cholestatic causes of jaundice. Liver biopsy is rarely needed, but can be of use in intrahepatic cholestasis and in some types of hepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 134
Correct
-
A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with pain in his left flank. The pain began suddenly and presented in waves throughout the night. Urine examination was normal except for presence of blood and few white blood cells. The pH and specific gravity of the urine were also found to be within normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ureteric calculus
Explanation:A calculus in the ureter, if less than 5mm in diameter is likely to pass spontaneously. However, a larger calculus irritates the ureter and may become lodged, leading to hydroureter and/or hydronephrosis. Likely sites where the calculus might get lodged, include pelviureteric junction, distal ureter at the level of iliac vessels and the vesicoureteric junction. An obstruction can result in reduced glomerular filtration. There can be deterioration in renal function due to hydronephrosis and a raised glomerular pressure, leading to poor renal blood flow. Permanent renal dysfunction usually takes about 4 weeks to occur. Secondary infection can also occur in chronic obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Renal
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
A cell is classified on the basis of its regenerative ability. Which of the following cells represent a permanent cell?
Your Answer: Acinar cell of the pancreas
Correct Answer: Erythrocyte
Explanation:An erythrocyte is the last cell in the progeny of RBC cell division and is not capable of further division and regeneration. Hepatocytes, osteocytes and epithelium of kidney tubules are all stable cells. Colonic mucosa and pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are all labile cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 136
Correct
-
Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?
Your Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa
Explanation:The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:
Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone
Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone
Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone
Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:
Your Answer: Has lower tonicity
Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity from the bottom of the external acoustic meatus. The interior of the tympanic membrane is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?
Your Answer: Abducens
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Explanation:The glossopharyngeal nerve, known as the ninth cranial nerve (CN IX), is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The glossopharyngeal nerve has five distinct general functions:
– The branchial motor (special visceral efferent), supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.
– The visceral motor (general visceral efferent), provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.
– The visceral sensory (general visceral afferent), carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.
– The general sensory (general somatic afferent), provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx (GVA), and the posterior one-third of the tongue.
– The visceral afferent (special visceral afferent), provides taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, including the circumvallate papillae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?
Your Answer: Loop of Henlé
Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port incisions are sutured closed and the wounds observed every few weeks for re-epithelialisation and tensile strength. Which substance is mostly likely to be found at a cellular level involved in wound healing?
Your Answer: Hyaluronic acid
Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase
Explanation:Cell surface growth factor receptors require intercellular proteins such as tyrosine kinase which are necessary to initiate a series of events that eventually lead to cell division and growth. Tyrosine kinase is an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group to the tyrosine residue in a protein. This phosphorylation will lead to an up regulation of the enzyme activity.
Fibronectin acts in the extracellular matrix to bind macromolecules (such as proteoglycans) via integrin receptors to aid attachment and migration of cells.
Laminin is an extracellular matrix component that is abundant in basement membranes.
Hyaluronic acid is one of the proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix.
Collagen fibres are part of the extracellular matrix that gives strength and stability to connective tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman known with Von Willebrand disease (vWD) has to undergo surgery. Which of these complications is most unlikely in this patient?
Your Answer: Easy bruising
Correct Answer: Hemarthrosis
Explanation:Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is an inherited haemorrhagic disorder characterised by the impairment of primary haemostasis. It is caused by the deficiency or dysfunction of a protein named von Willebrand factor. The most common manifestation due to the condition is abnormal bleeding. Complications include easy bruising, hematomas, epistaxis, menorrhagia, prolonged bleeding and severe haemorrhage. Hemarthrosis is a complication that is more commonly found in haemophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?
Your Answer: Collecting duct
Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henlé
Explanation:Within the nephron of the kidney, the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is a segment of the loop of Henle downstream of the descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of Henlé have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?
Your Answer: Central tendon
Correct Answer: Right crus
Explanation:The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 144
Correct
-
Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?
Your Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)
Explanation:The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
A patient is admitted to the ICU, and is prescribed tazobactam, amongst other drugs. What is the mechanism of action of tazobactam?
Your Answer: Inhibits CD3 receptor
Correct Answer: Inhibits beta-lactamase
Explanation:Tazobactam is a compound which inhibits the action of bacterial beta-lactamases. It is added to the extended-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic piperacillin to broaden the spectrum of piperacillin by making it effective against organisms that express beta-lactamase and would normally degrade piperacillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the disease most likely through which port of entry?
Your Answer: Skin
Correct Answer: Respiratory tract
Explanation:Blastomycosis disease is a fungal infection acquired through inhalation of the spores. It caused by the organism Blastomyces dermatitidis and manifests as a primary lung infection in about 70% of cases. The onset is relatively slow and symptoms are suggestive of pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathology
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is involved in vitamin B12 absorption?
Your Answer: Fe3+
Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor
Explanation:Absorption of vitamin B12 is by an active transport process and occurs in the ileum. Most cobalamins are bound to proteins and are released in the stomach due to low pH and pepsin. The cobalamins then bind to R proteins, i.e. haptocorrin (HC) secreted from salivary glands and gastric juice. Another cobalamin binding protein is Intrinsic factor (IF) secreted from the gastric parietal cells. The cobalamin-HC complex is digested by pancreatic proteases in the intestinal lumen, and the free cobalamin then binds to IF. The complex then reaches a transmembrane receptor in the ileum and undergoes endocytosis. Cobalamin is then released intracellularly and binds to transcobalamin II (TC II). The newly formed complex then exits the ileal cell and enters the blood circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?
Your Answer: Sternoclavicular joint
Correct Answer: Sternal angle
Explanation:The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?
Your Answer: Lateral antebrachial cutaneous
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 150
Correct
-
A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?
Your Answer: Antithrombin III
Explanation:Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.
Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 151
Correct
-
When at rest, which of the following will be higher in a marathon runner compared to an untrained individual?
Your Answer: Cardiac stroke volume
Explanation:Cardiac muscle hypertrophy is seen in trained athletes as compared to the normal population. This hypertrophy results in higher stroke volume at rest and increased cardiac reserve (maximum cardiac output during exercise). However, the cardiac output at rest is almost the same in both trained and untrained people. This is because in trained athletes, the heart rate is slower, even up to 40-50 beats/min. There is minimal affect of athletic training on oxygen consumption and respiratory rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 152
Correct
-
Biopsy of a neoplastic mass was performed. Histologic examination of the specimen showed spindle shaped cells with high nuclear/cytoplasm ratio on immunohisto chemical staining. These pleomorphic cells were vimentin positive, cytokeratin negative and cd45 negative. This type of neoplasm is most commonly found in which patient?
Your Answer: A 15-year-old boy with a mass in the left femur and lung metastases
Explanation:A histology report that describes spindle shaped cells which are vimentin positive suggests osteosarcoma and hematogenous spread to the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia; Orthopaedics
- Pathology
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst the registrar was performing this procedure she made a median cut too far through the perineal body cutting the structure immediately posterior. Which structure is this?
Your Answer: Bulbospongiosus muscle
Correct Answer: External anal sphincter
Explanation:An episiotomy is an incision that is made whenever there is a risk of a tear during vaginal deliver. A posterolateral incision, as opposed to a median incision is preferred. Of the options given, the external anal sphincter lies right posterior to the perineal body. The sacrospinous and the sacrotuberous ligaments are deep in the perineum that they should not be involved in this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
A 44-year old gentleman presented to the hospital in congestive cardiac failure. On further investigation, he was found to have a right-sided retroperitoneal mass. On enquiry, he gave a history of intermittent hypertensive attacks. 24-hour urine specimen revealed raised metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid levels. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neurofibroma
Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Explanation:A neuroendocrine tumour of the chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla, pheochromocytoma secretes excessive catecholamines – adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine). Pheochromocytomas are also known as the ‘10% tumour’. This is because 10% of them are bilateral, 10% are malignant, and 10% are extra-adrenal. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas (also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas) are less common than pheochromocytomas and arise in the ganglia of sympathetic nervous system. Around 25% of pheochromocytomas are familial. Symptoms are described as feeling of ‘impending doom’, and include tachycardia, hypertension, palpitations, anxiety, headaches and pallor. Orthostatic hypertension is typically seen where there is a more than 100 mmHg fall in systolic pressure when the patient stands up. Pheochromocytomas can also lead to malignant hypertension. Diagnosis is by measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in blood or in 24-hour urine, after exclusion of other possible causes such as stress, hypoglycaemia and drugs (methyldopa, dopamine agonists, ganglion-blocking antihypertensive). Imaging is also needed to localize the tumour. Localization of the tumour can also be done by Iodine-131 meta-iodobenzylguanidine (I131-MIBG) imaging.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pathology
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:
Your Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pathology
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Question 156
Correct
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Which of the following accumulates within a cell due to the aging process?
Your Answer: Lipofuscin
Explanation:Lipofuscin , also known as lipochrome, is a wear and tear pigment or an aging pigment. It represents free radical injury or lipid peroxidation. On microscopic examination is appears as a yellowish brown pigment around the nucleus (perinuclear pigment). It is often seen in cells which are undergoing regressive changes, commonly in the liver and heart of old patients or patients with cancer, cachexia or severe malnutrition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration?
Your Answer: Accumulation of lipofuscin
Correct Answer: Homogeneous, ground-glass, pink-staining appearance of cells
Explanation:The characteristic morphological features of hyaline degeneration is ground-glass, pinking staining cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane. The accumulation of lipids, calcium salts, lipofuscin and an amorphous cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane are all characteristically found in different situations.
Pyknotic nucleus and orphan Annie eye nucleus are not seen in hyaline degeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?
Your Answer: Parasympathetic stimulation
Correct Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose
Explanation:The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?
Your Answer: Neutralisation
Correct Answer: Hydrolysis
Explanation:Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
- Physiology
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:
Your Answer: The cornea
Correct Answer: The iris
Explanation:The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 161
Correct
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A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during a 24-h period:
Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min
Urine inulin: 0.5 mg/ml
Plasma inulin: 0.02 mg/ml
Urine urea: 220 mmol/l
Plasma urea: 5 mmol/l.
What is the urea clearance?Your Answer: 88 ml/min
Explanation:Urea is reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts of the nephrons. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. So, glomerular filtration rate = (0.220 × 2. 0)/0.005 = 88 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
Multiple cells were labelled using a fluorescent dye that doesn’t cross the cell membrane. One cell in the middle was bleached with a light that destroys the dye, but the cell soon recovers its stain. The presence of which structures best explains this?
Your Answer: Desmosomes
Correct Answer: Gap junctions
Explanation:Gap junctions are attachments between cells that permit intercellular communication e.g. they permit current flow and electrical coupling between myocardial cells. They allow direct electrical transmission among cells and also permit certain substance to pass through as well. They are either homotypic, formed by two identical hemichannels or heterotypic, formed by different hemichannels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?
Your Answer: Superior epigastric vessels
Correct Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries
Explanation:The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?
Your Answer: Aorta
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.
The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.
The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.
Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
Your Answer: Protein S deficiency
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia
Explanation:Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 166
Correct
-
A 20-year-old woman had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days. She felt dizzy and weak, and thus decided to seek medical attention. At the emergency room her BP was 80/60 mmHg with a pulse of 118/min. What is the most appropriate intravenous treatment that should be given?
Your Answer: Isotonic saline
Explanation:Normal saline is typically the first fluid used when hypovolemia is severe enough to threaten the adequacy of blood circulation. It is isotonic and has long been believed to be the safest fluid to give quickly in large volumes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 167
Correct
-
The posterior boundary of the carotid triangle is bounded by which of the following muscles?
Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid
Explanation:The carotid triangle is a portion of the anterior triangle of the neck. It is bounded superiorly by the posterior belly of the digastric muscle, antero-inferiorly by the superior belly of omohyoid and posteriorly by the sternocleidomastoid. The floor is formed by the thyrohyoid, hyoglossus, middle and inferior pharyngeal constrictors and the roof is formed by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma and deep fascia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
During pregnancy the uterus enlarges however after delivery it regresses to its original size. Which of the following organelles is responsible for this regression?
Your Answer: Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Lysosomes
Explanation:Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes which digest macromolecules. They are found in both plants and animals and are active in autophagic cell death, digestion after phagocytosis and for the cells own recycling process. They fuse with the molecules and release their content resulting in digestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus?
Your Answer: Contains valves, unlike the other venous dural sinuses
Correct Answer: Is formed between two layers of meningeal dura
Explanation:The inferior sagittal sinus is also known as the inferior longitudinal sinus. It courses along the inferior border of the falx cerebri, superior to the corpus callosum. It is cylindrical in shape and increases in size as it passes backward ending in the straight sinus. It receives blood from the deep and medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres and drains into the straight sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 170
Correct
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The Henderson–Hasselbalch equation describes the derivation of pH as a measure of acidity. According to this equation, the buffering capacity of the system is at maximum when the number of free anions compared with undissociated acid is:
Your Answer: Equal
Explanation:In 1908, Lawrence Joseph Henderson wrote an equation describing the use of carbonic acid as a buffer solution. Later, Karl Albert Hasselbalch re-expressed that formula in logarithmic terms, resulting in the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation. The equation is also useful for estimating the pH of a buffer solution and finding the equilibrium pH in acid–base reactions. Two equivalent forms of the equation are: pH = pKa + log10 [A–]/[HA] or pH = pKa + log10 [base]/[acid]. Here, pKa is − log10(Ka) where Ka is the acid dissociation constant, that is: pKa = –log10(Ka) = –log10 ([H3 O+][A–]/[HA]) for the reaction: HA + H2 O ≈ A– + H3 O+ In these equations, A– denotes the ionic form of the relevant acid. Bracketed quantities such as [base] and [acid] denote the molar concentration of the quantity enclosed. Maximum buffering capacity is found when pH = pKa or when the number of free anions to undissociated acid is equal and buffer range is considered to be at a pH = pKa ± 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Physiology
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Question 171
Correct
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A 35-year old lady presents to her GP with vague abdominal symptoms. Examination reveals a normal size spleen. Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
Explanation:Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a disease caused due to development of an antibody against a platelet antigen (autoantibody). In childhood disease, the autoantibody gets triggered by binding of viral antigen to the megakaryocytes. Presentation includes unexplained thrombocytopenia, petechiae and bleeding from mucosal surfaces. The spleen usually does not enlarge in size. However, splenomegaly can occur due to coexisting viral infection. Marrow examination reveals normal or increased number of megakaryocytes. Diagnosis is by exclusion of other thrombocytopenic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
The uterine artery arises from the?
Your Answer: Abdominal aorta
Correct Answer: Internal iliac artery
Explanation:The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 173
Incorrect
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During an inguinal hernia repair, an incision is made parallel to and 5cm above the inguinal ligament. The registrar is warned to look out for the inferior epigastric vessels to avoid damage. Between which layers of the abdominal wall is the registrar likely to find these vessels?
Your Answer: Skin and deep fascia of the abdominal wall
Correct Answer: Transversus abdominis muscle and peritoneum
Explanation:The inferior epigastric vessels lie on the inner surface of the transversus abdominis muscle covered by the parietal peritoneum. This layer of peritoneum lies over the inferior epigastric vessels to make the lateral umbilical fold. Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia are two layers of the superficial fascia, the fatty layer and the membranous layer respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could have been the contributing factor in the development of his bladder cancer?
Your Answer: Mercury
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Tobacco smoking is the main known contributor to urinary bladder cancer. In most populations, smoking is associated with over half of bladder cancer cases in men and one-third of cases among women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?
Your Answer: B lymphocyte
Correct Answer: Natural killer cell
Explanation:Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology
- Pathology
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Question 176
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 80–100 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 31–37 g/dl. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient’s erythrocytes:
Your Answer: Normal MCV
Explanation:MCV is the mean corpuscular volume and it is calculated from the haematocrit and the RBC count. It is normally 90 fl. Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) [g/dl] = haemoglobin [g/dl]/haematocrit = 11/0.27 = 41 g/dl and is higher than normal range (32 to 36 g/dL).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Adduction of the thigh would be eliminated
Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected
Explanation:As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?
Your Answer: Pancreas
Correct Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?
Your Answer: External jugular vein
Correct Answer: Brachiocephalic vein
Explanation:The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?
Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Correct Answer: Posterior rectus sheath
Explanation:Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock?
Your Answer: Skeletal muscle
Correct Answer: Kidneys
Explanation:At rest, the brain receives 15% cardiac output, muscles 15%, gastrointestinal tract 30% and kidneys receive 20%. However, if normalised by weight, the largest specific blood flow is received by the kidneys at rest (400 ml/min x 100g), making them highly vulnerable in the case of a haemorrhagic shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:
Your Answer: Loss of rectal sphincter control
Correct Answer: Loss of satiety
Explanation:The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 183
Correct
-
Dysarthria, nystagmus and a tremor worsening with directed movement are likely to be seen in:
Your Answer: Cerebellar disease
Explanation:The given symptoms are seen in diseases affecting the cerebellum. A cerebellar tremor is a slow tremor that occurs at the end of a purposeful movement. It is seen in cerebellar disease, such as multiple sclerosis or some inherited degenerative disorders and chronic alcoholism. Classically, tremors are produced in the same side of the body as a one-sided lesion. Cerebellar disease can also result in a wing-beating’ type of tremor called rubral or Holmes’ tremor – a combination of rest, action and postural tremors. Other signs of cerebellar disease include dysarthria (speech problems), nystagmus (rapid, involuntary rolling of the eyes), gait problems and postural tremor of the trunk and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:
Your Answer: Posterior tibial artery
Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation:The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 185
Correct
-
A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of normal tissue in an otherwise normal area. This condition is known as?
Your Answer: Hamartoma
Explanation:A hamartoma is a condition best described as tissue normally present in an area arranged haphazardly in an disorganized, abnormal fashion. They are never malignant and do not metastasis.
All the neoplastic, cancerous lesions comprise of a mixture of different cells that are not normal to that area.
Metaplasia is a change in the type of the epithelium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
Which of these nerves controls adduction of hand?
Your Answer: Median nerve
Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The adductors of the fingers are the palmer interossei. They are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which is a branch of the medical cord of the brachial plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 187
Correct
-
Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy
Explanation:Mithramycin or Plicamycin is a tricyclic pentaglycosidic antibiotic derived from Streptomyces strains. It inhibits RNA and protein synthesis by adhering to DNA. It is used as a fluorescent dye and as an antineoplastic agent. It is also used to reduce hypercalcaemia, especially caused by malignancy. Plicamycin is currently used in multiple areas of research, including cancer cell apoptosis and as a metastasis inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pharmacology
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?
Your Answer: Tensor fascia lata
Correct Answer: Vastus intermedius
Explanation:The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?
Your Answer: Anaplasia
Correct Answer: Invasion
Explanation:Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neoplasia
- Pathology
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
A butcher accidentally cut himself on his right index finger. Which of the following substances when in contact with the basement membrane of the injured vasculature will activate the coagulation cascade as well as the kinin system in a first response to this injury?
Your Answer: Histamine
Correct Answer: Hageman factor
Explanation:Hageman factor/factor XII in the intrinsic pathway activates prekallikrein and factor XI. Deficiency will not cause excessive bleeding as other coagulation factors will be utilized but the PTT will be greater than 200 seconds.
Thromboxane promotes platelet aggregation and causes vasoconstriction.
Plasmin, which is cleaved from plasminogen acts as an anticoagulant which breaks down thrombi.
Platelet activating factor promotes platelet aggregation and is also chemotactic to neutrophils.
Histamine acts as a vasodilator.
Platelet inhibiting factor acts an anticoagulant.
Renin is a hormone released from the kidney that causes vasoconstriction and water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
Painful erections along with deviation of the penis to one side when erect are seen in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Balanitis
Correct Answer: Peyronie’s disease
Explanation:Peyronie’s disease leads to development of fibrous plaques in the penile soft tissue and occurs in 1% of men, most commonly affecting white males above 40 years age. It is a connective tissue disorder named after a French surgeon, François de la Peyronie who first described it. Symptoms include pain, hard lesions on the penis, abnormal curvature of erect penis, narrowing/shortening, painful sexual intercourse and in later stages, erectile dysfunction. 30% cases report fibrosis in other elastic tissues such as Dupuytren’s contractures of the hand. There is likely a genetic predisposition as increased incidence is noted among the male relatives of an affected individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Urology
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old female patient had the following blood report: RBC count = 4. 0 × 106/μl, haematocrit = 27% and haemoglobin = 11 g/dl, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) = 90 fl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) = 41 g/dl. Further examination of blood sample revealed increased osmotic fragility of the erythrocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?
Your Answer: Thalassaemia
Correct Answer: Spherocytosis
Explanation:Spherocytes are small rounded RBCs. It is due to an inherited defect of the RBC cytoskeleton membrane tethering proteins. Membrane blebs form that are lost over time and cells become round instead of biconcave. As it is a normochromic anaemia, the MCV is normal. it is diagnosed by osmotic fragility test which reveals increased fragility in a hypotonic solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General
- Physiology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Correct Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammation & Immunology; Respiratory
- Pathology
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Question 194
Correct
-
Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:
Your Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein
Explanation:Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 195
Incorrect
-
The histological exam of a tuberculous granuloma shows a periphery of multinuclear giant cells, with a central area of:
Your Answer: Foam cells
Correct Answer: Caseous necrosis
Explanation:Granulomas with necrosis tend to have an infectious cause. The chronic infective lesion in this case typically presents with a central area of caseous (cheese-like) necrosis. Foam cells are the fat-laden M2 macrophages seen in atherosclerosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology
- Pathology
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral pudendal nerve block. In order to inject the anaesthetic agent near the pudendal nerve a anaesthetic consultant had to insert a finger into the vagina and press laterally to palpate which landmark?
Your Answer: Lateral fornix
Correct Answer: Ischial spine
Explanation:The ischial spine is always palpated through the walls of the vagina when performing a transvaginal pudendal nerve block and can easily be palpated on the lateral wall of the vagina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures is affected or damaged when the 'anterior drawer test' is positive?
Your Answer: Lateral meniscus
Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation:The anterior drawer test is an important orthopaedic test that is used to test weakness of the anterior cruciate ligament. The test is done by having the patient sit in a supine position with his/her knees flexed at 90 degrees. An examiner stabilises the patients feet and softly pulls or pushes on the proximal tibia. The test is positive if there is translational movement of the tibia in relation to the femur, indicating a weakened anterior cruciate ligament. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the tibia from sliding out in front of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?
Your Answer: Trigeminal ganglion
Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion
Explanation:The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 199
Incorrect
-
The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?
Your Answer: Confluence of sinuses
Correct Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 200
Incorrect
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On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral
Explanation:The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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