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  • Question 1 - The muscle which has an antagonistic action to the serratus anterior muscle and...

    Correct

    • The muscle which has an antagonistic action to the serratus anterior muscle and is one of the retractors of the scapula is the?

      Your Answer: Rhomboid major

      Explanation:

      Protraction is accomplished by the actions of the serratus anterior, pectoralis major, and pectoralis minor muscles. Retraction is accomplished by the actions of the trapezius, rhomboids, and latissimus dorsi muscles.

      The rhomboid major arises from the second, third, fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae. It is inserted into a narrow tendinous arch attached to the root of the spine of the scapula and the inferior angle. By its insertion in the inferior angle of the scapula, it acts on this angle and produces a slight rotation of the scapula on the side of the chest. It also retracts the scapula by working with the trapezius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following structures is not easily palpable? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following structures is not easily palpable?

      Your Answer: Styloid process of the temporal bone

      Explanation:

      The styloid process is a thin, pointed process that projects antero-inferiorly from the base of the petrous temporal bone. It can vary in length from a short, stubby process to a slender, four to five centimetre rod. It forms from the cranial elements of the second pharyngeal arch. The tympanic plate of the temporal bone ensheathes the base of this process. The pointed, projecting portion of the process provides attachment to the stylohyoid and stylomandibular ligaments, and to three muscles – the styloglossus, stylohyoid, and stylopharyngeus. As the styloid process is covered by the various muscles, it is not easily palpable in live subjects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding...

    Correct

    • During a splenectomy procedure of a 45-year old male patient with a bleeding ruptured spleen, the surgeon decided to clamp the splenic artery near the coeliac trunk to stop the bleeding. Which of the following organ/s parts will be least affected by the clamping?

      Your Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The duodenum is the only organ in the list that would not be affect by the clumping of the splenic artery as it is supplied by common hepatic artery (through the gastroduodenal artery) and the superior mesenteric artery (through the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery). The splenic artery is the artery that supplies the spleen with oxygenated blood. The splenic artery before reaching the spleen also gives off branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas. The greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach is supplied the short gastric artery which branches off from the splenic artery. The left portion of the greater curvature of the stomach together with the greater omentum is supplied by the left gastro-omental artery of the splenic artery. The body and tail of the pancreas is supplied by branches of the splenic artery through the dorsal and superior pancreatic arteries and the caudal pancreatic arteries respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      81.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of...

    Correct

    • An anatomy instructor is giving a demonstration of the right lung. Which of the statements about the right lung made by the demonstrator is correct?

      Your Answer: Its upper lobar bronchus lies behind and above the right pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      The root of the lungs on both sides are similar in that the pulmonary veins are anterior and inferior while the bronchus is posterior. However, on the right side, the pulmonary arteries are anterior to the bronchus while on the left side the pulmonary arteries are superior to the bronchus. The lingual is only found on the left lung. The mediastinum is the space in the thorax between the two pleural sacs and does not contain any lung. The right lung, having three lobes, is slightly larger than the left lung. On both sides, the phrenic nerves passes in front of the root of the lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Correct

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Correct

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger...

    Correct

    • While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?

      Your Answer: Pubic tubercle

      Explanation:

      At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.

      Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.

      The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.

      The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.

      The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?

      Your Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:

      Your Answer: The aorta passes through the opening at T10

      Correct Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragmatic openings are:

      T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve

      T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein

      T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of...

    Correct

    • When a young boy falls on his outstretched hand, he fractures one of the bones at his wrist joint. The doctors told his parents that the fractured bone has special importance as it is that bone that articulates with the distal end of the radius. Which one of the following is it?

      Your Answer: Scaphoid

      Explanation:

      It is the scaphoid bone that articulates with the radius at this level. It is located at the radial side of the wrist and is considered the largest bone in the proximal row of carpal bones. It articulates with the radius via its superior surface. This bone also articulates with trapezium and trapezoid bones via the inferior surface, capitate and lunate medially.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands....

    Correct

    • A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Posterior superior gyrus of left temporal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial...

    Correct

    • Infection to all of the following will lead to enlargement of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes, except for:

      Your Answer: Ampulla of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal lymph nodes form a chain immediately below the inguinal ligament. They receive lymphatic supply from the skin of the penis, scrotum, perineum, buttock and abdominal wall below the level of the umbilicus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Due to a plantarflexion–inversion ankle sprain, which is the first ligament to rupture?...

    Correct

    • Due to a plantarflexion–inversion ankle sprain, which is the first ligament to rupture?

      Your Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The anterior talofibular ligament passes from the anterior margin of the fibular malleolus. It is the most commonly injured ligament, as part of the lateral ligament of the ankle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply...

    Correct

    • Which of the following arteries, if ligated, will most likely affect blood supply to the pancreas?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The pancreas is a glandular organ in the body that produces important hormones such as insulin and glucagon. Its blood supply is from branches of the coeliac artery, superior mesenteric artery and the splenic artery. These are the arteries that if ligated, would affect blood supply to the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor,...

    Correct

    • After a car accident, a 30-year-old woman is alert and only has minor, superficial injuries. 2 hours later, she becomes unconscious and a CT scan reveals a convex, lens-shaped haemorrhage over the right parietal region. The most likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Epidural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Epidural haematomas are usually caused by arterial bleeding, classically due to damage to the middle meningeal artery by a temporal bone fracture. Symptoms develop within minutes to several hours after the injury and consist of increasing headache, decreased level of consciousness, hemiparesis and pupillary dilation with loss of light reactivity. Around 15–20% of epidural hematomas are fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain...

    Correct

    • Which organs would cause pain in a patient who complains of dull pain in her pelvis, along the midline starting from the pubic bone in the front to the sacrum at the back?

      Your Answer: Urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina, rectum

      Explanation:

      The pain could have been caused by the urinary bladder, uterus/cervix/vagina or rectum as it involves the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity...

    Correct

    • The tympanic membrane is a thin semi-transparent membrane that separates the tympanic cavity from the bottom of the external acoustic meatus. The interior of the tympanic membrane is innervated by which of the following cranial nerves?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve, known as the ninth cranial nerve (CN IX), is a mixed nerve that carries afferent sensory and efferent motor information. The glossopharyngeal nerve has five distinct general functions:

      – The branchial motor (special visceral efferent), supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle.

      – The visceral motor (general visceral efferent), provides parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland via the otic ganglion.

      – The visceral sensory (general visceral afferent), carries visceral sensory information from the carotid sinus and carotid body.

      – The general sensory (general somatic afferent), provides general sensory information from the inner surface of the tympanic membrane, upper pharynx (GVA), and the posterior one-third of the tongue.

      – The visceral afferent (special visceral afferent), provides taste sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, including the circumvallate papillae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Correct

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Correct

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which...

    Correct

    • Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which artery?

      Your Answer: Perforating

      Explanation:

      There are usually 3 perforating arteries:

      The first gives branches to the adductor brevis and magnus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus and anastomoses with the inferior gluteal, medial and lateral femoral circumflex.

      The second artery supplies the posterior femoral muscles and anastomose with the first and third perforating vessels.

      The third supplies the posterior femoral muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head...

    Correct

    • An excision of a mass in the right parietal area of the head will be performed. In which layer of the scalp are the nerves and blood vessels located?

      Your Answer: Connective tissue

      Explanation:

      The scalp is the anatomical area bordered by the face at the front, and by the neck at the sides and back. The scalp is usually described as having five layers:

      1. The skin which contains numerous sebaceous glands and hair follicles.

      2. The connective tissue, a dense subcutaneous layer of fat and fibrous tissue that lies beneath the skin, containing the nerves and vessels of the scalp.

      3. The aponeurosis or galea aponeurotica, a tough layer of dense fibrous tissue which runs from the frontalis muscle anteriorly to the occipitalis posteriorly.

      4. The loose areolar connective tissue layer provides an easy plane of separation between the upper three layers and the pericranium.

      5. The pericranium is the periosteum of the skull bones and provides nutrition to the bone and the capacity for repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscle divide the posterior triangle of the neck into the occipital and the subclavian triangle?

      Your Answer: Inferior belly of the omohyoid

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck bounded in front by the sternocleidomastoid; behind, by the anterior margin of the trapezius; inferiorly by the middle third of the clavicle and superiorly by the occipital bone. The posterior triangle is crossed, about 2.5 cm above the clavicle, by the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle, which divides the space into two triangles: an upper or occipital triangle and a lower or subclavian triangle (or supraclavicular triangle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer: Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:

      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:

      Stapes,

      Temporal styloid process,

      Stylohyoid ligament, and

      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.

      Muscles:

      Muscles of face

      Occipitofrontalis muscle

      Platysma

      Stylohyoid muscle

      Posterior belly of Digastric

      Stapedius muscle

      Auricular muscles

      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Incorrect

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: The adductor part of the adductor magnus muscle would be affected

      Correct Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the...

    Correct

    • The circle of Willis is an arterial anastomosis in the base of the brain and is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards in the brain. Where is the circle of Willis contained?

      Your Answer: Cisterna basalis

      Explanation:

      Cisterns refers to a system of intercommunicating pools formed by the subarachnoid space at the base of the brain and around the brainstem. Cisterna basalis/basal cistern (interpeduncular cistern) is found at the base of the brain between the two temporal lobes and it contains the arterial circle of Willis. The lumbar cistern is contained in the spinal canal while the foramen magna refers to the opening at the base of the skull though which the spinal cord enters into the skull.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Correct

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      3.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (23/26) 88%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Head & Neck (8/8) 100%
Embryology (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (4/5) 80%
Thorax (3/3) 100%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
Pathology (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (2/2) 100%
Passmed