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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs due to:
Your Answer: Decreased filtration fraction
Correct Answer: Increased release of renin
Explanation:The oedema is an effect of the a decreased cardiac output that increases renin release which leads to vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presented with episodes of collapse during the last month. Each episode persisted for about 2-3 minutes. They were self-limiting and associated with twitching of the limbs. There was no associated tonic-clonic movements, tongue biting, urinary or faecal incontinence. On examination he had reversed splitting of S2 and an ejection systolic murmur at the right sternal border. His electrocardiogram (ECG) showed left ventricular hypertrophy with strain pattern. CXR showed an area of calcification over the cardiac silhouette. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic sclerosis
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:The classic triad of symptoms in patients with aortic stenosis is chest pain, heart failure and syncope. Pulsus parvus et tardus, pulsus alternans, hyperdynamic left ventricle, reversed splitting of the S2, prominent S4 and systolic murmur are some of the common findings of aortic stenosis. A calcified aortic valve is found in almost all adults with hemodynamically significant aortic stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old farmer presents with a fever, headache, malaise and neck stiffness. The first line empirical antibiotic is?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is meningitis which requires admission and iv antibiotics. The drug of choice is a 3rd generation cephalosporin. In patients older than 55 , ampicillin cefotaxime combination is used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 4
Correct
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Fabry's disease is a rare genetic disorder that leads to excessive deposition of neutral glycosphingolipids in the vascular endothelium of several organs and in epithelial and smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Fabry's disease?
Your Answer: Inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
Explanation:Fabry disease (Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum) is an X-linked lysosomal disorder which occurs due to deficiency or absence of alpha-galactosidase A (?-GAL A) activity as a result of a genetic mutation in the GLA gene. As Fabry’s disease follows X-linked genetics it manifestis predominantly in men. Ongoing burning, tingling pain and discomfort, known as acroparesthesia, mainly affecting the hands and feet is the most debilitating symptom in childhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 54-year-old female presents with shortness of breath that has been going on for the last 10 months. Physical examination shows that she has an irregularly irregular pulse and a loud P2 with fixed splitting accompanied by a systolic ejection murmur in the 2nd left intercostal space. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect (ASD)
Explanation:Atrial septal defect (ASD) is one of the more commonly recognized congenital cardiac anomalies presenting in adulthood. ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum allowing pulmonary venous return from the left atrium to pass directly to the right atrium. Depending on the size of the defect, size of the shunt, and associated anomalies, this can result in a spectrum of disease ranging from no significant cardiac sequelae to right-sided volume overload, pulmonary arterial hypertension, and even atrial arrhythmias.
With the routine use of echocardiography, the detection and, therefore, the incidence of ASD is increased compared to earlier incidence studies using catheterization, surgery, or autopsy for diagnosis. The subtle physical examination findings and often minimal symptoms during the first 2-3 decades of life contribute to a delay in diagnosis until adulthood, the majority (more than 70%) of which is detected by the fifth decade of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Correct
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The family of a 10-year-old boy was advised to take the boy to see an oncologist, for suspected lymphoma. The boy had lymphadenopathy on presentation. His mother says that he's had a fever, night sweats and has experienced weight loss. The boy underwent a lymph node biopsy at the oncologist which suggests Burkitt's lymphoma. Which oncogene are you expecting to see after molecular testing?
Your Answer: c-MYC
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is a germinal centre B-cell-derived cancer that was instrumental in the identification of MYC as an important human oncogene more than three decades ago. Recently, new genomics technologies have uncovered several additional oncogenic mechanisms that cooperate with MYC to create this highly aggressive cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 7-year-old asthmatic boy presented to the pulmonologist with an exacerbation of shortness of breath for 3 days. At the time of admission, he was still experiencing breathlessness with oxygen saturation found to be less than 90%. CXR shows bilateral hyperinflation. Which of the following should be done?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gas
Explanation:Arterial blood gas is useful for the evaluation of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange, respiratory function including hypoxia, and acid/base balance. This will quickly indicate if assisted ventilation is required for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with asymptomatic enlargement of his cervical lymph nodes. Full blood count shows low-grade anaemia, leukocytosis, and thrombocytopenia. Lymph node biopsy is suggestive of a low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
Which two of the following statements fit best with this condition?Your Answer: Extra-nodal presentation is more common than in Hodgkin's disease
Explanation:Extra-nodal presentation is more common in non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) than in Hodgkin lymphoma (HL). Bone marrow infiltration is more common in low-grade than in high-grade NHLs.
Low-grade NHL is predominantly a disease of older people. Most present with advanced disease, bone marrow infiltration being almost invariable. Anaemia, leucocytosis, and/or thrombocytopaenia in a patient are suggestive of bone marrow involvement. For definitive diagnosis, lymph node biopsy is sufficient.
The other aforementioned statements are ruled out because:
1. Renal impairment in NHL usually occurs as a consequence of ureteric obstruction secondary to intra-abdominal or pelvic lymph node enlargement.2. Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade NHL, which was first described in children in West Africa who presented with a jaw tumour, extra-nodal abdominal involvement, and ovarian tumours. It develops most often in children or young adults and is uncommon in older people.
3. High-grade lymphomas are potentially curable. They have a better prognosis and are responsive to chemotherapy unlike low-grade lymphomas, which are incurable with conventional therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female presents with a history of a whitish discharge from her vagina. She previously underwent a dental procedure and completed a 7 day antibiotic course prior to it. Which of the following microorganisms has most likely lead to this?
Your Answer: Trichomonas
Correct Answer: Candida
Explanation:Candida albicans is the most common cause of candidiasis and appears almost universally in low numbers on healthy skin, in the oropharyngeal cavity, and in the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. In immunocompetent individuals, C. albicans usually causes minor localized infections, including thrush (affecting the oral cavity), vaginal yeast infections (if there is an underlying pH imbalance), and infections of the intertriginous areas of skin (e.g., the axillae or gluteal folds). More widespread and systemic infections may occur in immunocompromised individuals (e.g., neonates, diabetics, and HIV patients), with the oesophagus most commonly affected (candida esophagitis). Localized cutaneous candidiasis infections may be treated with topical antifungal agents (e.g., clotrimazole). More widespread and systemic infections require systemic therapy with fluconazole or caspofungin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A young woman is complaining of a sensation of spinning and loss of balance every time she moves sideways on the bed while lying supine. What would you do next?
Your Answer: Head roll test
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). It is a peripheral vestibular disorder characterized by short episodes of mild to intense dizziness and influenced by specific changes in head position. BPPV is the most common cause of vertigo accounting for nearly one-half of patients with peripheral vestibular dysfunction. In order to establish the diagnosis, the head roll test is performed where the head is turned about 90° to each side while supine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 36-year-old patient who is a known IV drug abuser presented with complaints of sudden onset of sharp excruciating chest pain, which increases on inspiration and is relieved by bending forward. He also complained of shortness of breath for the last few months. The most likely diagnosis would be?
Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The chief symptoms of pericarditis comprise of sudden onset of sharp chest pain, that is relieved by bending forward and is exacerbated by deep inspiration. Symptoms can vary among the individuals but these are the chief symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 23-year-old patient was involved in a MVA. Clinical examination reveals a fixed dilated pupil and reduced consciousness. Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged?
Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Explanation:The oculomotor nerve is the 3rd cranial nerve. When damaged it affects the ocular motility causing mainly ptosis or diplopia. Damage to it can also affect the pupillary functions causing pupil dilation and light reflex impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of pins and needles in the lower limbs, and progressive walking difficulties. She states she had diarrhoea 1 week ago. On examination, there is a loss of pinprick sensation noted to the lower limbs from mid-thigh distally and in the upper limbs from MCP joints distally. There is bilateral weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, noted at 3/5, and knee flexion and extension weakness, noted at 4/5 bilaterally. Power in upper and lower limbs is otherwise normal. Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Botulism
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is an immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection (classically Campylobacter jejuni). Characteristic features include progressive weakness of all four limbs, and it is classically ascending, affecting the lower extremities first. Sensory symptoms tend to be mild.
Functional neurological syndrome can be discounted due to presence of hard neurological signs. Multiple sclerosis can be excluded because of the presence of lower motor neuron signs and absence of upper motor neuron signs. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is the chronic form of Guillain-Barre syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 66-year-old woman comes to you with a tender lump near the anal opening and a fever. She has history of T1DM for the last 20 years. What treatment should she get?
Your Answer: I&D + antibiotics
Explanation:Surgical incision and drainage is the most common treatment for anal abscesses. About 50% of patients with an anal abscess will develop a complication called a fistula. Diabetes is a risk factor for an anal abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following statements regarding dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors in the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is correct?
Your Answer: Do not cause weight gain
Explanation:Several dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors are in clinical development; these are orally active and increase levels of active glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which in turn increases insulin secretion and reduces glucagon secretion, thereby lowering glucose levels.
Sitagliptin and vildagliptin both have a long duration of action, allowing once-daily administration. Both sitagliptin and vildagliptin are safe and tolerable with a low risk of hypoglycaemia. In drug-naïve subjects with type 2 diabetes, both sitagliptin and vildagliptin reduce A1C levels by ,1% as monotherapy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 16
Correct
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An 18-year-old woman in her 30th week of pregnancy is brought to the hospital in altered sensorium. She is taking slow, shallow breaths and her breath has a fruity smell. An arterial blood gas (ABG) shows the presence of ketones. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:This a case of gestational diabetes presenting with DKA. It is a serious case that requires immediate intervention. Pregnant diabetics tend to develop DKA on a lower serum glucose level than non-pregnant diabetics. The shortness of breath is a trial to wash the excess CO2 to compensate for the metabolic acidosis seen in the ABG. The fruity smell is acetone excreted through the lungs. The main treatment of this case is proper fluid management and insulin infusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old man presents to the physician with complaints of hoarseness of voice and cough for the past 3 weeks. The patient has been a smoker and quit 3 years ago. Radiological examination reveals a mass in the mediastinum. Which investigation should be employed to establish a diagnosis?
Your Answer: CT thorax
Correct Answer: LN biopsy
Explanation:Masses in the middle mediastinum most commonly represent lymph nodes that are enlarged by a malignant, infectious, or inflammatory process. Masses in the posterior mediastinum are usually benign tumours or cysts originating from either the nerves that are present in this area (neurogenic tumours) or from the oesophagus (foregut duplication cysts). Lymph node biopsy would be the ideal choice of investigation in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is a known case of Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and is admitted to the hospital with headache, visual disturbances, pale conjunctivae, and breathlessness. While in the assessment unit, he has had an episode of nosebleed that has been difficult to control. On examination, his heart rate is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 115/65 mmHg, and he is febrile with a temperature of 37°C. Fundoscopy shows dilated retinal veins with a retinal haemorrhage in the right eye.
What is the most appropriate next step of management?Your Answer: Plasmapheresis
Explanation:The patient is displaying signs and symptoms of hyperviscosity syndrome, secondary to the Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia. Treatment of choice is plasmapheresis.
Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32 year-old active male presents with a three month history of pain in his feet and lower legs. He was previously diagnosed with diabetes at age 14 and treated with insulin. He admits to drinking 30 units of alcohol per week and is a current cannabis smoker. On examination, pain and temperature sensation in his feet are diminished, but joint position and vibratory sensation appear normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic polyneuropathy
Explanation:The given history suggests a small fibre painful peripheral sensory neuropathy, the most common cause of which is diabetes. Joint position sense and vibratory sensation are carried through large fibres, and therefore are not currently affected. Sensory nerves are affected more often than motor, so reflexes usually remain in tact.
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes impairment of joint position and vibratory sensation.
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIPD) causes a large fibre peripheral neuropathy with areflexia.
In syringomyelia there is impaired pain and temperature noted in the upper limbs.
Finally, with alcoholic polyneuropathy, all fibre types are affected (sensory and motor loss). It is usually gradual with long term alcohol abuse and may be accompanied by a nutritional deficiency. In addition, pain is a more dominant feature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 20
Correct
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A 60-year-old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?
Your Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old gentleman with renal cell carcinoma has a haemoglobin of 19 g/dl. Which investigation will conclusively prove that this patient has secondary polycythaemia?
Your Answer: Erythropoietin level
Explanation:Erythropoietin (EPO) is used to distinguish between primary and secondary polycythaemia. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by tumours in the kidney that may secrete EPO or EPO-like proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?
Your Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.
Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception.
ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:
Antibiotics
Tetracyclines
Aminoglycosides
Sulphonamides and trimethoprim
QuinolonesOther drugs:
ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
Statins
Warfarin
Sulfonylureas
Retinoids (including topical)
Cytotoxic agents
The majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 66 year-old marketing analyst presents to the respiratory clinic with a 2-month history of progressive weakness and shortness of breath. He finds it difficult to stand from sitting, and struggles climbing stairs. He is an ex-smoker with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He had a recent exacerbation one month ago for which he was treated by the GP with a course of oral prednisolone, during which time his weakness transiently improved. On examination, you note a left-sided monophonic wheeze and reduced breath sounds at the left lung base. Blood tests and a chest x-ray are requested.
Hb 145 g/L
WCC10.5 109/l
Na+136 mmol/L
K+ 4.3 mmol/L
Urea 6.8 mmol/L
Creatinine 93 mmol/L
Calcium 2.62 mmol/L
Phosphate 1.44 mmol/L
Chest x-ray shows hyperinflated lungs, left lower lobe collapse and a bulky left hilum
What is the most likely cause of this patient's weakness?Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Explanation:This man has a small-cell lung cancer (SCLC) and associated Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome – a well-recognized paraneoplastic manifestation of SCLC. This classically affects the proximal muscles, especially in the legs, causing difficulty in standing from a seated position and climbing stairs. In contrast to myasthenia gravis, eye involvement is uncommon. Treatment with steroids is often helpful, which explains his transient symptomatic improvement during treatment for his COPD exacerbation. Steroid myopathy does not fit as the symptoms started well before his course of prednisolone. Although the patient is mildly hypercalcaemic, this would not be sufficient to produce his presenting symptoms, although it does reinforce the suspicion of lung malignancy. Motor neurone disease would be unlikely in this context and would not improve with steroids. Myasthenia gravis could produce these symptoms, but in the context of a new lung mass is a less viable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presented following an insect bite she complained of itching at the site of bite. What is the most appropriate management can be done at this stage?
Your Answer: Oral antihistamine
Explanation:Itching is due to release of histamine locally as a reaction to insect bites. Oral antihistamines are adequate as she doesn’t have other systemic features of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired tailor is examined for involuntary, jerking movements of his arms. His symptoms seem to resolve when he is asleep. Damage to which one of the following structures may lead to hemiballism?
Your Answer: Red nucleus
Correct Answer: Subthalamic nucleus
Explanation:Hemiballismus or hemiballism in its unilateral form is a very rare movement disorder. It is a type of chorea caused in most cases by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, resulting in the appearance of flailing, ballistic, undesired movements of the limbs. Symptoms may decrease while the patient is asleep. Antidopaminergic agents (e.g. Haloperidol) are the mainstay of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presented in the OPD with the complaint of recurrent lower back pain. The doctor suspected a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. Which one of the following investigations is the most useful to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: CT lumbar spine
Correct Answer: XR sacro-iliac joints
Explanation:An X-ray of the sacroiliac joint will show fusion of both joints and symmetrical, thin syndesmophytes bridging the intervertebral disc spaces. None of the other investigations could clearly show this picture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old male with a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes per day complains of worsening breathlessness on exertion. He was working as a salesman until a few months ago. His father passed away due to severe respiratory disease at a relatively young age. Routine blood examination reveals mild jaundice with bilirubin level of 90 µmol/l. AST and ALT are also raised. Chest X-ray reveals basal emphysema. Which of the following explanation is most likely the cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer: ?-1-Antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation:Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung and liver disease. The signs and symptoms of the condition and the age at which they appear vary among individuals. This would be the most likely option as it is the only disease that can affect both liver and lung functions.
People with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency usually develop the first signs and symptoms of lung disease between ages 20 and 50. The earliest symptoms are shortness of breath following mild activity, reduced ability to exercise, and wheezing. Other signs and symptoms can include unintentional weight loss, recurring respiratory infections, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat upon standing. Affected individuals often develop emphysema. Characteristic features of emphysema include difficulty breathing, a hacking cough, and a barrel-shaped chest. Smoking or exposure to tobacco smoke accelerates the appearance of emphysema symptoms and damage to the lungs.
About 10 percent of infants with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver disease, which often causes yellowing of the skin and sclera (jaundice). Approximately 15 percent of adults with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver damage (cirrhosis) due to the formation of scar tissue in the liver. Signs of cirrhosis include a swollen abdomen, swollen feet or legs, and jaundice. Individuals with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are also at risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male came to the emergency room after sustaining injuries during a fight at a nightclub. He was drunk and abusive to the nurse on duty. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer: Implement Public Health Act
Correct Answer: Call police
Explanation:As this patient seems to be a danger to the safety of staff, police should be called to handle the situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethical & Legal
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Question 29
Correct
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Organophosphates, such as Sarin, have been used as chemical-warfare agents by terrorists.
Which of the following statements is true concerning organophosphate poisoning?Your Answer: Atropine is useful in the management of organophosphate poisoning
Explanation:The principal action of organophosphates is the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase’s, therefore leading to the accumulation of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors (miosis, hypersalivation, sweating, diarrhoea, excessive bronchial secretions), nicotinic receptors (muscle fasciculations and tremor) and in the central nervous system (anxiety, loss of memory, headache, coma).
Removal from the source of the organophosphate, adequate decontamination, supplemental oxygen and atropine are the initial treatment measures. Pralidoxime, an activator of cholinesterase, should be given to all symptomatic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 70-year-old man underwent emergency surgery for an acute abdomen. Following surgery, he was noted to be oliguric. Investigations revealed the following: Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144) Potassium 6.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Chloride 92 mmol/L (95-107) Urea 17.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Creatinine 250 µmol/L (60-110) pH 7.16 (7.36-7.44) Standard bicarbonate 15.6 mmol/L (20-28). What is the calculated anion gap for this patient?
Your Answer: 20 mmol/L
Explanation:Anion gap is calculated as (Na + K) − (Cl + HCO3). Therefore in this patient, the calculated value is 20 mmol/L. The normal anion gap is between 8-16 mmol/l. The excessive value here reflects the presence of other acidic anions, and in this case with the metabolic acidosis, the constituents may be lactate, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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